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Embry-Riddle Flight Instructor > 141 Check > Flashcards

141 Check Flashcards

1
Q

What are the cross-country VFR day fuel requirements?

A
  • enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing plus 1 hour at normal cruise
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2
Q

What are the cross-country VFR night fuel requirements?

A
  • enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing plus 1.5 hours at normal cruise
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3
Q

What are the cross-country IFR fuel requirements?

A
  • enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing, an alternate is required, plus hour 1 hour (day) or 1.5 hours (night) at normal cruise
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4
Q

What are the dual flight weather minimums for the traffic pattern?

A
  • 1,300 ft ceiling, 3 SM visbility
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5
Q

What are the dual flight weather minimums for the practice area?

A
  • 2,000 ft ceiling, 5 SM visbility
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6
Q

What are the dual flight weather minimums for local IFR training?

A
  • circling minimums
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7
Q

What are the dual flight weather minimums for cross-country flights?

A
  • federal regulations (enough fuel to fly to first airport of intended landing plus 30 minutes (day) or 45 minutes (night) at normal cruise
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8
Q

What are the dual flight weather minimums for any flight?

A
  • winds (including gusts) can not exceed 30 knots or max demonstrated crosswind
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9
Q

What are the solo flight weather minimums for the practice area?

A
  • 2,500 ft ceiling, 6 SM visibility
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10
Q

What are the solo flight weather minimums for wind?

A
  • 25 knots total, 15 knots crosswind
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11
Q

What are the solo flight weather minimums for cross-country flights by rated private pilots?

A
  • 1,000 ft ceiling above planned altitude, 6 SM visibility
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12
Q

What are the solo flight weather minimums for cross-country flights by student pilots?

A
  • 2,000 ft ceiling above planned altitude, 6 SM visbility
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13
Q

What are the solo flight weather minimums for FA-119/121 student pilots?

A
  • maximum gust spread can not exceed 7 knots
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14
Q

Who should you contact if you discover equipment or instruments are inoperative?

A
  • flight supervisor
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15
Q

In order to perform cross-country flights further than 400 NM, what do you need to do?

A
  • get approval from the chief flight instructor
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16
Q

What are the 3 basic rules to remember during an emergency?

A
  1. maintain aircraft control
  2. analyze the situation and take corrective action
  3. land as soon as condition permit
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17
Q

If you encounter deteriorating weather, what should you do?

A
  • hold in good weather or divert
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18
Q

If you experience lost comms at a towered airport while on the ground, what should you do?

A
  • flash the landing light and remain clear of movement areas until you receive a light gun signal
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19
Q

While on the ground, what does a steady green light mean?

A
  • cleared for takeoff
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20
Q

While in the air, what does a steady green light mean?

A
  • cleared for landing
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21
Q

While on the ground, what does a flashing green light mean?

A
  • cleared for taxi
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22
Q

While in the air, what does a flashing green light mean?

A
  • return for landing
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23
Q

While on the ground, what does a steady red light mean?

A
  • stop
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24
Q

While in the air, what does a steady red light mean?

A
  • give way to other aircraft, and continue circling
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25
Q

While on the ground, what does a flashing red light mean?

A
  • taxi clear of the runway in use
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26
Q

While in the air, what does a flashing red light mean?

A
  • airport unsafe, do not land
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27
Q

While on the ground, what does a flashing white light mean?

A
  • return to starting point
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28
Q

While on the ground, what does an alternating red/green light mean?

A
  • exercise extreme caution
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29
Q

While in the air, what does an alternating red/green light mean?

A
  • exercise extreme caution
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30
Q

If you experience lost comms at a non-towered airport while on the ground, what should you do?

A
  • return to the ramp and contact flight supervisor
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31
Q

If you experience lost comms during VFR flight, what should you do?

A
  • plan to land an appropriate non-towered airport
  • squawk 7600
  • call flight supervisor and flight service station (if on a flight plan)
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32
Q

What are the accident or incident notification procedures?

A
  1. notify flight supervisor

2. list date and time, location, aircraft and tail number, type of injuries, description, and name of person reporting

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33
Q

What should you do if you experience an accident or incident while in the air?

A
  1. contact the controlling agency
  2. explain the situation
  3. ask to notify ERAU
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34
Q

What should you do if you get lost?

A
  1. fly the airplane
  2. use pilotage to determine where you are
  3. use navigation equipment
  4. ask ATC for help
  5. monitor fuel
  6. land as soon as practical
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35
Q

When do you have give a landing safety briefing?

A
  1. before all pre-solo dual training flights
  2. before supervised solo flights
  3. before any flight resulting in the issuance of a PQ card
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36
Q

What needs to be covered in a landing safety briefing?

A
  1. proper seat height and position
  2. point of visual focus during landings
  3. go-around decisions
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37
Q

What are the ERAU drug and alcohol regulations?

