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Embry-Riddle Flight Instructor > 221 > Flashcards

221 Flashcards

1
Q

What gets you to above 100’ above the touchdown zone elevation on an instrument approach?

A
  • white approach lighting
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1
Q

When can you go below minimums on an instrument approach?

A
  1. be able to make a descent to landing on a stable approach
  2. visibility must be at or above published minimums
  3. runway environment in sight
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2
Q

What gets you to land on an instrument approach?

A
  • red approach lighting
  • runway threshold
  • runway threshold lights
  • runway end identifier lights
  • visual approach slope indicator
  • touchdown zone/touchdown zone markings
  • touchdown zone lights
  • runway/runway markings
  • runway lights
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3
Q

What is the MMAILLMANN acronym for briefing approaches?

A
  • Minimum weather
  • Minimum descent altitude/decision altitude
  • Airspeed for final approach segment (80 knots)
  • Initial rate of descent for final approach segment
  • Lighting
  • Landing (straight in, circling, etc.)
  • Missed approach procedures
  • Altimeter setting
  • Navigation aids (frequencies, final approach course, etc.)
  • Notes
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3
Q

What is the MMAILLMANN acronym for briefing approaches?

A
  • Minimum weather
  • Minimum descent altitude/decision altitude
  • Airspeed for final approach segment (80 knots)
  • Initial rate of descent for final approach segment
  • Lighting
  • Landing (straight in, circling, etc.)
  • Missed approach procedures
  • Altimeter setting
  • Navigation aids (frequencies, final approach course, etc.)
  • Notes
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4
Q

What 3 things need to be done prior to reaching the initial approach fix?

A
  1. ATIS
  2. Brief
  3. Checklist
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5
Q

What are the 6 C’s for preforming a missed approach?

A
  1. Cram
  2. Climb
  3. Clean
  4. Cool
  5. Call
  6. Care
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6
Q

How are aircraft approach categories determined and what are they?

A
  • based on reference landing speed (Vref), if not specified it is based on 1.3 Vso at max certified landing weight
  • Category A = less than 91 knots
  • Category B = 91 knots but less than 121 knots
  • Category C = 121 knots but less than 141 knots
  • Category D = 141 knots but less than 166 knots
  • Category E = 166 knots and above
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7
Q

What is a decision altitude (DA)?

A
  • specified altitude in MSL on a precision approach at which a missed approach must be executed if the runway environment is not in sight
  • used on CAT I ILS approaches
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8
Q

What is a decision height (DH)?

A
  • specified height above touchdown zone elevation at which a missed approach must be executed if the runway environment is not in sight
  • used on CAT II/III ILS approaches
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9
Q

What is a minimum descent altitude (MDA)?

A
  • lowest altitude in MSL you can descent to on a non-precision approach before the runway environment is in sight
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10
Q

When is a procedure turn not required?

A
  1. NoPT
  2. radar vectors
  3. timed approach from a holding fix
  4. cleared straight in
  5. holding pattern in lieu of PT
  6. no procedure turn barb
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11
Q

What is fuel on board?

A
  • (fuel remaining/cruise fuel burn rate) + est. time enroute
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12
Q

When is the ILS critical area active?

A
  • at or below 800’ ceilings and 2 SM visibility
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13
Q

What are the 4 ways to avoid a published hold?

A
  1. cleared straight in
  2. radar vectors
  3. NoPT
  4. not published
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14
Q

What does “climb via” mean?

A
  • must comply with the lateral path of the SID
  • must comply with published speed restrictions
  • must comply with published altitude restrictions
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15
Q

You are cleared to “climb via” the SID, there is a published altitude restriction at a fix that is higher than the published top altitude. Which altitude are you cleared to?

A
  • you are only cleared to the published top altitude
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16
Q

You are cleared to “climb via” the SID, later you are cleared to “climb and maintain”. Do you still have to comply with the published altitude restrictions?

A
  • no, you are expected to vacate your current altitude and perform an unrestricted climb to the altitude assigned by ATC
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17
Q

You are cleared to “climb via” the SID, while on the SID, ATC issues you a vector. Do you still have to “climb via”?

A
  • No, ATC will also issue a new altitude since you no longer on the lateral path of the SID
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18
Q

What does “descend via” mean?

A
  • must comply with the lateral path of the STAR
  • must comply with published speed restrictions
  • must comply with published altitude restrictions
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19
Q

You are cleared to “descend via”, what altitude can you descend to?

A
  • published bottom altitude
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20
Q

If an instrument approach procedure connects to the STAR, are the instrument approach procedure altitudes part of the STAR?

A
  • No, must receive appropriate clearance from ATC
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21
Q

You are cleared to “descend via” the STAR, but ATC adds “except maintain”. What altitude are you cleared to and do you have to comply with altitude restrictions?

A
  • must comply with all published altitudes and speed restrictions until reaching the assigned altitude
22
Q

What does it mean when you are cleared to “descend and maintain”?

A
  • you are expected to vacate your current altitude and begin an unrestricted descent down to the altitude assigned by ATC
23
Q

At all times, what must be reported to ATC without a specific request?

A
  • when vacating any previously assigned altitude/flight level for a newly assigned altitude/flight level
  • changing altitudes while VFR-On-Top
  • when unable to climb/descend at 500 FPM
  • when executing a missed approach
  • change in TAS of 5% or 10 knots
  • time and altitude/flight level reaching a holding fix
  • time and altitude/flight level leaving a holding fix
  • any loss of navigation
  • anything relating to the safety of flight
24
Q

What is the VDP?

