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60's > EP & Limits practice > Flashcards

EP & Limits practice Flashcards

1
Q

Any time an operational limit is exceeded, an appropri-ate entry shall be made on DA FORM ___________.

A

2408-13-1

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2
Q

Entry shall state what limit or limits were _______, ___________, ______________, and any additional data that would aid maintenance personnel in the maintenance action that may be required.

A

exceeded, range, time beyond limits

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3
Q

The helicopter shall not be _______ until corrective action is taken.

A

flown

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4
Q

The minimum crew required to fly the helicopter is _____ pilots.

A

two

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5
Q

Additional crewmembers, as required, will be added _______________________.

A

at the discretion of the commander, in accordance with pertinent Department of the Army regulations.

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6
Q

Red and yellow striped tapes and red readouts indicate the limit _______________.

A

above or below which continued operation is likely to cause damage or shorten component life.

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7
Q

Yellow tapes and readouts indicate ______________.

A

the range when special attention should be given to the parameter the instrument represents.

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8
Q

Green tapes and readouts indicate the ___________________.

A

normal operating range of the parameter the instrument represents.

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9
Q

Operating an engine against the gust lock is __________________.

A

prohibited.

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10
Q

Rotor brake shall not be applied with engine(s) operating and rotor turning except during an ________________. Maximum rotor speed for emergency rotor brake applications is ____% NR.

A

emergency stop

76

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11
Q

Routine stops will be with engine(s) off, NR below ______% and with _____-____ psi applied to stop the rotor in not less than ___ seconds.

A

40

150-180

12

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12
Q

Minimum rotor brake pressure for engine start is ____ psi. Maximum rotor brake pressure for engine start is ____ psi.

A

450

690

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13
Q

Use of the rotor brake with engine(s)operating is restricted to ________ and _______engine starts and operations at ________ only.

A

single

dual

IDLE

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14
Q

Single and dual engine starts and operation at _______ with rotor brake on are not time limited.

A

IDLE

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15
Q

If oil pressure is not steady during steady state forward flight or in a level hover, or if oil pressure is steady but under ____ psi, make ane ntry on the appropriate maintenance form. Sudden pressure drop (more than ___ psi) without fluctuation requires an entry on the appropriate maintenance form.

A

45

10

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16
Q

Torque
(10 second transient)

Dual-Engine

Above 80 KIAS __________%
80 KIAS or below _________%
Single-Engine ____________%

A

100 - 144
120 - 144
135 - 144

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17
Q

Torque
(Continuous)

Dual-Engine

Above 80 KIAS __________%
80 KIAS or below _________%
Single-Engine ____________%

A

0 - 100
0 - 120
0 - 135

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18
Q

NG limits

12 second transient __________

Continuous _____________

A

105 - 106%

0 - 105%

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19
Q

TGT limits

12 second transient \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
2.5 minute transient (contingency power) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Start Abort Limit \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
10 minute Limit \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
30 minute Limit \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Normal \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A 
903 - 949
879 - 903
851
846 - 879
793 - 846
0 - 793
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20
Q

NP1 / NP2

12 second transient ___________%
Transient ____________%
Continuous ___________%
Transient _____________%

A

105 - 107
101 - 105
95 - 101
91 - 95

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21
Q

NR
Power on

Transient __________%
Continuous ___________%
Transient __________%

A

101 - 107
95 - 101
91 - 95

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22
Q 
NR
Power off (autorotation)

Maximum ____________%
Transient ____________%
Normal ____________%

A

110
105 - 110
90 - 105

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23
Q

Engine oil pressure

Idle ___________ psi
Normal ________ psi
5 min. limit _______ psi

A

22 - 26
26 - 100
100 - 120

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24
Q

Engine oil temperature

Continuous ________
30 min. limit _________

A

-20 - 135

135 - 150

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25
Q

Transmission oil temperature

Continuous ____________
Precautionary __________

A

-20 - 105

105 - 140

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26
Q

Transmission oil pressure

Idle and transient _________ psi
Continuous __________ psi
Precautionary __________ psi

A

20 - 30
30 - 65
65 - 130

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27
Q

At ambient temperatures of ___°C (59°F) and below, ____ consecutive start cycles may be made, followed by a ___ minute rest period, followed by ___ additional consecutive start cycles. A ___ minute rest period is then required before any additional starts.

