ERAU Ground Knowledge Flashcards
What is the process for determining if you can operate w/ inoperative equipment?
“4321”
- 4 things to check: Type certificate data sheet, kinds of operations list, comprehensive equipment list, and 91.205
- 3 things to do: deactivate, placard inop, record
- 2 people: owner/operator and maintenance
- 1 decision: by PIC
When do you need to turn the NAV light on?
- sunset
When can you log night time?
- after evening civil twilight
When can you log night landings?
- 1 hour after sunset
What causes thermals?
- sun heating the ground and the ground heating the air above it
- small plumes of warm air begin to rise, spinning around randomly and eventually bumping into each other
- found in areas with large areas of dark ground
What altitude does surface friction begin at?
- 3,000 ft
What is a cruise clearance?
- allows you to climb/descend w/in a block of airspace between the assigned top altitude and MEA at pilot’s discretion
- once you declare vacating, you cannot return to top altitude
- clears you for the approach at destination airport
What does “descend via” mean?
- descend to meet all crossing restrictions, follow lateral route, and meet speed limits
What does “cleared for” mean?
- maintain last assigned altitude, follow lateral route, and meet speed limits
How do you calculate fuel on board?
- (fuel remaining/cruise fuel burn rate) + est. time enroute
What is declination?
- difference between magnetic north and true north
What are the weather conditions required for the ILS critical area to become active?
- ceiling below 800 ft, and less than 2 SM visibility
How close to the VOR should you slow to your holding speed?
- 3 minutes
Explain the “high key” point and the “low key” point.
- high key point = over first 1/3 of landing spot where pilot begins turn and descent
- low key point = abeam end of landing spot
Why are 3 gallons unusable?
- fuel tank pick-up location
- water is heavier than fuel so it settles at the bottom and can’t go into engine
Do you need a clearance to fly an ODP?
- no
When performing a VCOA, how close to the airport do you need to remain?
- 2 NM
How close to the VOR does the cone of confusion begin?
- around 0.5 NM
When does reverse sensing occur on a VOR?
- AHRS failure, when you are flying to a VOR w/ a from indication (old VOR), or when you are flying from a VOR w/ a to indication (old VOR)
What is the zone of ambiguity on a VOR?
- 90 degrees offset from a VOR and the radial that 90 degrees to is dialed in
- VOR won’t know if you are TO or FROM
How does a VOR produce radials?
- 2 antennas emitting the same frequency
- 1 antenna is stationary (reference phase), while the other antenna rotates (variable phase)
- aircraft measures the phase shift between the frequencies
How can you find VOR ground checkpoints?
- chart supplement and they marked on the airport
What is a diverse departure?
- when an aircraft can depart in any direction and remain clear of obstacles
Why do departure procedures use FPNM instead of FPM?
- groundspeed changes your climb gradient
What is known icing?
- observed
What are the components of an ILS?
- guidance (localizer, glide slope)
- range (marker beacon, DME)
- visual (approach/runway lighting)
If you get an LOI annunciator while shooting an RNAV approach, can you fly the published missed?
- no, you should report “loss of navigation to ATC”
What is WAAS and how does it work?
- Wide area augmentation system
- improves the accuracy and integrity of GPS signals (3M of accuracy 95% of the time)
- Step 1: GPS satellites are monitored by WAAS ground station for corrections
- Step 2: 2 master stations collect data from reference stations to create GPS correction message
- Step 3: Correction message is sent to geostationary satellite
- Step 4: Corrected message is broadcast from geostationary satellite to WAAS capable aircraft
If you lose WAAS, will you still have RAIM?
- yes
If you lose RAIM, will you still have WAAS?
- no
What is an LPV approach?
- localizer performance w/ vertical guidance
- must have WAAS
- not considered precision approaches, they are considered an APV (approach w/ vertical guidance)
- gets more sensitive as you get closer to the runway
How low does an LPV approach get you?
- 200 ft AGL
How low does an LNAV/VNAV approach get you?
- 250 ft AGL
Where is the outer marker (OM) located?
- final approach fix
Where is the middle marker (MM) located?
- 3,500 ft from the landing threshold/200 ft above touchdown elevation
Where is the inner marker (IM) located?
- aircraft is at DH on a CAT II approach
What are the minimums for a CAT I ILS approach?
- DH: 200 ft
- RVR: 1,800 ft
What are the minimums for a CAT II ILS approach?
- DH: 100 ft
- RVR: 1,200 ft
What are the minium for CAT IIIA, IIIB, and IIIC approaches?
