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Embry-Riddle Flight Instructor > ERAU Ground Knowledge > Flashcards

ERAU Ground Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

What is the process for determining if you can operate w/ inoperative equipment?

A

“4321”

  • 4 things to check: Type certificate data sheet, kinds of operations list, comprehensive equipment list, and 91.205
  • 3 things to do: deactivate, placard inop, record
  • 2 people: owner/operator and maintenance
  • 1 decision: by PIC
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2
Q

When do you need to turn the NAV light on?

A
  • sunset
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3
Q

When can you log night time?

A
  • after evening civil twilight
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4
Q

When can you log night landings?

A
  • 1 hour after sunset
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5
Q

What causes thermals?

A
  • sun heating the ground and the ground heating the air above it
  • small plumes of warm air begin to rise, spinning around randomly and eventually bumping into each other
  • found in areas with large areas of dark ground
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6
Q

What altitude does surface friction begin at?

A
  • 3,000 ft
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7
Q

What is a cruise clearance?

A
  • allows you to climb/descend w/in a block of airspace between the assigned top altitude and MEA at pilot’s discretion
  • once you declare vacating, you cannot return to top altitude
  • clears you for the approach at destination airport
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8
Q

What does “descend via” mean?

A
  • descend to meet all crossing restrictions, follow lateral route, and meet speed limits
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9
Q

What does “cleared for” mean?

A
  • maintain last assigned altitude, follow lateral route, and meet speed limits
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10
Q

How do you calculate fuel on board?

A
  • (fuel remaining/cruise fuel burn rate) + est. time enroute
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11
Q

What is declination?

A
  • difference between magnetic north and true north
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12
Q

What are the weather conditions required for the ILS critical area to become active?

A
  • ceiling below 800 ft, and less than 2 SM visibility
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13
Q

How close to the VOR should you slow to your holding speed?

A
  • 3 minutes
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14
Q

Explain the “high key” point and the “low key” point.

A
  • high key point = over first 1/3 of landing spot where pilot begins turn and descent
  • low key point = abeam end of landing spot
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15
Q

Why are 3 gallons unusable?

A
  • fuel tank pick-up location

- water is heavier than fuel so it settles at the bottom and can’t go into engine

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16
Q

Do you need a clearance to fly an ODP?

A
  • no
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17
Q

When performing a VCOA, how close to the airport do you need to remain?

A
  • 2 NM
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18
Q

How close to the VOR does the cone of confusion begin?

A
  • around 0.5 NM
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19
Q

When does reverse sensing occur on a VOR?

A
  • AHRS failure, when you are flying to a VOR w/ a from indication (old VOR), or when you are flying from a VOR w/ a to indication (old VOR)
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20
Q

What is the zone of ambiguity on a VOR?

A
  • 90 degrees offset from a VOR and the radial that 90 degrees to is dialed in
  • VOR won’t know if you are TO or FROM
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21
Q

How does a VOR produce radials?

A
  • 2 antennas emitting the same frequency
  • 1 antenna is stationary (reference phase), while the other antenna rotates (variable phase)
  • aircraft measures the phase shift between the frequencies
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22
Q

How can you find VOR ground checkpoints?

A
  • chart supplement and they marked on the airport
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23
Q

What is a diverse departure?

A
  • when an aircraft can depart in any direction and remain clear of obstacles
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24
Q

Why do departure procedures use FPNM instead of FPM?

A
  • groundspeed changes your climb gradient
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25
Q

What is known icing?

A
  • observed
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26
Q

What are the components of an ILS?

A
  • guidance (localizer, glide slope)
  • range (marker beacon, DME)
  • visual (approach/runway lighting)
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27
Q

If you get an LOI annunciator while shooting an RNAV approach, can you fly the published missed?

A
  • no, you should report “loss of navigation to ATC”
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28
Q

What is WAAS and how does it work?

A
  • Wide area augmentation system
  • improves the accuracy and integrity of GPS signals (3M of accuracy 95% of the time)
  • Step 1: GPS satellites are monitored by WAAS ground station for corrections
  • Step 2: 2 master stations collect data from reference stations to create GPS correction message
  • Step 3: Correction message is sent to geostationary satellite
  • Step 4: Corrected message is broadcast from geostationary satellite to WAAS capable aircraft
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29
Q

If you lose WAAS, will you still have RAIM?

A
  • yes
30
Q

If you lose RAIM, will you still have WAAS?

A
  • no
31
Q

What is an LPV approach?

A
  • localizer performance w/ vertical guidance
  • must have WAAS
  • not considered precision approaches, they are considered an APV (approach w/ vertical guidance)
  • gets more sensitive as you get closer to the runway
32
Q

How low does an LPV approach get you?

A
  • 200 ft AGL
33
Q

How low does an LNAV/VNAV approach get you?

A
  • 250 ft AGL
34
Q

Where is the outer marker (OM) located?

A
  • final approach fix
35
Q

Where is the middle marker (MM) located?

A
  • 3,500 ft from the landing threshold/200 ft above touchdown elevation
36
Q

Where is the inner marker (IM) located?

A
  • aircraft is at DH on a CAT II approach
37
Q

What are the minimums for a CAT I ILS approach?

A
  • DH: 200 ft

- RVR: 1,800 ft

38
Q

What are the minimums for a CAT II ILS approach?