A

15

two

3

two

30

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28
Q

At ambient temperatures above ___° up to ___°C (59° up to 126°F), ___ consecutive start cycles may be made. A ____ minute rest period is then required before any additional start cycles.

A

15

52

two

30

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29
Q

Crossbleed starts shall not be attempted unless the _______________ or _______________ advisory does not appear, and operating engine must be at ____% NG or above and rotor speed at ____% NR.

A

ENG 1 ANTI-ICE ON

ENG 2 ANTI-ICE ON

90

100

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30
Q

Engine overspeed check in flight is ___________. Engine overspeed checks, on the ground, are authorized by ______________________________ only.

A

prohibited

designated maintenance personnel

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31
Q

Maximum capacity for each storage compartment is ____ pounds.

A

125

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32
Q

Max cargo hook capacity

A

9,000

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33
Q

Maximum weight is further limited by cargo floor maximum capacity of ____ pounds per square foot.

A

300

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34
Q

External lift missions above ________ pounds can only be flown with cargo hook loads above _______ pounds and up to ________ pounds.

A

22,000

8,000

9,000

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35
Q

UH-60M external lift mission max ________ lbs

A

23,500

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36
Q

The four cabin ceiling tiedown fittings have a limited load capability of ________ pounds. The 17 tiedown fittings installed on the cargo floor can restrain a ________ pound load in any direction. The eight net restraint rings in the cargo compartment are rated at ________ pound capacity in any direction.

A

4,000

5,000

3,500

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37
Q

Maximum airspeed with external cargo hook loads up to 8,000 pounds is _____ KIAS

A

140

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38
Q

Maximum airspeed for one engine inoperative is ____ KIAS.

A

130

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39
Q

Maximum airspeed for autorotation at a gross weight of 16,825 pounds or less is ___ KIAS.

A

150

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40
Q

Maximum airspeed for autorotation at a gross weight of 16,825 pounds or more is ___ KIAS.

A

130

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41
Q

Sideward/Rearward flight into the wind, when combined with wind speed, shall not exceed ___ knots ( ___ knots with ESSS).

A

45

35

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42
Q

SAS inoperative airspeed limits:

a. One SAS inoperative - ___ KIAS.
b. Two SAS inoperative - ___ KIAS.
c. Two SAS inoperative in IMC - ___ KIAS.

A

170

150

140

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43
Q

Hydraulic system inoperative limits:

a. One hydraulic system inoperative - ___ KIAS.
b. Two hydraulic systems inoperative - ___ KIAS.
c. Two hydraulic systems inoperative in IMC - ____ KIAS.

A

170

150

140

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44
Q

Maximum airspeed for:

Landing Light

Extending _____ KIAS
Extended _____ KIAS

A

130

180

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45
Q

Maximum airspeed for:

Searchlight

Extending _____ KIAS
Extended _____ KIAS

A

100

180

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46
Q

Cabin door(s) maybe fully open up to ___ KIAS.

Gunner window(s) maybe fully open up to ___ KIAS.

Flight with cockpit door(s) removed is __________.

A

145

170

prohibited

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47
Q

Manual control is available:

(1) The stabilator shall be set full down at speeds below ___ KIAS.
(2) The stabilator shall be set at 0° at speeds above ___ KIAS.
(3) Autorotation airspeed shall be limited to ___ KIAS at all gross weights.

A

40

40

120

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48
Q

Prohibited Maneuvers

a. Hovering turns greater than ___° per second are prohibited. Intentional maneuvers beyond attitudes of ___° pitch or over ___° roll are prohibited.
b. Simultaneous moving of both ___________________ to _____ or _______ (throttle chop) in flight is prohibited.
c. __________ ground taxi is prohibited.

A

30

±30

60

ENG POWER CONT levers to IDLE or OFF

Rearward

49
Q

Manual operation of the stabilator in flight is ________ except as required by formal training and maintenance test flight requirements or as alternate stabilator control in case the ________ malfunctions.

A

prohibited

AUTO mode

50
Q

Prolonged rearward flight and downwind hovering are to be avoided to prevent accumulation of _______________ in the helicopter and ______________ to windows on ______________.