A
- DH: none
- RVR: 700 ft
B
- DH: none
- RVR: 150 ft
C
- DH: none
- RVR: none
What is adverse yaw?
- tendency for the airplane to yaw towards to outside of the turn
- caused by increased induced drag on the outside of the wing which also produces more lift
What is ground effect?
- increased performance when close to the ground
- caused by the ground preventing wing tip vorticies from getting as big, reducing downwash
- reduces drag and increases lift
What is a TAA?
- technically advanced airplane
- has PFD, MFD, and two-axis autpilot
When do you need to fly a departure procedure?
- when we cannot maintain visual separation with terrain
Do you need clearance to fly a VCAO?
- yes, you must request permission from ATC
How do you pick up an IFR clearance at a non-towered airport?
- flight service station
- center
- clearance delivery phone number
How do you pick up an IFR clearance at a towered airport?
- ground
- clearance delivery
Instrument Cockpit Check
During Before Start Checklist
- check NAV 1/2 (move CDI needle 10 degrees left/right to check deflection, move CDI 90 degrees to check to/from)
Before Taxi
- Mag compass (full of fluid, showing proper heading, compass correction card)
- Coms/navs (appropriate frequencies)
- ASI (no red X’s, zero)
- Attitude indicator (no red X’s, brick is centered)
- Altimeter (no red X’s, proper altimeter setting, within 75 ft)
- HSI (heading should match magnetic compass, check GPS/VOR1/VOR2, rate of turn arrow not present)
- XPDR (proper code, ground mode)
- timer (operating)
- AP (Check, off)
- MFD (database current, verify RAIM/WAAS, system setup page - GPS CDI = auto/2nm/all LRU’s green check marks)
- STBY instruments
During Taxi
- Attitude indicator (no more than 5 degree pitch/bank)
- Rate of turn (same direction as turn)
- Brick (opposite direction of turn)
- HSI/Magnetic Compass (move together)
MMAILLMANN
Minimum weather MDA/DA Airspeed Initial rate of descent Lighting Landing (straight in or circling) Missed Altimeter setting Navigation aids Notes
What does MALSR stand for on an approach plate?
- medium intensity approach lighting system w/ RAIL (runway alignment indicator lights)
What does TCH stand for on an approach plate?
- touchdown crossing height
What does VGSI stand for on an approach plate?
- visual glide slope indicator
What are the 4 ways to disengage autopilot?
- AP DISC switch on yoke
- GA button
- AP softkey on MFD
- Move left side of electric trim control
What are the runway distance requirements for touch-and-go operations?
- runway must be equal to or greater in length than the sum of the calculated TOLD over a 50’ obstacle
What are the runway distance requirements for takeoffs?
- greater than the sum of the take-off/landing ground roll or take-off distance over a 50’ obstacle
When must a short-field take-off be performed?
- when the runway available is within 500’ of the required take-off distance
When are simulated aborted take-offs to an actual take-off prohibited?
- when the runway available is less than the take-off distance required plus 1,000’
What are the weather requirements to operate in IMC?
- temperature at the minimum IFR altitude is at or above +5° Celsius
What are the solo flight practice area restrictions?
- all local solos must be within the ERAU practice area
- students pilots must remain w/in 25 NM of the airport
What are the solo flight length restrictions?
- 2 hours w/ 1 hour rest in between
When must solo flight return to the airport?
- same day, unless approval from the chief flight instructor or unexpected circumstances
What are the recency of experience requirements for solo flights?
- must have completed 3 take-offs/landings w/in the previous 90 days in day or night
What are the supervised solo weather limitations?
- no more than 10 knots of wind
- no more than 5 knots of cross wind
- no adverse weather conditions
What are the solo wind limitations?
- wind must not exceed 25 knots (including gusts) or crosswinds exceeding 15 knots
Are student pilots allowed to perform touch and go’s on solo flights?
- no, they must do full-stop and taxi back
What runways can FA119/121 students use for take-offs and landings?
- 3R and 21L
What are the night solo restrictions?
- must have an operating control tower
- pattern only
- full stop landings
- end before tower closes
- 1.7 hours in duration
- must have a dual night flight w/in previous 30 days
What is the autopilot minimum engagement speed?
- 70 knots
What is the autopilot maximum engagement speed?
- 163 knots
When must the autopilot be disengaged on an approach?
- 200 ft AGL
What is the lowest altitude that autopilot can be engaged?
- 800 ft AGL
