ESTHETICS BOARDS PREP Flashcards

1
Q

Soft skills are also called?

a. professional image enhancers
b. communication skills
c. key quality
d. nonverbal communication signs

A

The answer is b:

Communication skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Your social media presence requires _____ attention.

a. hourly
b. daily
c. weekly
d. monthly

A

The answer is a:

Hourly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of these nonverbal actions sends a negative message?

a. making eye contact
b. smiling
c. crossing your arms
d. standing up straight

A

The answer is c:

Crossing your arms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Listening to the client then repeating, in your own words, what you think the client is telling you is known as ______.

a. associative communication
b. targeted assimilation
c. repetitive feedback
d. reflective listening

A

The answer is d:

Reflective listening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of these is considered a legal document?

a. intake form
b. color chart
c. release statement
d. service record

A

The answer is c:

Release statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Body language is _____.

a. a set of scientific terms used for describing the body
b. any terminology the client uses to describe their body
c. verbal communication such as describing which are will be treated
d. nonverbal communication such as crossing your arms and frowning

A

The answer is d:

Nonverbal communication such as crossing your arms and frowning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A(n) ______ is also known as a client questionnaire.

a. beauty review
b. intake form
c. consent form
d. color chart

A

The answer is b:

Intake form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which is the best example of constructive criticism?

a. observations you offer about why a client does not look good
b. comments you make about how other beauty professionals do their jobs
c. feedback you provide when your manager is not performing well
d. guidance offered by supervisors to improve your job performance

A

The answer is d:

Guidance offered by supervisors to improve your job performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

______ are needed for many body functions, including hormones, sebum production and absorption of vitamins.

a. carbohydrates
b. fats
c. minerals
d. proteins

A

The answer is b:

Fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_____ to achieve a balanced sitting position.

a. position your knees in front of your feet
b. lock your knees firmly in place
c. distribute your weight evenly on both hips
d. keep your back arched

A

The answer is c:

Distribute your weight evenly on both hips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) registers different types of ______.

a. antiseptics
b. antibiotics
c. diseases
d. disinfections

A

The answer is d:

Disinfections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a contagious skin disease caused by the itch mite?

a. scabies
b. blood poisoning
c. lesions
d. HIV/AIDS

A

The answer is a:

Scabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Completely destroying all microbial life including bacterial spores is known as _______.

a. cleaning
b. laundering
c. sterilizing
d. sanitizing

A

The answer is c:

Sterilizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The process that eliminates most, but not necessarily all, microorganisms on nonliving surfaces is called _____.

a. fumigations
b. disinfection
c. sanitation
d. sterilization

A

The answer is b:

Disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Products and equipment that do not have the word _____ on the label are merely cleaners.

a. moisturizer
b. disinfectant
c. antiseptic
d. universal precautions

A

The answer is b:

Disinfectant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If a product label has the word ______ on it, the product must be diluted and cannot be used directly from the original container.

a. mixed
b. disinfectant
c. proportioned
d. concentrate

A

The answer is d:

Concentrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

_______ liquids are liquids that mix easily.

a. miscible
b. immiscible
c. compatible
d. incompatible

A

The answer is a:

Miscible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Only products that contain ____ have a pH.

a. alcohols
b. water
c. hydrogen
d. hydroxide

A

The answer is b:

Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A(n) ______ is a mixture of two or more substances that are united with the aid of a binder.

a. ointment
b. emulsion
c. suspension
d. solution

A

The answer is b:

Emulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A product with a pH of 8.9 is considered to be ______.

a. neutral
b. acid
c. alkaline
d. balanced

A

The answer is c:

Alkaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Because it has the ability to dissolve more substances than any other solvent, _____ is known as the universal solvent.

a. ethyl alcohol
b. isopropyl alcohol
c. hydrogen peroxide
d. water

A

The answer is d:

Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A positive electrode is called a(n) _______.

a. anode
b. cathode
c. anion
d. cation

A

The answer is a:

Anode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Commonly used modalities in beauty and wellness are Tesla high-frequency current, micro current, and ______ current.

a. electronic
b. galvanic
c. cathodic
d. anodal

A

The answer is a:

Electronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The process of introducing water-soluble products into the skin with the use of electric current is known as _______.

a. iontophoresis
b. desincrustation
c. megaphoresis
d. cataphoresis

A

The answer is a:

Iontophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

An extremely low level of electricity that mirrors the body’s natural electricity impulses is known as ______.

a. galvanic current
b. Tesla high-frequency current
c. micro current
d. direct current

A

The answer is c:

Microcurrent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What type of spa features managing and market professionals at the corporate headquarters who make all the decisions for each shop, such as size, decor, hours, services, prices, advertising and profit targets?

a. national chain
b. franchise
c. school associated
d. booth rental

A

The answer is a:

National chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the ideal length for a resume?

a. four to five pages
b. three pages
c. two to three pages
d. one page

A

The answer is d:

One page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The different types of currents in facial and scalp treatments ______.

a. units
b. AC
c. modalities
d. DC

A

The answer is c:

Modalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which question can legally be asked at a job interview?

a. Are you physically able to perform this job?
b. How old are you?
c. Are you a US citizen?
d. What is your native language?

A

The answer is a:

Are you physically able to perform this job?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

An employer is responsible for all of the following except _______.

a. providing Form W-2
b. paying unemployment taxes
c. withholding Medicare taxes
d. reporting wages to the IRS

A

The answer is d:

Reporting wages to the IRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

An independent contractor receives a Form 1099-MISC from the business owner for income over _______.

a. $400
b. $600
c. $800
d. $1,000

A

The answer is b:

$600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Not paying back your loan is called ______.

a. defaulting
b. misearning
c. defuncting
d. mismanagement

A

The answer is a:

Defaulting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A personal ______ helps you keep track of where your money goes.

a. teller
b. budget
c. bank
d. balance sheet

A

The answer is b:

Budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A(n) ______ plan is a written description of the proposed business.

a. financial
b. business
c. design
d. outlay

A

The answer is b:

Business

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A _______ is a sweeping picture of the long-term goals for the business, what it is to become, and what it will look like when it gets there.

a. vision statement
b. mission statement
c. financial projection
d. business timeline

A

The answer is a:

Vision statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Any agreement to by an established salon or spa should include all of the following items except ______.

a. a statement of inventory
b. a financial audit
c. information regarding clientele
d. the previous owners business plan

A

The answer is d:

The previous owners business plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A(n) _______ should specify clearly who owns what and who is responsible for which repairs and expenses.