A

exhaust fumes

heat damage

open cargo doors

51
Q

Maneuvering Limitations.

NOTE Maneuvers entered from a low power setting may result in ______________ of __% NR or greater.

A

transient droop

5

52
Q

High-Speed Yaw Maneuver Limitations

Above ____ KIAS avoid _____________________ to prevent excess tail rotor system loading.

A

80

abrupt, full pedal inputs

53
Q

Bank Angle Limitation

Bank angles shall be limited to ____° when a PRI SERVO FAIL caution appears.

A

30

54
Q

Landing Gear Limitations.

Do not exceed a touchdown sink rate of

Up to 16,825 lb

Level terrain ________
Slopes ________

A

540 fpm

360 fpm

55
Q

Landing Gear Limitations.

Do not exceed a touchdown sink rate of

Above 16,825 lb

Level terrain ________
Slopes ________

A

300 fpm

180 fpm

56
Q

Landing Speed Limitations.

Maximum forward touchdown speed is limited to ____ knots ground speed on level terrain.

A

60

57
Q

Slope Landing Limitations

___° nose-up, right wheel up or left wheel upslope. The slope limitations shall be further reduced by __° for every __ knots of wind. 6° nose downslope. Landing in downslope conditions with tailwinds greater than ___ knots shall not be conducted. The main gearbox may be operated up to 30 minutes at a time with pressure fluctuations when the helicopter is known to be at a _______________.

A

15

2

5

15

nose-up attitude (i.e., slope landings or hover with extreme aft CG).

58
Q

Flight in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC).

This helicopter is qualified for operation in IMC.

Flight in Icing Conditions.

NOTE The ice detecting system is calibrated for ____ KIAS. When flying at airspeeds above ____ KIAS, the ice rate meter will indicate higher LWC than the actual conditions.

A

100

100

59
Q

Flight in Icing Conditions

Helicopters with the following equipment installed, operational, and turned on are permitted to fly into ________ or ________ icing conditions.

(5 things)

A

trace

light

  1. Windshield Anti-ice.
  2. Pitot Heat.
  3. Engine Anti-ice.
  4. Engine Inlet Anti-ice Modulating Valve.
  5. Insulated Ambient Air Sensing Tube.
60
Q

For flight into moderate icing conditions, ____________________________________ must be installed, operational, and turned on. Flight into heavy or severe icing is ___________.

A

all equipment in b. and blade deice

prohibited

61
Q

Backup Hydraulic Pump Hot Weather Limits rotor system __________.

A

static

62
Q

Backup pump limits

FAT °C (°F) ** OperatingTime (Minutes) ** Cooldown Time (Pump Off) (Minutes)

A

-54 - 32 (-65 - 90) ** Unlimited ** - -

33 - 38 (91 - 100) **24 ** 72

39 - 52 (102 - 126) ** 16 ** 48

63
Q

APU Operating Limits

To prevent APU overheating, APU operation at ambient temperatures of ___°C (109°F) and above with engine and rotor operating is limited to ___ minutes. With engine and rotor not operating, the APU may be operated ___________ up to an ambient temperature of ___°C (124°F). If APU OIL HOT caution appears a ___ minute cooling period is required, before checking oil level.

A

43

30

continuously

51

30

64
Q

Windshield anti-ice check shall not be done when FAT is over ____°C (80°F).

A

27

65
Q

a. Intentional flight into ________ turbulence is prohibited.
b. Intentional flight into thunderstorms is __________.
c. Intentional flight into turbulence with a ___________ and an inoperative ____________ is prohibited.

A

severe

prohibited

sling load attached

collective trim

66
Q

Blue Force Tracker Temperature Limits.

CAUTION

Operating the BFT system outside this range may cause failure or erratic operation. Normal operating temperatures range: __________ to ____________.

A

-15°F (-26°C) to 160°F (71°C)

67
Q

The term LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE is defined as _________________________________.

A

landing at the nearest suitable landing area (e.g., open field) without delay. (The primary consideration is to ensure the survival of occupants.)

68
Q

The term LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE is defined as __________________________________________.

A

landing at a suitable landing area. (The primary consideration is the urgency of the emergency.)

69
Q

The term AUTOROTATE is defined as _______________________________________________.

A

adjusting the flight controls as necessary to establish an autorotational descent and landing.