A

Prohibited from flying when:

  1. drinking alcohol w/in previous 12 hours
  2. under the influence
  3. using drugs or medicine that affects your piloting abilities
  4. received a DUI and have not reported it
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38
Q

When must a go-around be performed?

A
  • high round out
  • late or rapid rollout
  • excessive floating
  • ballooning
  • porposing
  • wind shear
  • any other factor placing a good landing in doubt
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39
Q

What are the conditions of a stable landing?

A
  • constant final approach pitch
  • trimmed
  • airspeed w/in 5 knots
  • landing configuration established
  • on proper approach path
  • on centerline
  • “stable” callout at 100 ft AGL
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40
Q

How long is a PQ card valid for?

A
  • 30 days
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41
Q

What are the flight instructor duty day restrictions?

A
  1. no more than 8 hours of flight instruction in any 24 hour period
  2. maximum of 6 consecutive working days
  3. minimum of 10 hours off-duty time between duty periods
  4. maximum duty period of 12 hours
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42
Q

What does the PIC have to do when refueling at a different airport?

A
  • observe the fueling to ensure the right fuel is being used
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43
Q

What battery percentage on the iPad is required for local flights?

A
  • 50%
44
Q

What battery percentage on the iPad is required for cross-country flights?

A
  • 80%
45
Q

What are the local flight fuel requirements?

A
  • 1/2 total usable fuel (27 gallons)
46
Q

What are the supervised solo wind minimums?

A
  • no more than 10 knots of wind, 5 knots of crosswind, and no adverse conditions
47
Q

When do you need to turn the NAV light on?

A
  • sunset
48
Q

When can you log night time?

A
  • after the beginning of evening civil twilight
49
Q

when can you log night landings?

A
  • 1 hour after sunset
50
Q

How do you calculate fuel on board?

A
  • (fuel remaining/cruise fuel burn rate) + est. time enroute
51
Q

What are the weather conditions required for the ILS critical area to become active?

A
  • ceilings below 800 ft, less than 2 SM visibility
52
Q

How close to the VOR should you slow to your holding speed?

A
  • 3 minutes
53
Q

If you lose WAAS, will you still have RAIM?

A
  • yes
54
Q

If you lose RAIM, will you still have WAAS?

A
  • no
55
Q

What is an LPV approach?

A
  • localizer performance w/ vertical guidance

- must have WAAS

56
Q

How low does an LPV approach get you?

A
  • 200 ft AGL
57
Q

Where is the outer marker (OM) located?

A
  • final approach fix
58
Q

Where is the middle marker (MM) located?

A
  • 3,500 ft from the landing threshold/200 ft above touchdown elevation
59
Q

Where is the inner marker (IM) located?

A
  • DH on a CAT II approach
60
Q

What is adverse yaw?

A
  • the tendency for the airplane to yaw in the opposite direction of the turn
  • caused by the increased induced drag on the outside of the wing, which also produced more lift
61
Q

What is a TAA?

A
  • technically advanced airplane
    1. electronically advanced avionics (electronic PFD/MFD)
    2. 2 axis auto-pilot integrated w/ the heading and navigation guidance system
62
Q

When do you need to fly a departure procedure?

A
  • when we cannot maintain visual separation w/ terrain
63
Q

Instrument cockpit check

A
  1. Mag compass (full of fluid, showing proper heading, compass correction card present)
  2. COMS/NAVS (appropriate frequencies)
  3. ASI (no red X’s, zero)
  4. Attitude indicator (no red X’s, brick is centered)
  5. Altimeter (no red X’s, correct altimeter setting, w/in 75 ft)
  6. HSI (heading matches magnetic compass, rate of turn arrow not present, NAV1/2 - move CDI 10° right/left/90°)
  7. XPDR (proper code, alt mode)
  8. TMR/REF (clock working, airspeeds set)
  9. AP (check, off)
  10. MFD (GPS status - RAIM/WAAS available, System Status - GPS CDI = AUTO/2NM, LRU’s all green)
  11. STBY instruments
64
Q

What are the 4 ways to disengage autopilot?

A
  1. AP DISC button on yoke
  2. GA button
  3. AP softkey
  4. Move left side of electric trim control
65
Q

What are the runway distance requirements for touch-and-go operations?

A
  • available runway must be equal to or greater than the sum of the calculated take-off and landing distance over a 50’ obstacle
66
Q

What are the runway distance requirements for take-offs?

A
  • available runway must be greater than the sum of the take-off/landing ground roll or take-off distance over a 50’ obstacle
67
Q

When do you need to perform a short-field take-off?

A
  • available runway is less than required take-off distance plus 500’
68
Q

When are simulated aborted take-offs to an actual take-off prohibited?

A
  • available runway is less than the required take-off distance plus 1,000’
69
Q

What are the weather requirements to operate in IMC?

A
  • temperature at the minimum IFR altitude is at or above +5° C
70
Q

What are the solo flight practice area restrictions?