a. lease
b. financial statement
c. business plan
d. organizational plan

A

The answer is a:

Lease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The art of removing hair can also be called ______.

a. tweezing
b. sugaring
c. threading
d. all answers

A

The answer is d:

All answers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Fat or _____ tissue gives smoothness and contour to the body.

a. muscular
b. nerve
c. epithelial
d. adipose

A

The answer is d:

Adipose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A collection of similar cells that perform a particular function is called a(n) ______.

a. organ
b. system
c. tissue
d. protoplasm

A

The answer is c:

Tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The integumentary system is made up of the ______ and its various accessory organs.

a. skin
b. bones
c. muscles
d. nerves

A

The answer is a:

Skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How would you describe the circulatory system?

a. it helps with respiration
b. it contains the elimination organs
c. it controls the blood supply
d. it is used for reproduction

A

The answer is c:

It controls the blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The cranium is made up of how many bones?

a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 12

A

The answer is c:

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What bone forms the forehead?

a. frontal
b. temporal
c. ethmoid
d. parietal

A

The answer is a:

Frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The largest and strongest bone of the face is the ______.

a. maxillae
b. nasal
c. mandible
d. frontal

A

The answer is c:

Mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The three parts of a muscle are the ______.

a. origin, insertion, middle
b. origin, insertion, upper
c. origin, insertion, belly
d. lower, middle, upper

A

The answer is c:

Origin, insertion, belly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The muscle that enables you to close your eyes is the _____.

a. corrugator
b. procerus
c. quadratus labii superioris
d. orbicularis oculi

A

The answer is d:

Orbicularis oculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The muscle that draws the eyebrow down and wrinkles the forehead vertically is the _____.

a. corrugator
b. orbicularis oculi
c. temporalis
d. frontalis

A

The answer is a:

Corrugator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Estheticians are primarily concerned with three cranial nerves. Which of the following is not one of the three?

a. fifth
b. seventh
c. eighth
d. eleventh

A

The answer is c:

Eighth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which system protects the body from disease?

a. circulatory
b. lymphatic
c. integumentary
d. endocrine

A

The answer is b:

Lymphatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which hormone is dominate in males?

a. estrogen
b. melisma
c. progesterone
d. testosterone

A

The answer is d:

Testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does the skin purify the body?

a. it eliminates salt
b. it discharges bile
c. it eliminates water
d. it excretes carbon dioxide

A

The answer is a:

It eliminates salt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which subdivision of the nervous system controls the five senses?

a. peripheral
b. central
c. autonomic
d. reflexive

A

The answer is b:

Central

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is another name of the seventh cranial nerve?

a. nasal nerve
b. facial nerve
c. mental nerve
d. buccal nerve

A

The answer is b:

Facial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the largest artery in the body?

a. brain
b. aorta
c. heart
d. lungs

A

The answer is b:

Aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

As an esthetician, understanding facial vessel locations helps you avoid doing what during a treatment?

a. pinching
b. bruising
c. overstimulation
d. forming clots

A

The answer is b:

Bruising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The barrier function of the skin includes _____.

a. hair
b. follicles
c. pores
d. acid mantle

A

The answer is d:

Acid mantle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the average pH of the acid mantle?

a. 2.5
b. 4.5
c. 5.5
d. 6.5

A

The answer is c:

5.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does TEWL stand for?

a. transepidermal water loss
b. transitional water loss
c. transepidermal waxy lipids
d. transferable water lipids

A

The answer is a:

Transepidermal water loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which glands excrete perspiration?

a. papilla
b. sebaceous
c. sudoriferous
d. arrector pilli

A

The answer is c:

Sudoriferous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The sebaceous glands ______.

a. regulate body temperature
b. excrete sebum
c. cause goosebumps
d. excrete sweat

A

The answer is b:

Excrete sebum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the average adult skin cell turnover rate?

a. 28 days
b. 24-48 hours
c. 14 days
d. 45 days

A

The answer is a:

28 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Desquamation is the ______.

a. intercellular connections between skin cells
b. shedding of keratinocytes from the skin
c. protection of the body from infections
d. process of cell division

A

The answer is b:

Shedding of keratinocytes from the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which layer of the epidermis is located just below the stratum corneum?

a. stratum granulosum
b. stratum lucidum
c. stratum spinosum
d. stratum germinatevum

A

The answer is b:

Stratum lucidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which layer of the skin contains melanocytes?

a. stratum granulosum
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum germinatevum
d. status lucidum

A

The answer is c:

Stratum germinatevum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The primary cause of wrinkles is the damage and loss of _____.

a. collagen
b. fibroblasts
c. elastin
d. papilla

A

The answer is c:

Elastin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

If you have folliculitis, you have _______?

a. an inflammation of the follicle
b. a skin pigmentation disorder
c. exceptionally soft skin
d. dehydrated skin

A

The answer is a:

An inflammation of the follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which of the following stimulates cell turnover?

a. alpha hydroxy acids
b. ceramides
c. hylauronic acid
d. benefic

A

The answer is a:

Alpha hydroxy acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

_________ are known as burning rays because they cause burning of the skin, tanning, aging and cancer.

a. UVA rays
b. UVC rays
c. UVB rays
d. infrared rays

A

The answer is c:

UVB rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Approximately ______ perfect of aging is caused by sun exposure.

a. 80-85
b. 75-80
c. 70-75
d. 50-60

A

The answer is a:

80-85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which system controls the excretion of sweat?

a. nervous system
b. integumentary system
c. reproductive system
d. immune system

A

The answer is a:

Nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The ______ glands secrete oil and the ______ glands secrete sweat.

a. apocrine; eccrine
b. sudoriferous; sebaceous
c. sebaceous; sudoriferous
d. eccrine; apocrine

A

The answer is c:

Sebaceous; sudoriferous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Free radicals take electrons from compounds in the body. Which of the following is not considered an antioxidant?

a. vitamins
b. metabolites
c. enzymes
d. collagen

A

The answer is d:

Collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Glycation, an intrinsic part of the aging process is caused by what?

a. dehydration
b. rise in blood sugar
c. reduction of the acid mantle
d. damaged elastin

A

The answer is b:

Rise in blood sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Lesions that are in the initial stages of development are _____ lesions.

a. primary
b. secondary
c. advanced
d. tertiary

A

The answer is a:

Primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A pustule is an example of a _____ lesion.

a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. quaternary

A

The answer is a:

Primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What variety of acne located in the dermis causes depressed and raised scars and should be treated by a medical professional?