70
Q

The term ESTABLISH SINGLE-ENGINE AIRSPEED is defined as ________________________________________________.

  1. ____________________.
  2. ____________________.
  3. ____________________.
A

maneuvering the aircraft to an appropriate airspeed that will allow for continued flight under partial power conditions to a suitable recovery area.

Cyclic — Adjust as required.

Collective — Adjust as required to maintain NR within normal operating range.

Establish appropriate airspeed.

71
Q

The term EMER ENG SHUTDOWN is defined as _______________________________.

  1. __________________.
  2. __________________.
  3. __________________.
A

engine shutdown without delay. Engine shutdown in flight is usually not an immediate-action item unless a fire exists. Before attempting an engine shutdown, identify the affected engine by checking ENG OUT warning lights, NP, NR, Q(torque), P(engine oil pressure), TGT, and NG.

ENG POWER CONT lever(s) — OFF.

ENG FUEL SYS selector(s) — OFF.

FUEL BOOST PUMP switch(es) — OFF.

72
Q

The term LOCKOUT is defined as ___________________________________________.

E.P. _____________________________.

A

manual control of engine RPM while bypassing DEC/EDECU functions. Bypass of the engine control will be required when NP1 or 2 decreases below normal demand speed due to a malfunction of the DEC/EDECU.

ENG POWER CONT lever — Pull down and advance full forward while maintaining downward pressure, then adjust to set NR as required.

73
Q

The term EMER APU START is defined as ______________________________________.

  1. __________________.
  2. __________________.
A

APU start to accomplish an emergency procedure.

FUEL PUMP switch — APU BOOST.

APU CONT switch — ON.

74
Q

Single-Engine Failure

WARNING
Do not respond to ENG OUT warning and audio until checking TGT, NG, and NP1 and NP2.

  1. ______________________.
  2. _____________________.

If continued flight is not possible:

  1. ______________________.

If continued flight is possible:

  1. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
A

ESTABLISH SINGLE-ENGINE AIRSPEED.

External cargo/stores — Jettison (if required).

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

75
Q

Dual-Engine Failure

  1. ____________________.
A

Autorotate

76
Q

DEC/EDECU Low Side Failure

  1. _____________________.

If partial powered flight cannot be maintained:

  1. _____________________. Maintain Q approximately 10% below other engine.
  2. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
A

ESTABLISH SINGLE-ENGINE AIRSPEED.

ENG POWER CONT lever (low Q/TGT engine) — LOCKOUT.

77
Q

DEC/EDECU High Side Failure

  1. _______________________.
  2. _______________________. Maintain Q approximately 10% below other engine.
  3. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.

If the affected engine does not respond to ENG POWER CONT lever movement in the range between FLY and IDLE, the HMU may be malfunctioning internally.

If this occurs:

  1. Perform _____________________ (affected engine).
  2. Refer to single-engine failure emergency procedure.
A

ESTABLISH SINGLE-ENGINE AIRSPEED.

ENG POWER CONT lever (high Q/TGT engine) — Retard.

EMER ENG SHUTDOWN

78
Q

Engine Compressor Stall

  1. ________________________.

If the condition persists:

  1. ________________________. (TGT should decrease).
  2. ENG POWER CONT lever (affected engine) — FLY.

If the stall condition recurs:

  1. __________________________ (affected engine).
  2. Refer to single-engine failure emergency procedure.
A

ESTABLISH SINGLE-ENGINE AIRSPEED.

ENG POWER CONT lever (affected engine)—Retard

EMER ENG SHUTDOWN

79
Q

ENG 1 OIL BYPASS or ENG 2 OIL BYPASS Caution Appears.

  1. ________________________.
  2. _________________________ (to reduce pressure).
  3. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE
A

ESTABLISH SINGLE-ENGINE AIRSPEED.

ENG POWER CONT lever (affected engine) — Retard

80
Q

CHIP ENG 1 or CHIP ENG 2, ENG 1 OIL PRESS or ENG 2 OIL PRESS, ENG 1 OIL HOT or ENG 2 OIL HOT Caution Appears.

  1. __________________________.
  2. __________________________ (to reduce torque).