A
  • DH: 100 ft

- RVR: 1,200 ft

39
Q

What are the minium for CAT IIIA, IIIB, and IIIC approaches?

A

A

  • DH: none
  • RVR: 700 ft

B

  • DH: none
  • RVR: 150 ft

C

  • DH: none
  • RVR: none
40
Q

What is adverse yaw?

A
  • tendency for the airplane to yaw towards to outside of the turn
  • caused by increased induced drag on the outside of the wing which also produces more lift
41
Q

What is ground effect?

A
  • increased performance when close to the ground
  • caused by the ground preventing wing tip vorticies from getting as big, reducing downwash
  • reduces drag and increases lift
42
Q

What is a TAA?

A
  • technically advanced airplane

- has PFD, MFD, and two-axis autpilot

43
Q

When do you need to fly a departure procedure?

A
  • when we cannot maintain visual separation with terrain
44
Q

Do you need clearance to fly a VCAO?

A
  • yes, you must request permission from ATC
45
Q

How do you pick up an IFR clearance at a non-towered airport?

A
  • flight service station
  • center
  • clearance delivery phone number
46
Q

How do you pick up an IFR clearance at a towered airport?

A
  • ground

- clearance delivery

47
Q

Instrument Cockpit Check

A

During Before Start Checklist
- check NAV 1/2 (move CDI needle 10 degrees left/right to check deflection, move CDI 90 degrees to check to/from)

Before Taxi

  1. Mag compass (full of fluid, showing proper heading, compass correction card)
  2. Coms/navs (appropriate frequencies)
  3. ASI (no red X’s, zero)
  4. Attitude indicator (no red X’s, brick is centered)
  5. Altimeter (no red X’s, proper altimeter setting, within 75 ft)
  6. HSI (heading should match magnetic compass, check GPS/VOR1/VOR2, rate of turn arrow not present)
  7. XPDR (proper code, ground mode)
  8. timer (operating)
  9. AP (Check, off)
  10. MFD (database current, verify RAIM/WAAS, system setup page - GPS CDI = auto/2nm/all LRU’s green check marks)
  11. STBY instruments

During Taxi

  • Attitude indicator (no more than 5 degree pitch/bank)
  • Rate of turn (same direction as turn)
  • Brick (opposite direction of turn)
  • HSI/Magnetic Compass (move together)
48
Q

MMAILLMANN

A 
Minimum weather
MDA/DA
Airspeed
Initial rate of descent
Lighting
Landing (straight in or circling)
Missed
Altimeter setting
Navigation aids
Notes
49
Q

What does MALSR stand for on an approach plate?

A
  • medium intensity approach lighting system w/ RAIL (runway alignment indicator lights)
50
Q

What does TCH stand for on an approach plate?

A
  • touchdown crossing height
51
Q

What does VGSI stand for on an approach plate?

A
  • visual glide slope indicator
52
Q

What are the 4 ways to disengage autopilot?

A
  1. AP DISC switch on yoke
  2. GA button
  3. AP softkey on MFD
  4. Move left side of electric trim control
53
Q

What are the runway distance requirements for touch-and-go operations?

A
  • runway must be equal to or greater in length than the sum of the calculated TOLD over a 50’ obstacle
54
Q

What are the runway distance requirements for takeoffs?

A
  • greater than the sum of the take-off/landing ground roll or take-off distance over a 50’ obstacle
55
Q

When must a short-field take-off be performed?

A
  • when the runway available is within 500’ of the required take-off distance
56
Q

When are simulated aborted take-offs to an actual take-off prohibited?

A
  • when the runway available is less than the take-off distance required plus 1,000’
57
Q

What are the weather requirements to operate in IMC?

A
  • temperature at the minimum IFR altitude is at or above +5° Celsius
58
Q

What are the solo flight practice area restrictions?

A
  • all local solos must be within the ERAU practice area

- students pilots must remain w/in 25 NM of the airport

59
Q

What are the solo flight length restrictions?

A
  • 2 hours w/ 1 hour rest in between
60
Q

When must solo flight return to the airport?

A
  • same day, unless approval from the chief flight instructor or unexpected circumstances
61
Q

What are the recency of experience requirements for solo flights?

A
  • must have completed 3 take-offs/landings w/in the previous 90 days in day or night
62
Q

What are the supervised solo weather limitations?

A
  1. no more than 10 knots of wind
  2. no more than 5 knots of cross wind
  3. no adverse weather conditions
63
Q

What are the solo wind limitations?

A
  • wind must not exceed 25 knots (including gusts) or crosswinds exceeding 15 knots
64
Q

Are student pilots allowed to perform touch and go’s on solo flights?

A
  • no, they must do full-stop and taxi back
65
Q

What runways can FA119/121 students use for take-offs and landings?

A
  • 3R and 21L
66
Q

What are the night solo restrictions?

A
  1. must have an operating control tower
  2. pattern only
  3. full stop landings
  4. end before tower closes
  5. 1.7 hours in duration
  6. must have a dual night flight w/in previous 30 days
67
Q

What is the autopilot minimum engagement speed?

A
  • 70 knots
68
Q

What is the autopilot maximum engagement speed?

A
  • 163 knots
69
Q

When must the autopilot be disengaged on an approach?

A
  • 200 ft AGL
70
Q

What is the lowest altitude that autopilot can be engaged?

A
  • 800 ft AGL

Embry-Riddle Flight Instructor (10 decks)

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