a. papules
b. bacterial acne
c. cystic acne
d. P. acne

A

The answer is c:

Cystic acne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Milia are most common in ______ skin types.

a. dry
b. oily
c. combination
d. all

A

The answer is a:

Dry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Warts are caused by ________.

a. virus
b. a chemical or physical irritant
c. direct contact with the skin of a frog
d. bacteria

A

The answer is a:

Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

A condition characterized by bacteria and yeast that causes a foul odor is called ______.

a. anhidrosis
b. hyperhidrosis
c. bromhidrosis
d. milaria rubra

A

The answer is c:

Bromhidrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Pruritus is a condition characterized by ______.

a. scratching
b. rubbing
c. hives
d. itching

A

The answer is d:

Itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

A port wine stain is a type of ______.

a. mole
b. melasma
c. lentigo
d. vascular nevus

A

The answer is d:

Vascular nevus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

A condition with light, abnormal patches of depigmented skin is called _____.

a. albanism
b. hypertrophy
c. vitiligo
d. leukoderma

A

The answer is d:

Leukoderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What condition is sometimes called chicken skin?

a. psoriasis
b. keratosis pilaris
c. hyperkeratosis
d. skin tag

A

The answer is b:

Keratosis pilaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The ______ is the structure that includes the hair, hair shaft, sebaceous gland, and the duct or canal to the surface.

a. hair follicle
b. pilosebaceous unit
c. sudorifeous pore
d. osmium

A

The answer is a:

Hair follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

A pigmentation disease characterized by white patches on the skin from lack of pigment cells is _______.

a. albinism
b. vitiligo
c. melasma
d. lentigo

A

The answer is b:

Vitiligo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

A flat pigmented area, characterized by small yellow-brown spots is known as ______.

a. albinism
b. vitiligo
c. chloasma
d. lentigo

A

The answer is d:

Lentigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Another name for herpes zoster is ______.

a. shingles
b. pinkeye
c. wart
d. ringworm

A

The answer is a:

Shingles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What disorder starts with flushing and increasing bouts of redness?

a. telangiectasia
b. vasodilation
c. rosacea
d. varicose veins

A

The answer is c:

Rosacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which of these condition is contagious?

a. bacterial conjunctivitis
b. impetigo
c. tine corporis
d. all answers

A

The answer is d:

All answers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Skin cancer tumors form when cells ______.

a. stop reproducing
b. divide slowly and evenly
c. grow larger without dividing
d. divide rapidly and unevenly

A

The answer is d:

Divide rapidly and unevenly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Your skin type ______.

a. is determined by genetics
b. is unrelated to your ethnicity
c. never changes
d. all answers

A

The answer is a:

Is determined by genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Products and exposure to heat or sun can easily irritate the skin type.

a. aging
b. fair
c. darkly pigmented skin
d. sensitive

A

The answer is d:

Sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Freckles are most common in people with ____ skin.

a. type i
b. vi
c. type iii
d. type v

A

The answer is a:

Type i

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Which of the following statements is false about the neck and décolleté?

a. they have fewer sebaceous glands than the face
b. the skin is the same as on the face
c. they are more susceptible to irritateion
d. photo damage develops just as much on the neck as on the face

A

The answer is b:

The skin is the same as on the face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What type of skin condition is caused by smoking?

a. acne
b. sensitive
c. dehydrated
d. asphyxiated

A

The answer is d:

Asphyxiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Which of these is an intrinsic effect on the skin?

a. poor maintenance or home care
b. vitamin deficiency
c. allergies
d. all answers

A

The answer is b:

Vitamin deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Which of these is an extrinsic effect on the skin?

a. stress
b. lifestyle
c. negative attitude
d. misuse of products

A

The answer is d:

Misuse of products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What new client form would ask about allergies, medications and sensitivities?

a. intake form
b. consent form
c. service record
d. consultation form

A

The answer is a:

Intake form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Harsh exfoliating or waxing treatments should always be avoided when clients have which of the following conditions?

a. vitamin deficiencies
b. pacemakers
c. autoimmune diseases
d. metal bone pins or plates

A

The answer is c:

Autoimmune diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What may make the skin too sensitive for facials or waxing?

a. diabetes
b. oral steroids
c. epilepsy
d. pacemakers

A

The answer is b:

Oral steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What category of ingredients causes the actual changes in skins appearance?

a. performance
b. functional
c. cosmeceuticals
d. whole plant

A

The answer is a:

Performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the most commonly used cosmetic ingredient?

a. oil
b. talcum powder
c. aloe
d. water

A

The answer is d:

Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Ingredients that are beneficial to dry skin are?

a. fatty acids
b. sebum
c. rubbing alcohol
d. fatty materials

A

The answer is a:

Fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Surfactants _______.

a. prevents bacteria from living in a product
b. improve discoloration in the skin
c. reduce tension between skin and the product
d. prevent changes in pH

A

The answer is c:

Reduce tensions between skin and the product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Products that enhance the effectiveness of a preservative are called ______.

a. fatty esters
b. fatty alcohols
c. acnticontaminates
d. chelating agents

A

The answer is d:

Chelating agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Which ingredients dissolve keratin proteins on the surface of the skin?

a. enzymes
b. AHA’s
c. BHA’s
d. various seeds

A

The answer is a:

Enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Antioxidants play what role in skin care?

a. kill free radicals
b. neutralize free radicals
c. increase free radical activity
d. encourage oxidation

A

The answer is b:

Neutralize free radicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Which of the following are used as natural exfoliators?

a. jojoba beeds
b. ground nuts
c. beeswax
d. all answers

A

The answer is d:

All answers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Identify the hydroxy acids from the following:

a. glycolic, lactic
b. citric, mandelic
c. malic, tartaric
d. all answers

A

The answer is d:

All answers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Willow bark and meadowsweet are sources of which acid?

a. salicylic acid
b. tartaric acid
c. malic acid
d. lactic acid

A

The answer is a:

Salicylic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Which product is typically packaged in a pump container or dropper bottle?

a. ampoules
b. serums
c. moisturziers
d. hydrators

A

The answer is b:

Serums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

If a person is allergic to shellfish, what type of mask should you avoid when providing treatments?

a. alginate
b. clay
c. modelage
d. honey

A

The answer is a:

Alginate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is true about the skin around the eyes?

a. it is the most delicate
b. it is the thickest
c. it is slower to show signs of aging
d. it holds moisture

A

The answer is a:

It is the most delicate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is gommage?

a. a massage technique
b. a type of hydrator
c. a kind of cleanser
d. an enzyme cream or paste

A

The answer is d:

An enzyme cream or paste

113
Q

What is a steamer used for?

a. to cleanse the skin deeply
b. to keep towels warm
c. to disinfect equipment
d. to heat paraffin wax

A

The answer is a:

To cleanse the skin deeply

114
Q

What is the function of an autoclave?

a. produces galvanic current
b. sterilizes implements
c. warms soft wax, paraffin & hard wax
d. steams the face

A

The answer is b:

Sterilizes implements

115
Q

When should you skip using a facial steamer?

a. when the client has mature, wrinkled skin
b. when the client has acne-prone skin
c. when the client has a sensitive, rosacea prone skin
d. when the client has oily skin

A

The answer is c:

When the client has a sensitive, rosacea prone

116
Q

Where should you set your single-use items when preparing the treatment room?

a. on a bare trolley
b. on the treatment table
c. on a clean towel
d. close to the sink

A

The answer is c:

On a clean towel

117
Q

Ergonomics is _______.

a. the study of the human body
b. the practice of following all federal safety regulations
c. the study of adapting work conditions to suit the worker
d. a massage technique that focuses on natural positioning

A

The answer is c:

The study adapting work conditions or suit the worker

118
Q

During which step do you preheat the steamer?

a. equipment preparation
b. treatment table preparation
c. setting up supplies
d. preparing for the client

A

The answer is a:

Equipment preparation

119
Q

Which step is part of the end-of-the-day checklist?

a. place a fresh robe in changing area
b. fold blanket neatly and place at food of bed
c. turn off and unplug all equipment
d. discard any used disposables into a covered trash container

A

The answer is c:

Turn off and unplug all equipment

120
Q

What is not a trait of mens skin?

a. tends to have smaller pores with more active sebaceous glands
b. may have hyperpigmentation from outdoor activities
c. often dehydrated from harsh soaps and shampoos
d. tends to be characterized by excess oil and numerous blackheads

A

The answer is a:

Tends to have smaller pores with more active sebaceous

121
Q

Less steam and heat should be used on which skin type?

a. sensitive
b. dry
c. oily
d. normal

A

The answer is a:

Sensitive

122
Q

Approximately how far away should the facial steamer be when steaming the skin?

a. 48 inches
b. 18 inches
c. 6 inches
d. 36 inches

A

The answer is b:

18 inches

123
Q

When steaming where should the steamer nozzle be placed?

a. on either side of the clients face
b. above or below the clients face
c. always above the clients face
d. always below the clients face

A

The answer is b:

Above or below the clients

124
Q

Massage products are applied ______.

a. warm with fingertips
b. cold with a fan brush
c. cold with fingertips
d. warm with a spatula

A

The answer is a:

Warm with fingertips

125
Q

Which of the following is a key element of client interactions?

a. client comfort
b. focusing on your own thoughts
c. performing treatments in any order
d. answering questions with “ill have to check on that”

A

The answer a:

Client comfort

126
Q

When recommending products for a client to use at home, which products should you start with?

a. cleanser and moisturizer
b. toner and freshener
c. moisturizer and exfoliant
d. eye cream and cleaner

A

The answer is a:

Cleanser and moisturizer

127
Q

Which of these steps might be omitted in a mini facial?

a. steaming
b. massage
c. extractions
d. all answers

A

The answer is d:

All answers

128
Q

What causes skin to become dry?

a. underachieve sebaceous glands
b. lack of water
c. overproduction of sebum
d. all answers

A

The answer is a:

Underachieve sebaceous glands

129
Q

Aging or sun-damaged skin needs antioxidants that can be administered _______.

a. topically
b. orally
c. neither topically nor orally
d. both topically and orally

A

The answer is d:

Both topically and orally

130
Q

Why is a thermal mask beneficial to mature skin?

a. softens skin; force-feeds nutrients
b. is relaxing to the client
c. forces the skin into a more youthful position
d. erases fine lines

A

The answer is a:

Softens skin; force feeds nutrients

131
Q

How does benzyl peroxide treat acne?

a. dissolves keratin
b. has healing effects
c. brightens appearance of the skin
d. releases free radical oxygen that kills bacteria

A

The answer is d:

Releases free radical oxygen that kills bacteria

132
Q

Pseudofolliculistis is the proper term for _______.

a. face bumps
b. razor bumps
c. sun bumps
d. hair bumps

A

The answer is b:

Razor bumps

133
Q

What will aid in vasoconstricting?

a. steam
b. warm towels
c. cold towels
d. BHA peels

A

The answer is c:

Cold towels

134
Q

How can you tell if your client has acne exocriee?

a. there will be signs of picking at the acne
b. there will be large pustules
c. there will be late onset of acne
d. there will be milia around the nose

A

The answer is a:

There will be signs of picking at the acne

135
Q

When would desincrustation be used during an acne facial?

a. after performing deep cleansing
b. before applying a moisturizing
c. after applying a clay-based mask
d. before performing extractions

A

The answer is d:

Before performing extractions

136
Q

Why is applying astringent critical following extractions?

a. reduces the possibility of infection
b. softens the skin
c. provides deep cleansing
d. removes excess oil and debris

A

The answer is a:

Reduces the possibility of infection

137
Q

Why would you use a mousse cleanser?

a. on dry skin
b. on mature skin
c. on combination skin
d. on oily skin

A

The answer is c:

On combination skin

138
Q

When recommending products to men, which of the following is true?

a. men prefer tubes and pumps
b. men prefer regiments with three or more products
c. men prefer single use products over multiuse
d. men prefer products that do not foam

A

The answer is a:

Men prefer tubes and pumps

139
Q

Massage benefits include _______.

a. reduction in puffiness and sinus congestion
b. product absorption
c. improvement of overall metabolism
d. all answers

A

The answer is d:

All answers

140
Q

Using deep pressure on the face ______.

a. can weaken elastin fibers
b. can induce collagen growth
c. is common practice among most estheticians
d. prevents premature aging

A

The answer is a:

Can weaken elastin fibers

141
Q

The areas of the body that an esthetician can massage include ________.

a. face, neck and shoulders
b. face, neck, shoulders and decollete
c. face, neck, shoulders, décolleté and back
d. face, neck, shoulders and legs

A

The answer is b:

Face, neck, shoulders and decollete

142
Q

Which type of massage involves the use of soft, continuous stroking movements applies with the fingers and palms?

a. friction
b. vibration
c. petrissage
d. effleurage

A

The answer is d:

Effleurage

143
Q

Petrissage includes ________.