If oil pressure is below minimum limits or I f oil temperature remains above maximum limits:

  1. __________________________ (affected engine).
  2. Refer to single-engine failure emergency procedure.
A

ESTABLISH SINGLE-ENGINE AIRSPEED.

ENG POWER CONT lever (affected engine) — Retard

EMER ENG SHUTDOWN

81
Q

Engine High-Speed Shaft Failure

  1. _________________________.
  2. _________________________ (affected engine).

Do not attempt to restart.

  1. Refer to single-engine failure emergency procedure.
A

ESTABLISH SINGLE-ENGINE AIRSPEED.

EMER ENG SHUTDOWN

82
Q

Lightning Strike

  1. ________________________.
  2. ________________________ (as required to control NP and NR).
  3. ________________________.
A

ESTABLISH SINGLE-ENGINE AIRSPEED.

ENG POWER CONT levers — Adjust

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

83
Q

Loss of Tail Rotor Thrust in Cruise Flight.

  1. ___________________.
  2. ___________________.
A

AUTOROTATE — Maintain airspeed at or above 80 KIAS.

ENG POWER CONT levers — OFF (during deceleration when intended point of landing is assured).

84
Q

Loss of Tail Rotor Thrust or T/R QUAD FAIL Caution Appears with Loss of Control at Low Airspeed/Hover(Right Rotation).

  1. ____________________.
  2. ____________________.
A

Collective — Reduce.

ENG POWER CONT levers — OFF (5 to 10 feet above touchdown).

85
Q

T/R QUAD FAIL Caution Appears in Cruise Flight.

  1. __________________.
  2. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
A

Collective — Adjust to determine controllability (Fixed Right or Left).

86
Q

Loss of Control at Low Airspeed/Hover or T/R QUAD FAIL Caution Appears (Left Rotation).

  1. _______________________.
  2. _______________________.
  3. _______________________.
  4. _______________________.
A

ENG POWER CONT lever(s) — Retard to decrease NR below 100% and begin a partial power descent.

Collective — Adjust to preserve NR.

ENG POWER CONT levers — OFF (5 to 10 feet above touchdown).

Collective — Adjust for landing.

87
Q

Pedal Bind/Restriction or Drive With No Ac-companying Caution.

  1. ______________________.
  2. Check other pedals for proper operation.
  3. TAIL SERVO switch — BACKUP.

If normal control authority is not restored:

  1. TAIL SERVO switch — NORMAL.
  2. SAS/BOOST switch — Off.

If normal control forces are not restored:

  1. SAS/BOOST switch — ON.
  2. Collective — Adjust to determine controllability for landing.
  3. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
A

Apply pedal force to oppose the drive.

88
Q

T/R SERVO 1 FAIL Caution Appears and BACK UP PUMP ON Advisory Does Not Appear or T/R SERVO 2 ON Advisory Does Not Appear.

  1. ___________________.
  2. BACKUP HYD PUMP switch — ON.
  3. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
A

TAIL SERVO switch — BACKUP.

89
Q

MAIN XMSN PRESS Caution Appears/MAIN XMSN OIL HOT Caution Appears.

  1. ______________________.

If time permits:

  1. Slow to 80 KIAS.
  2. ______________________.
  3. GENERATORS NO. 1 and NO. 2 switches — OFF.
A

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

EMER APU START.

90
Q

CHIP L INPUT MDL or CHIP R INPUT MDL Caution Appears.

  1. ________________________.
  2. ________________________.
  3. ________________________.
A

ESTABLISH SINGLE-ENGINE AIRSPEED.

ENG POWER CONT lever (affected engine) — IDLE.

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

91
Q

CHIP MAIN MDL SUMP, CHIP L ACC MDL or CHIP R ACC MDL, CHIP TAIL XMSN, TAIL XMSN OIL HOT, CHIP INT XMSN or INT XMSN OIL HOT Caution Appears.

_________________________.

A

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

92
Q

Main Transmission Failure

  1. ________________________.
  2. ________________________.
A

Collective — Adjust only enough to begin a descent with power remaining applied to the main transmission throughout the descent and landing.

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

93
Q

Engine Fire in Flight

  1. _______________________.
  2. _______________________.
  3. _______________________.
  4. _______________________.
  5. _______________________.
  6. _______________________.
A

ESTABLISH SINGLE-ENGINE AIRSPEED.