A
  • all local solos must be within ERAU practice areas

- student pilots must remain w/in 25 NM of the airport

71
Q

What are the solo flight length restrictions?

A
  • 2 hours w/ 1 hour rest in between
72
Q

What are the recency of experience requirements for solo flights?

A
  • must have completed 3 take-off/landings w/in the previous 90 days
73
Q

What runways can FA119/121 students use for take-offs and landings?

A
  • 3R or 21L
74
Q

What are the night solo restrictions?

A
  1. tower must be operating
  2. pattern only
  3. full stop landings
  4. must end before tower closes
  5. no more than 1.7
  6. must have completed a dual night flight w/in previous 30 days
75
Q

What is the autopilot minimum engagement speed?

A
  • 70 knots
76
Q

What is the autopilot maximum engagement speed?

A
  • 163 knots
77
Q

When must autopilot be disengaged on an approach?

A
  • 200 ft AGL
78
Q

What is the lowest altitude the autopilot can be engaged?

A
  • 800 ft AGL
79
Q

When should you prime the engine before starting?

A
  • temperature is 5° C or less and the engine is cold
80
Q

What are the starter cycle restrictions?

A
  • do not crank for more than 10 seconds
  • allow 20 seconds between cranks
  • repeat no more than 6 times
  • let starter rest for 30 minutes before trying again
81
Q

When are you not allowed to start the engine?

A
  1. aircraft parked immediately adjacent to and in the same row is being fuels
  2. aircraft parked directly in front is being fueled
  3. fuel truck is in your row and blocking your normal taxi route
82
Q

What are the limitations of the ADS-B traffic function?

A
  1. aircraft must be in radar coverage

2. must be w/in line of sight from ADS-B ground based transmitter

83
Q

What airspeed do we want during a hold?

A
  • 90 knots
84
Q

What airspeed do we want on the final approach course?

A
  • 80 knots (flaps 10°)
85
Q

What airspeed do we want during the initial segment of an approach?

A
  • 100 knots
86
Q

What airspeed do we want during the intermediate segment of an approach?

A
  • 90 knots
87
Q

What is the rule of thumb for leveling off?

A
  • lead climb/descents by 10% of VSI
88
Q

What is the rule of thumb for power settings during changes in vertical velocity or airspeed?

A
  • 100 RPM = 100 FPM or 5 knots or airspeed
89
Q

What is the rule of thumb for determining our rate of descent on a 3° glide slope?

A
  • VSI = GS x 5
90
Q

How can you calculate VDP?

A
  • HAT at MDA / 300
91
Q

What is the rule of thumb for turns to magnetic compass headings?

A
  • UNOS (undershoot north, overshoot south)
  • North = undershoot by latitude + bank angle
  • South = undershoot by latitude - bank angle
  • East/West = lead by 1/2 bank angle
92
Q

What is the 60:1 rule?

A
  • 1° of arc = 1 NM (6,000’) at 60 NM
93
Q

What is the rule of thumb for determining the angle of bank for a standard rate turn?

A
  • 15% of TAS
94
Q

Vertical S-A

A
  • 80 knots/400 FPM/500 ft block of altitude

- maintain constant heading

95
Q

Vertical S-B

A
  • 80 knots/400 FPM/500 ft block of altitude

- standard rate turn throughout

96
Q

Vertical S-C

A
  • 80 knots/400 FPM/500 ft block of altitude

- reverse direction of standard rate turn at bottom

97
Q

Vertical S-D

A
  • 80 knots/400 FPM/500 ft block of altitude

- reverse direction of standard rate turn at top/bottom

98
Q

Adverse yaw demonstration

A
  1. position #1 reference point on prominent landmark
  2. roll into 30° turn w/out rudder
  3. notice how the nose yaws opposite the direction of the turn
99
Q

Lateral stability demonstration

A
  1. Establish 20° turn/neutralize aileron/rudder
  2. trim as necessary
  3. return to S/L
  4. repeat w/ 30° and 45° turn
100
Q

Aborted take-off

A
  1. Reduce power to idle and callout “abort, abort, abort”

2. full aerodynamic braking

101
Q

Instrument take-off

A
  1. align airplane w/ runway centerline and hold brakes
  2. 1,000 RPM
  3. release brakes/increase power to full
  4. rotate at 60 knots
102
Q

Wind drift circle

A
  1. 1000 ft AGL
  2. select prominent ground reference point
  3. fly over reference point
  4. 30° bank/90 knots
  5. wings level after 360° of turn
103
Q

How do you calculate pivotal altitude?

A
  • (GS squared)/11.3
104
Q

Give me a holding clearance.

A

“Riddle (tail number), hold (direction from the fix) of _ DME on the _ radial from Drake, expect further clearance ___.

105
Q

Give me an arc clearance.

A

“Riddle (tail number), arc (direction), from the _ radial to the _ radial at _ DME, then proceed (direction)

Embry-Riddle Flight Instructor (10 decks)

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