a. pinching the skin with a light, firm pressure
b. firm, circular movements
c. tapping the skin
d. soft, slow stroking

A

The answer is a:

Pinching the skin with a light; firm pressure

144
Q

Massage involving a rubbing movement is called _______.

a. fulling
b. friction
c. chucking
d. lifting

A

The answer is b:

Friction

145
Q

Tapotment is also called _______.

a. vibration
b. percussion
c. chucking
d. Dr. Jacquet movement

A

The answer is b:

Percussion

146
Q

When massaging a male client, in which direction should you massage?

a. against beard growth
b. with beard growth
c. in a circular motion
d. in a back and forth motion

A

The answer is b:

With beard growth

147
Q

How much product is typically needed for the facial massage?

a. 1/2 teaspoon
b. 1 tablespoon
c. 1 teaspoon
d. 1/2 cup

A

The answer is c:

1 teaspoon

148
Q

If you need to lift your hands during a facial massage, use the slow and gentle feather-like movements called _______.

a. feathering
b. wisping
c. brushing
d. subsiding

A

The answer is a:

Feathering

149
Q

In what direction are all the massage movements done on the side of the neck?

a. upward
b. downward
c. circular
d. angular

A

The answer is b:

Downward

150
Q

What is another name for a magnifying lamp?

a. woods lamp
b. loupe
c. LED device
d. magnifier

A

The answer is b:

Loupe

151
Q

The unit of measurement used for a magnifying lamp is a(n) ________.

a. ampere
b. magnification power
c. diopter
d. voltage

A

The answer is c:

Diopter

152
Q

A thick corneum layer appears as ______ when viewed with a Wood’s Lamp.

a. light violet
b. yellow or pink
c. blue-white
d. white fluorescence

A

The answer is d:

White fluorescence

153
Q

Healthy skin appears _____ when viewed with a woods lamp.

a. brown
b. white fluorescence
c. light violet
d. blue-white

A

The answer is d:

Blue-white

154
Q

When using a woods lamp, dehydrated skin will appear _______.

a. as a clump of white spots
b. light violet
c. brown
d. yellow or pink

A

The answer is b:

Light violet

155
Q

When using the rotary brush machine, where on the clients face should you begin?

a. the forehead
b. the cheeks
c. the nose
d. the jaw

A

The answer is a:

The forehead

156
Q

Ozone _______.

a. consists of three oxygen atoms
b. is created after a lightening storm
c. has antiseptic qualities
d. all answers

A

The answer is d:

All answers

157
Q

What can result from using tap water in your steamer?

a. foul smelling odor
b. mineral deposits
c. damage to your heating element
d. scum buildup

A

The answer is b:

Mineral deposits

158
Q

You should not use a suction device on _______.

a. inflamed skin
b. couperose skin
c. broken skin
d. all answers

A

The answer is d:

All answers

159
Q

The two significant reactions caused by galvanic current are ________.

a. desincrustation and iontophoresis
b. ionic and manual
c. chemical and mechanical
d. desincrustation and chemical

A

The answer is a:

Desincrustation and iontophoresis

160
Q

Which types of products are used for desincrustation?

a. slightly acidic
b. very acidic
c. alkaline
d. neutral

A

The answer is c:

Alkaline

161
Q

Which type of current is used by the high frequency machines?

a. Tesla
b. sinusoidal
c. thermolysis
d. single polarity

A

The answer is b:

Sinusoidal

162
Q

What does galvanic current do for the skin?

a. moisturizes
b. hydrates
c. balances sebum production
d. aids in penetration of product

A

The answer is d:

Aids in penetration of product

163
Q

Electrotherapy is _______.

a. the use of electrical devices for therapeutic benefits
b. a series of shocks directed at the affected skin
c. the art of treating the body to stimulate circulation
d. a method to hydrate the skin

A

The answer is a:

The use of electrical devices for therapeutic benefits

164
Q

The scientific study of the hair and its diseases is called ________.

a. follicology
b. trichology
c. biology
d. anatomy

A

The answer is b:

Trichology

165
Q

What is the name of the thick club-shaped structure made from epithelial cells?

a. dermal papilla
b. follicle
c. hair bulb
d. hair follicle

A

The answer is c:

Hair bulb

166
Q

Lanugo is _______.

a. telogen hair
b. short, fine downy hair
c. anlagen hair
d. catagen hair

A

The answer is b:

Short, fine, downy hair

167
Q

What is the “resting” stage of hair growth?

a. anlagen
b. catagen
c. telogen
d. depilagen

A

The answer is c:

Telogen

168
Q

Long term hair reduction is most effective when hairs are removed in which stage?

a. anagen
b. catagen
c. telogen
d. the stage of the hair growth is irrelevant

A

The answer is a:

Anagen

169
Q

Hirsutism is _______.

a. hypertrichosis
b. excessive hair growth
c. baldness
d. thin hair

A

The answer is b:

Excessive hair growth

170
Q

Galvanic, thermolysis, and blend are three methods of hair removal used by this method.

a. electrolysis
b. laser
c. IPL
d. photoepilation

A

The answer is a:

Electrolysis

171
Q

Which of these is not a method of epilation?

a. sugaring
b. tweezing
c. shaving
d. waxing

A

The answer is c:

Shaving

172
Q

Hard wax is the preferred wax for which of the following areas?

a. the arms
b. the chest
c. the face
d. the back

A

The answer is c:

The face

173
Q

Sugar paste is easy to clean up because it is ______.

a. water soluble
b. oil based
c. a depilatory
d. a resin

A

The answer is a:

Water soluble

174
Q

When clients have these conditions and/or diseases, they should not receive a leg waxing service.

a. varicose veins
b. have deep hair roots
c. diabetes
d. are too hairy

A

The answer is a:

Varicose veins

175
Q

Foundations ________.

a. allow women to change the color of their skin
b. protect the skin from the outside elements
c. hydrate
d. moisturize

A

The answer is b:

Protect the skin from the outside elements

176
Q

In regard to the color wheel, olive is considered _______.

a. red-orange
b. yellow
c. yellow-green
d. blue-red

A

The answer is c:

Yellow-green

177
Q

A ______ is used to remove concealer or lipstick from jars and containers.

a. want
b. spatula
c. sponge
d. brush

A

The answer is b:

Spatula

178
Q

What is the purpose of using powder?

a. it covers the skin to even out the skin tone and to mask imperfections
b. it sets the foundation and finishes the makeup blending
c. it is used to define the cheekbones and to make features appear smaller
d. it is used as a highlighter because it is lighter than the skin color, accentuating and bringing out features