ENG POWER CONT lever (affected engine) — OFF.

ENG EMER OFF handle — Pull.

FIRE EXTGH switch — MAIN/RESERVE as required.

FUEL BOOST PUMP switch (affected engine) — OFF (as applicable).

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

94
Q

Engine/Fuselage Fire on Ground

  1. _____________________.
  2. _____________________.
  3. _____________________.
  4. _____________________.
A

ENG POWER CONT levers — OFF.

ENG EMER OFF handle(s) — Pull if applicable.

FIRE EXTGH switch — MAIN/RESERVE as required.

Rotor brake — As required.

95
Q

APU Compartment Fire

  1. _____________________.
  2. _____________________.
A

APU fire T-handle — Pull.

FIRE EXTGH switch — MAIN/RESERVE as required.

96
Q

Electrical Fire in Flight

  1. _______________________.
  2. _______________________.
A

BATT and GENERATORS switches — OFF.

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

97
Q

FUEL 1 BYPASS and FUEL 2 BYPASS Cautions Appear

________________________.

A

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

98
Q

FUEL 1 PRESS LOW or FUEL 2 PRESS LOW Caution Appears

If the caution appears and the situation is critical:

  1. ______________________.
  2. ______________________.
  3. ______________________.
  4. ______________________.
A

ENG FUEL SYS selector on affected engine — XFD.

FUEL BOOST PUMP switch on side being used — ON.

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

EMER ENG SHUTDOWN after landing.

99
Q

FUEL 1 PRESS LOW and FUEL 2 PRESS LOW Cautions Appear.

  1. ______________________.
  2. ______________________.
A

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

EMER ENG SHUTDOWN after landing.

100
Q

GEN 1 FAIL and GEN 2 FAIL (NO. 1 & NO. 2 CONV and AC REF BUS DEGRAD) Cautions Appear

  1. Airspeed — Adjust (80 KIAS or less).
  2. GENERATORS NO. 1 and NO. 2 switches — RESET; then ON.

If electrical power is not restored:

  1. GENERATORS NO. 1 and NO. 2 switches — OFF.
  2. MCUs and ECS — OFF prior to EMER APU START.
  3. _____________________.
  4. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
  5. If APU GEN ON advisory extinguishes, ensure MCUs and ECS — OFF prior to resetting the APU generator.
A

EMER APU START.

101
Q

HYD PUMP 1 FAIL and HYD PUMP 2 FAIL Cautions Appear

_________________________. Restrict control movement to moderate rates.

A

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

102
Q

HYD PUMP 1 FAIL or HYD PUMP 2 FAIL Caution Appears and BACK UP PUMP ON Advisory Does Not Appear.

  1. ______________ to a comfortable airspeed.
  2. ________________________.

If BACK UP PUMP ON advisory appears:

  1. Refer to HYD PUMP 1 FAIL or HYD PUMP 2 FAIL caution appears emergency procedure.

If BACK UP PUMP ON advisory still does not appear:

  1. ________________________.
  2. ________________________.
A

Airspeed — Adjust

BACKUP HYD PUMP switch — ON.

FPS and SAS/BOOST switches — Press off( switch lights off, for HYD PUMP 2 FAIL caution).

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

103
Q

PRI SERVO 1 FAIL or PRI SERVO 2 FAIL Caution Appears

  1. _____________________.
  2. _____________________.
  3. _____________________.
A

SERVO OFF switch — Check centered.

If the caution appears with the SERVO OFF switch centered, move the SERVO OFF switch to turn off the malfunctioning servo.

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

104
Q

RSVR 1 LOW and HYD PUMP 1 Cautions Appear With BACK UP PUMP ON Advisory Appearing

  1. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.

If the BACK UP RSVR LOW caution also appears:

  1. ___________________.
  2. ___________________.
A

SERVO OFF switch — 1ST STG.

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

105
Q

RSVR 2 LOW and HYD PUMP 2 FAIL Cautions Appear With BACK UP PUMP ON Advisory Appearing

  1. AUTO FLIGHT CONTROL panel CPTR 1 and/or CPTR 2 switches (if illuminated) — Press to reset FCC.
  2. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.

If BACK UP RSVR LOW caution also appears:

  1. _____________________.
  2. _____________________.
A

SERVO OFF switch — 2ND STG.