A
  • Visual descent point
  • a point on final approach of a non-precision approach from which a normal descent from the MDA to the touchdown point can be made
25
Q

How can you calculate VDP?

A
  • MDA (in AGL)/300
26
Q

If you fly past the VDP, and the runway environment is not in sight, do you have to go missed?

A
  • no
27
Q

What are the holding airspeed limitations?

A
  • 6,000’ and below = 200 knots
  • 6,001’ - 14,000’ = 220 knots
  • 14,001’ and above = 265 knots
28
Q

What do you need in order to fly a contact approach?

A
  • remain clear of clouds
  • 1 SM of visibility
  • airport must have an instrument approach
  • must be requested by the pilot
  • adequate separation from other aircraft
29
Q

What do you need in order to fly a visual approach?

A
  • airport or preceding aircraft in sight
  • 1,000’ ceilings
  • 3 SM visibility
30
Q

What would the pilot lose during a GEA failure?

A
  • CHT
  • EGT
  • RPM
  • Fuel flow
  • FOB
31
Q

What systems are controlled by the GIA?

A
  • Comms
  • Navs
  • GPS
  • Localizer
  • Glideslope
32
Q

While flying on an IFR flight plan, ATC vectors you off the assigned route for traffic. Shortly after turning off course, you lose comms. What should you do in this scenario?

A
  • 7600
  • return to the assigned route unless ATC told you to expect a different route
33
Q

When declaring an emergency to ATC, how would you phrase it?

A
  • “Name of controlling agency, tail number, declaring emergency for ____, specific request.”
34
Q

What are the different segments on an instrument approach?

A
  • feeder routes (route depicted on an instrument approach that gets aircraft from the en-route structure to the initial approach fix)
  • initial approach fix (point from which an approach begins)
  • intermediate fix (identifies the beginning of the intermediate segment of the approach)
  • final approach fix (identifies the beginning of the final approach segment begins and the pilot may begin the descent to land)
  • missed approach point (point at which a missed approach must be executed on an instrument approach)
35
Q

What speed/configuration do you need to be at while on a feeder route?

A
  • 100 knots, 0 flaps
36
Q

What speed/configuration do you need to be at while at the IAF?

A
  • 100 knots, 0 flaps
37
Q

What speed/configuration do you need to be at while at the IF?

A
  • 90 knots, 0 flaps
38
Q

What speed/configuration do you need to be at while at the FAF?

A
  • 80 knots, 10 flaps
39
Q

How do you calculate VDP?

A
  • HAT/300
40
Q

What are factors that might lead to executing a missed approach procedure before the missed approach point prior to a go-around below MDA?

A
  • full-scale deflection
  • unstable approach
  • descent rate greater than 1000 fpm
  • improper landing configuration
41
Q

What 2 things do you need in order to fully comply with a missed approach procedure?

A
  • must be at a specified altitude
  • must be at least at the MAP or past to start to turn
42
Q

What are the speeds limits when circling for category A, B, C, D, and E?

A
  • Category A = less than 91 knots
  • Category B = more than 91 knots but less than 121 knots
  • Category C = more than 121 knots but less than 141 knots
  • Category D = more than 141 knots but less than 166 knots
  • Category E = more than 166 knots
43
Q

What are the minimum distances you would need to be circling away from the end of the airport with each category?

A
  • Category A = 1.3 nm
  • Category B = 1.5 nm
  • Category C = 1.7 nm
  • Category D = 2.3 nm
  • Category E = 4.5 nm
44
Q

What should you do if you lose sight of the airport while maintaining a circling approach to land?

A
  • turn over the airport and on course guidance and to proceed to do the missed approach procedure
45
Q

What is an MSA?

A
  • minimum safe altitude
  • safest altitude that guarantees obstacle clearance
46
Q

What are TAA’s?

A
  • terminal arrival area
  • provides a transition area for aricraft with an FMS and/or GPS equipment
  • usually provides NoPT
47
Q

What sensitivity left or right of the centerline does a standard localizer give when the aircraft is over the threshold?

A
  • 700 ft
48
Q

What 3 conditions authorize you for a straight-in approach instead of performing a procedure turn/hold in lieu?

A
  1. vectors to final
  2. published route w/ NoPT
  3. cleared “straight in”
49
Q

When is it required to file a destination alternate?

A
  1. if the destination does not have an instrument approach, regardless of the weather
  2. if the destination has an approach, for at least +/- 1 hour of ETA, the ceiling and/or visibility are less than 2000 ft and 3 SM
49
Q

When is it required to file a destination alternate?

A
  1. if the destination does not have an instrument approach, regardless of the weather
  2. if the destination has an approach, for at least +/- 1 hour of ETA, the ceiling and/or visibility are less than 2000 ft and 3 SM
50
Q

If a destination alternate is required, what are the standard alternate minimums?

A
  • non-precision: 600-2
  • precision: 800-2
  • No IAP: ceiling and vis should allow a descent from MEA to airport under basic VFR
51
Q

What is the difference between fog and haze?

A
  • fog reduced visibility to below 5/8 SM visibility
  • haze reduced visibility to at or above 5/8 SM visibility
52
Q

What is the minimum temperature to operate in IMC (as per FOM)

A

5° C

53
Q

What type of weather is associated w/ cold front passages?

A
  • showers, thunderstorms, clouds, strong winds, unstable atmosphere, and dropping air pressure
54
Q

Describe how to alternate air induction works in relation to icing.

A
  • if the air induction filter ices over, suction created by the engine will open a spring-loaded door and draw unfiltered air from inside the cowling
  • results in 10% power loss at full throttle

Embry-Riddle Flight Instructor (10 decks)

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