A

The answer is b:

It sets the foundation and finishes the makeup blending

179
Q

Translucent powder ________.

a. is colorful and thick
b. changes color when applied
c. is colorless and sheer
d. does not blend with most foundations

A

The answer is c:

It is colorless and sheer

180
Q

When you match eyeshadow color to eye color, what does it do?

a. creates a more natural look
b. provides a classic look
c. creates a less dramatic depth of contrast
d. makes the eyes appear brighter and more expressive

A

The answer is c:

Creates a less dramatic depth of contrast

181
Q

The natural color of the iris appears _______ when you use a darker color.

a. darker
b. lighter
c. whiter
d. invisible

A

The answer is b:

Lighter

182
Q

Where is the most common placement of eyeliner?

a. close to the lash line
b. at the top of the top eyelid
c. at bottom of the bottom eyelid
d. in the middle of each eyelid

A

The answer is a:

Close to the lash line

183
Q

When selecting an eyebrow color for a client with silver hair, which color is best?

a. light taupe
b. grey
c. reddish brown
d. dark brown

A

The answer is a:

Light taupe

184
Q

Which of these sets of colors are complementary colors?

a. blue and red
b. orange and red
c. violet and yellow
d. yellow and red

A

The answer is c:

Violet and yellow

185
Q

Cool colors have a ______ undertone.

a. blue
b. green
c. violet or blue-red
d. all answers

A

The answer is d:

All answers

186
Q

When the face is widest at the temple and forehead, and tapers down to the chin, it is a(n) ________.

a. oval
b. square
c. diamond
d. round

A

The answer is a:

Oval

187
Q

You can make small eyes appear larger by _______.

a. applying the shadow to the inner side toward the nose
b. using the lightest color on the crease
c. applying a dark shadow over the eyelids
d. extending the eyeshadow slightly beyond the eyes toward the temples

A

The answer is d:

Extending the eyeshadow slightly beyond the eyes toward the temples

188
Q

Skin is considered ruddy if it is _______.

a. all answers
b. red
c. wind burned
d. affected by rosacea

A

The answer is a:

All answers

189
Q

Where should clients look while you are applying mascara to the lower lashes?

a. look straight ahead
b. look downward
c. look upward
d. close their eyes

A

The answer is c:

Look upward

190
Q

For special occasions involving subdued lighting, you should _______.

a. apply a light amount of makeup
b. apply a heavy amount of makeup
c. use brighter colors
d. suggest a stronger makeup look

A

The answer is d:

Suggest a stronger makeup look

191
Q

Place band lashes ________.

a. on the lash line
b. on the skin just above the lash line
c. on the natural eyelashes
d. anywhere you please

A

The answer a:

On the lash line

192
Q

A permanent makeup technique used primarily on the eyebrows is called _______.

a. micropigmentation
b. dermagraphics
c. microblading
d. micropigment implantation

A

The answer is c:

Microblading

193
Q

If your studies take you to restorative art, you are most likely training for a makeup career in ______.

a. mortuary science
b. film and theatre
c. special events
d. all answers

A

The answer is a:

Mortuary science

194
Q

What does thermolysis refer to?

a. heat effect
b. use of water
c. light reflected
d. colored light

A

The answer is a:

Heat effect

195
Q

Glycolic acid is frequently used for superficial peels because _______.

a. glycolic acid has the smallest molecular size
b. it cannot be effectively penetrate the epidermis
c. it has the most balanced pH
d. it has time-released properties

A

The answer is a:

Glycolic acid has the smallest molecular size

196
Q

Which of these is a type of BHA?

a. glycolic acid derived from sugar cane
b. lactic acid derived from milk
c. salicylic acid derived from sweet birch
d. malic acid derived from acid

A

The answer is c:

Salicylic acid derived from sweet birch

197
Q

The main qualities of salicylic acid are antiseptic and ________.

a. inflammatory
b. anti-inflammatory
c. comedogenic
d. deep peeling

A

The answer is b:

Anti-inflammatory

198
Q

Improper microdermabrasion use can result in _______.

a. hypopigmentation or hyperpigmentation
b. hyperpigmentation
c. hypopigmentation
d. neither hypopigmentation or hyperpigmentation

A

The answer is a:

Hypopigmentation or hyperpigmentation

199
Q

What is the psychological effect of green light?

a. stimulating
b. energizing
c. calming
d. distracting

A

The answer c:

Calming

200
Q

How does ultrasound benefit the skin?

a. assist in product penetration
b. uses a science called sonophoresis
c. stimulates tissues and increases blood flow and oxygenation
d. all answers

A

The answer is d:

All answers

201
Q

Manual lymph drainage is used to ______.

a. cleanse and detoxify the body
b. increase hair growth
c. stimulate collagen
d. firm skin

A

The answer is a:

Cleanse and detoxify the body

202
Q

The core ingredients in balneotherapy are _______.

a. mud and fango
b. marine products such as algae
c. botanical extracts
d. essential oils

A

The answer is a:

Mud and fango

203
Q

The primary causes of cellulite are _____ and genetics.

a. diet
b. lack of exercise
c. male hormones
d. female hormones

A

The answer is d:

Female hormones

204
Q

Nonablative intense pulsed light therapies (IPL) _______.

a. cut through the epidermis to treat the hyperpigmentation in the dermis
b. remove warts
c. bypass the epidermis to stimulate collagen in the dermis for wrinkle reduction
d. remove tattoos

A

The answer is c:

Bypass the epidermis to stimulate collagen in the dermis for wrinkle reduction

205
Q

A blepharoplasty is considered a medical condition when ______.

a. a deviated septum impedes breathing
b. sagging eyelids impedes vision
c. the lower eyelid is affected
d. acne has significantly scarred the skin

A

The answer is b:

Sagging eyelids impedes vision

206
Q

Sclerotherapy involves _______.

a. TCA peels
b. minimizing varicose veins
c. laser resurfacing
d. dermabrasion

A

The answer is b:

Minimizing varicose veins

207
Q

A buffering product does what?

a. prevents skin burns
b. improves results
c. reduces irritation
d. reduces effectiveness

A

The answer is c:

Reduces irritation

208
Q

What is the strongest peel?

a. Jessners peel
b. phenol
c. TCA
d. glycolic peels

A

The answer is b:

Phenol

209
Q

Refers to the degree of saturation, occurs when black is added to a pure hue.

a. value
b. shade
c. tone
d. tint

A

The answer is b:

Shade

210
Q

Ingredients that attract water, they draw moisture to the skin and soften its surface.