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

106
Q

Collective Boost Servo Hardover/Power Pis-ton Failure

  1. ____________________.
  2. FPS switch — Off.
  3. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
A

SAS/BOOST switch — Off.

107
Q

BOOST SERVO OFF Caution Appears

  1. _____________________.
  2. FPS switch — Off.
  3. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
A

SAS/BOOST switch — Off.

108
Q

Emergency Landing In Wooded Areas — Power Off

  1. ______________. Decelerate helicopter to stop all forward speed at treetop level.
  2. ______________ to maximum before main rotor contacts tree branches.
A

AUTOROTATE.

Collective adjust

109
Q

Ditching — Power Off

  1. _________________.
  2. Cockpit doors jettison and cabin doors open prior to entering water.
  3. Apply full collective to decay rotor rpm as helicopter settles.
  4. Position cyclic in direction of roll.
  5. Exit when main rotor has stopped.
A

AUTOROTATE.

110
Q

Flight Control/Main-Rotor System Malfunctions

If the main rotor system malfunctions:

  1. _____________________.
  2. _____________________.
  3. _____________________.
A

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

EMER ENG(S) SHUTDOWN after landing.

Rotor brake — As required.

111
Q

ROTOR BRAKE ON Advisory Appears in Flight

May indicate rotor brake pressure is applied to the rotor brake.

  1. Rotor brake handle — Check in detent and gage pressure at zero.
  2. Check for secondary indications of brake pad dragging (smoke, smell, noise, etc.).

If secondary indications present:

  1. __________________________.

If no secondary indications present:

  1. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
A

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

112
Q

Stabilator Malfunction — Auto Mode Failure

If an AUTO mode failure occurs:

  1. _____________________ to arrest or prevent nose down pitch rate.
  2. _____________________.

If automatic control is not regained:

  1. Manually slew stabilator — Adjust to 0° for flight above 40 KIAS or full down when airspeed is below 40 KIAS. The preferred method of manually slewing the stabilator up is to use the cyclic mounted stabilator slew-up switch.
  2. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.

If manual control is not possible, the airspeed limit indication will show the adjusted airspeed limit with a red arc.

  1. Airspeed indicator — Check and fly at or below red arc shown on the indicator.
  2. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
A

Cyclic mounted stabilator slew-up switch — Adjust as required

AUTO CONTROL RESET switch — Press ON once after establishing a comfortable airspeed.

113
Q

Uncommanded Nose Down/Up Pitch Attitude Change

If an uncommanded nose down pitch attitude occurs:

  1. _______________________.
  2. _______________________.
  3. _______________________ to arrest nose down pitch rate.
  4. MAN SLEW switch — Adjust to 0° at airspeeds above 40 KIAS and full down at airspeeds below 40 KIAS.
  5. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
A

Cyclic — Adjust as required.

Collective — Maintain or increase.

Cyclic mounted stabilator slew-up switch — Adjust as required

114
Q

Uncommanded Nose Down/Up Pitch Attitude Change

If an uncommanded nose up pitch attitude occurs:

  1. _______________________.
  2. _______________________.
  3. MAN SLEW switch — Adjust to 0° at airspeeds above 40 KIAS and full down at airspeeds below 40 KIAS.
  4. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
A

Cyclic — Adjust as required.

Collective — Reduce as required.

115
Q

STAB UNLOCKED Caution Appears

In flight — _______________________.

A

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

116
Q

Integrated Avionics System Malfunctions

The following component failures will result in — ________________________.

  1. Loss of two data concentrator units.
  2. Loss of four MFDs.
A

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

117
Q

Dual EGI Failure

  1. _____________________.
  2. EGI switches — OFF, then ON. If successful, an EGI in-flight alignment will automatically be done.
  3. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
A

Transition to ESIS display.

118
Q

FLT DIR FAIL, FD COUPLE FAIL Cautions Appear

  1. _______________________.
  2. FAILURE RESET CPTR 1 and/or CPTR 2 — Press to clear flight director cautions.
  3. Check AFCS and FCC status page. Clear BITE codes if necessary.
  4. Reengage affected mode when able.
  5. Fly affected axis manually if not restored.
A

Check FD/DCP to verify which flight director modes are functioning.

60's (12 decks)

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