a. jojoba
b. humectants
c. lipids
d. parabens

A

The answer is b:

Humectants

211
Q

Natural form of vitamin A, stimulates cell repair and helps to normalize skin cells by generating new cells.

a. urea
b. sulfur
c. retinol
d. polymer

A

The answer is c:

Retinol

212
Q

What is the most serious form of skin cancer?

a. squamous cell carcinoma
b. malignant melanoma
c. basal cell carcinoma
d. actinic keratosis

A

The answer is b:

Malignant melanoma

213
Q

What is another name for wrinkles?

a. glabella
b. verruca
c. rhytids
d. lentigo

A

The answer is c:

Rhytids

214
Q

What are freckles/small yellow-brown colored spots?

a. lentigo
b. rhytids
c. couperose
d. nevus

A

The answer is a:

Lentigo

215
Q

What is a closed sac containing fluid, infection or other matter above or below the skin?

a. pustule
b. bulla
c. cyst
d. papule

A

The answer is c:

Cyst

216
Q

What are primarily environmental factors that contribute to aging?

a. intrinstic
b. extrinsic
c. TEWL
d. porous

A

The answer is b:

Extrinsic

217
Q

What is the first stage of hair growth during which new hair is produced?

a. anagen
b. cathogen
c. telogen
d. depilation

A

The answer is a:

Anagen

218
Q

What is money needed to invest in a business?

a. loan
b. capital
c. lease
d. contract

A

The answer is b:

Capital

219
Q

What is made of a material that has pores or opening and are absorbent?

a. elastin
b. miscible
c. single use items
d. porous

A

The answer is d:

Porous

220
Q

What is a chemical reaction during desincrustation, during which the current transforms the sebum into soap?

a. iontopheresis
b. saponification
c. emollients
d. humectants

A

The answer is b:

Saponification

221
Q

This is also known as the brightness of the color.

a. value
b. hue
c. shade
d. tint

A

The answer is a:

Value

222
Q

What is manual manipulation of the tissue by touching to make an assessment of its condition?

a. extension
b. lymphatic
c. palpation
d. reduction

A

The answer is c:

Palpation

223
Q

What is the process used to soften and emulsify sebum and comedones in the follicles?

a. saponification
b. desincrustation
c. palpation
d. microdermabrasion

A

The answer is b:

Desincrustation

224
Q

What is a facelift procedure?

a. rhytidectomy
b. blepheroplasty
c. saponification
d. desincrustation

A

The answer is a:

Rhytidectomy

225
Q

What is the ability of a product to produce the intended effect?

a. performance
b. efficacy
c. miscible
d. imiscible

A

The answer is b:

Efficacy

226
Q

What is redness; capillaries that have been damaged and are now larger or distended?

a. telangtictasia
b. couperose
c. rosacea
d. varicose

A

The answer is b:

Couperose

226
Q

What is the area between the eyebrows at the top of the nose?

a. corrugator
b. elevens
c. frontalis
d. labella

A

The answer is d:

Glabella

227
Q

What is protein fiber found in the dermis, gives skin its elasticity and firmness?

a. fats
b. lipids
c. elastin
d. wrinkles

A

The answer is c:

Elastin

228
Q

What is a crack in the skin that penetrates the dermis?

a. fissure
b. scab
c. keloid
d. ulcer

A

The answer is a:

Fissure

229
Q

What is a sebaceous cyst filled with sebum, also called a wen?

a. bulla
b. pustule
c. steatoma
d. papule

A

The answer is c:

Steatoma

230
Q

What is also known as a wart?

a. nevus
b. lentigo
c. verruca
d. fissure

A

The answer is c:

Verruca

231
Q

What is the border of the lip line?

a. brazillian
b. vermillion border
c. outline
d. mandible

A

The answer is b:

Vermillion border

232
Q

What are oil or fatty ingredients that lubricate, moisturize and prevent water loss?

a. humectants
b. emollients
c. fatty esters
d. fatty acids

A

The answer is b:

Emollients

233
Q

What are ingredients that attract water?

a. humectants
b. emollients
c. TEWL
d. moisturizers

A

The answer is a:

Humectants

234
Q

What is the hair on a fetus and are soft and downy?

a. anagen
b. epilation
c. lanugo
d. catagen

A

The answer is c:

Lanugo

235
Q

What refers to skin that has a yellowish hue?

a. ruddy
b. couperose
c. jaundice
d. sallow

A

The answer is d:

Sallow

235
Q

What are small sealed files, containing a single application of a serum?

a. dropper
b. ampoules
c. pump
d. container

A

The answer is b:

Ampoules

236
Q

What is any color in its purest form?

a. shade
b. tint
c. hue
d. value

A

The answer is c:

Hue

237
Q

What are liquids that are mutually soluble, meaning that they can be mixed together?

a. imiscible
b. miscible
c. incompatible
d. compatible

A

The answer is b:

Miscible

238
Q

What is the percentage of the revenue generated from services performed?

a. salary
b. hourly
c. tips
d. commission

A

The answer is d:

Commission

239
Q

What is an ownership structure controlled by one or more stockholders?

a. corporation
b. franchise
c. business
d. partnership

A

The answer is a:

Corporation

240
Q

What is a large blister containing a watery fluid?

a. cyst
b. pustule
c. papule
d. bulla

A

The answer is d:

Bulla

241
Q

What is redness caused by inflammation?

a. erythema
b. couperose
c. rosacea
d. telangtictasia

A

The answer is a:

Erythema

242
Q

What is known as persistent itching?

a. razor bumps
b. scabies
c. shingles
d. pruritis

A

The answer is d:

Pruritis

243
Q

What is also known as a birthmark?

a. mole
b. lentigo
c. nevus
d. steatoma

A

The answer is c:

Nevus

244
Q

What is it called when muscles straightened?

a. flexion
b. adduction
c. abduction
d. extension

A

The answer is d:

Extension

245
Q

A _____ is a physician who treats disorders and diseases of the skin.

A

The answer is:

Dermatologist

246
Q

_____ are structural changes in the tissues caused by damage or injury. Any mark, wound, or abnormally is described as a _____.

A

The answer is:

Lesion

247
Q

A flat spot or discoloration on the skin is a _____.

a. nodule
b. pustule
c. vesicle
d. macule

A

The answer is d:

Macule

248
Q

A solid bump larger than 0.4 inches that can be easily felt is a _____.

a. macule
b. bulla
c. nodule
d. cyst

A

The answer is c:

Nodule

249
Q

A small elevation on the skin that contains no fluid, but may develop pus is called a _____.

a. pustule
b. papule
c. cyst
d. bulla

A

The answer is b:

Papule

250
Q

A raised, inflamed, papule with a white or yellow center containing pus in the top of the lesion is called a _____.

a. pustule
b. papule
c. cyst
d. bulla

A

The answer is a:

Pustule

251
Q

An abnormal mass varying in size, shape, and color is a ______.

a. cyst
b. nodule
c. tumor
d. nodule

A

The answer is c:

Tumor

252
Q

A small blister or sac containing clear fluid, lying within or just beneath the epidermis is a _____.

a. bulla
b. cyst
c. vesicle
d. wheal

A

The answer is c:

Vesicle

253
Q

Any itchy, swollen lesion that can be caused by a blow, scratch, bite of an insect or urticaria, or the sting of a nettle is called a ______.

a. wheal
b. wen
c. vesicle
d. tumor

A

The answer is a:

Wheal

254
Q

Dead cells that form over a wound or blemish while healing; accumulation of sebum and pus, sometimes mixed with epidermal cells are is a ______.

a. scar
b. crust
c. scale
d. ulcer

A

The answer is b:

Crust

255
Q

A skin sore or abrasion produced by scratching or scraping is a ______.

a. fissure
b. ulcer
c. excoriation
d. keloid

A

The answer is c:

Excoriation

256
Q

A crack in the skin that penetrates the dermis is a _____.

a. crust
b. scar
c. fissure
d. ulcer

A

The answer is c:

Fissure

257
Q

A thick scar resulting from excessive growth of fibers tissue is a _____.

a. scar
b. crust
c. scale
d. keloid

A

The answer is d:

Keloid

258
Q

A thin, dry, or oily plate of epidermal flakes is a _____.

a. scale
b. scar
c. crust
d. ulcer

A

The answer is a:

Scale

259
Q

A slightly raised or depressed are of the skin that forms as a result of the healing process related to an injury or lesion is a _______.

a. keloid
b. scar
c. scale
d. fissure

A

The answer is b:

Scar

260
Q

An open lesion on the skin or mucous membrane of the body; accompanied by loss of skin depth and possible weeping of fluids or pus is called a _____.

a. fissure
b. crust
c. ulcer
d. scale

A

The answer is c:

Ulcer

261
Q

A small brownish spot on the skin ranging in color from pale tan to brown or bluish black is _____.

a. basal cell carcinoma
b. a normal mole
c. malignant melanoma
d. squamous cell carcinoma

A

The answer is b:

A normal mole

262
Q

The most common and least severe type of skin cancer, which often appears as light, pearly nodules is _____.

a. basal cell carcinoma
b. a normal mole
c. malignant melanoma
d. squamous cell carcinoma

A

The answer is a:

Basal cell carcinoma

263
Q

More serious than basal cell carcinoma; characterized by scaly red or pink papules or nodules is _____.

a. basal cell carcinoma
b. a normal mole
c. malignant melanoma
d. squamous cell carcinoma

A

The answer is d:

Squamous cell carcinoma

264
Q

The most serious form of skin cancer as it can spread quickly is _______.

a. basal cell carcinoma
b. a normal mole
c. malignant melanoma
d. squamous cell carcinoma

A

The answer is c:

Malignant melanoma

265
Q

Mainly small solidified impactions of oil without the cell matter, they block the follicle and cause an acne breakout.

a. sebaceous hyperplasia
b. seborrhea
c. sebaceous filaments
d. milia

A

The answer is c:

Sebaceous filaments

266
Q

Small epidermal cysts that appear as firm white papules, they’re whitish, pearl like masses of sebum and dead cells under the skin with no visible opening, often mistakenly called white heads.

a. sebaceous hyperplasia
b. seborrhea
c. sebaceous filaments
d. milia

A

The answer is d:

Milia

267
Q

A hereditary factor in which dead skin cells build up because they do not shed from the follicles as they do on normal skin.

a. sebaceous hyperplasia
b. seborrhea
c. retention hyperkeratosis
d. milia

A

The answer is c:

Retention hyperkeratosis

268
Q

Involves benign lesions frequently seen in oilier areas of the face, white, yellow or flesh-colored, doughnut-shaped with an indentation in the center.

a. sebaceous hyperplasia
b. seborrhea
c. sebaceous filaments
d. milia

A

The answer is a:

Sebaceous hyperplasia

269
Q

A severe oiliness of the skin; an abnormal secretion from the sebaceous glands.

a. sebaceous hyperplasia
b. seborrhea
c. sebaceous filaments
d. milia

A

The answer is b:

Seborrhea

270
Q

An inflammatory and vascular disorder that starts with flushing and increasing bouts of redness.

a. couperose
b. rosasea
c. telangietasia
c. lentigo

A

The answer is b:

Rosacea

271
Q

Visible capillaries, commonly found on the face, primarily the nose, cheeks, chin.

a. couperose
b. rosasea
c. telangietasia
c. lentigo

A

The answer is c:

Telangietasia

272
Q

A type of hormonal hyperpigmentation disorder that first appears during pregnancy, often on the forehead, cheeks, upper lip and chin.

a. melasma
b. lentigo
c. nevus
d. ephelids

A

The answer is a:

Melasma

273
Q

Also known as freckles, are tiny round or oval pigmented areas of the skin.

a. melasma
b. lentigo
c. nevus
d. ephelids

A

The answer is d:

Ephelids

274
Q

A generalized term to refer to inflammatory condition of the skin; various forms include lesions such as eczema, vesicles or papules.

A

The answer is:

Dermatitis

275
Q

Occupational disorders from ingredients in cosmetics and chemical solutions can cause ______.

A

The answer is:

Contact dermatitis

276
Q

A chronic relapsing form of dermatitis, irritants and allergens can trigger reactions that include dry, cracked skin.

A

The answer is:

Atopic dermatitis

277
Q

An inflammatory, painful, itching disease of the skin.

A

The answer is:

Eczema

278
Q

Acne like condition around the mouth consisting of mainly small clusters of papules.

A

The answer is:

Perioral dermatitis

279
Q

Form of eczema, characterized by inflammation, dry or oily scaling or crusting, and/or itchiness. Appears on the eyebrows, on the scalp and along the hairline, in the middle of the forehead and along the sides of the nose.

A

The answer is:

Seborrheic dermatitis

280
Q

Caused by poor circulation in the lower legs that can create a chronic inflammatory state. Can have ulcerations, along with scaly skin, itching and hyperpigmentation.

A

The answer is:

Stasis dermatitis

281
Q
A