DQ's Flashcards
The 701D engine on the UH-60M has the DECs or EDECUs that replace the ECUs found in the UH-60A. The DECs or EDECUs improve transient droop compensation how? Explain how and when the DEC limits TGT.
Compensates droop during some maneuvers by monitoring engine torque, collective rate of change, and NR rate of change.
The temperature limiting system limits fuel flow when the TGT reaches the dual engine 10 minute limiting value of approximately 879°C. The automatic contingency power limiting will switch to a higher single-engine 2½ minute temperature limiting value of approximately 903°C when the opposite Q is less than 50%.
*** The DEC commands the HMU to limit fuel when TGT reaches its limiting value.
Dual engine TGT 879 +/- 9
Contingency TGT 903 +/- 10
Explain when the EDECU limits TGT.
When the EDECU senses excessive rotor/NP droop. On engines with the EDECU installed, the TGT will bypass the 10 minute limiter and limit at the 2.5 minute contingency power setting when any of the following conditions are met: NP drops below 96%; greater than 3% droop between reference NP and actual NP; greater than 5% per second NP droop rate exists and NP less than or equal to NP reference speed. Unlike the DEC, the EDECU is not dependent on the other engine’s Q being less than 50%.
*** Dual engine TGT 879 +/- 9
Contingency TGT 903 +/- 10
What are DEC/EDECU fault codes? How are DEC/EDECU fault codes displayed?
If a failure occurred on a selected input signal, the failed component or related circuit will be identified by a pre-selected fault code displayed as a Q value. These are also displayed on the FMS DEC status page. They are displayed for 4seconds on, 2 seconds off, starting with the lowest code and rotating through all applicable codes, then repeating the cycle. They will only be displayed 30 seconds after both engines are shutdown with AC power applied.
Discuss the controls and functions of the digital ICS Panel.
a. ICS-
b. VOX-
c. HOT MIC-
d. CALL-
e. RMT-
f. BU-
g. ICU status light-
a. ICS- Default mode enabled after initialization of the ICS is complete.
b. VOX- Provides for hands-off and foot-off voice activated keying.
c. HOT MIC- Provides for constant keying of the ICS interphone or PVT interphone.
d. CALL- Overrides all other interphone communications at all operator stations, except for warnings and alerts.
e. RMT- Enables RAD SEL switch on th collective sticks for radio and selections.
f. BU- Provides both pilots the capability to bypass the ICS digital bus and function in a degraded analog mode. In BU mode only, the pilot can hear incoming transmissions over the COM 2 radio; the copilot can hear incoming transmissions over the COM 3 radio.
g. ICU status light- Illumination indicates that the digital link between that ICS panel and the ICU has been broken.
The ICS panel on the UH-60M features a VOX feature, what are the procedures for adjusting the VOX sensitivity?
If VOX sensitivity control is desired, press the VOX mode pushbutton for 2 seconds; VOX light flashes; adjust VOX sensitivity with the MVOL control as desired. After three seconds of no adjustments on the MVOL control, the VOX indicator will stop flashing and returns to the default setting.
What is the CAUTION associated with inserting the PCMCIA cards into the DTS?
Do not force PCMCIA cards into the DTS slot. Damage to the Data Transfer Unit (DTU) or PCMCIA card may occur. PCMCIA cards can only be inserted into the DTU with the INSERT → label facing aft.
Identify the following Master Warning Panel warnings and what causes each to appear? What is the CAUTION with warning panel A?
a – master caution – when any caution appears
b/c – engine 1 & 2 out – ng below 55%
d – fire – when fire detectors are activated
e – low rotor – nr below 96%
CAUTION
When pressing the MASTER CAUTION PRESS TO RESET switch, do not press the #1 ENG OUT, #2 ENG OUT, FIRE, or LOW ROTOR R.P.M segment lights. If these segment lights are pressed, the light will be displace outward approximately ⅛ inch to facilitate removal for maintenance. In this condition the light will not illuminate and the crew will miss thewarning. If the segment light is accidentally pressed, it should be pulled out approximately ¼ inch, then pushed back into its original position. A click will be felt when the light is properly reinstalled.
If you experience IIMC are you required to inform the commander?
24 hours - AR 95-1
***Yes, Asap -SOP
Only if it violates FAA, host country, or ICAO regulations.
When are operator and crew member checklists required to be used? When may they not be used? Within the UH-60M -10, what do the words shall, should and may indicate?
Operator and crewmember checklists will be used for preflight through before leaving aircraft checks.
While airborne, when time does not permit the utilization of the checklist or when its use would cause a safety hazard, required checks may be accomplished from memory.
Shall = Mandatory requirement Should = Nonmandatory but preferred method of accomplishment May = an acceptable method of accomplishment
In the event of an electrical failure, the ENG A/I start/bleed valves are going to revert to the ______ mode. How much Q will be lost from MTA and what advisory activates?
The engine anti-ice/deice system is designed so that in the event of an electrical failure the valve reverts to the anti-icing mode and activates the ENG 1 ANTI-ICE ON or ENG 2 ANTI-ICE ON advisory.
20% Q is lossed
Operating an engine against the _____ _____ is prohibited on rotor brake equipped helicopters. When using the rotor brake before starting engines, the minimum pressure will be 450 psi. If inadvertent rotor blade movement should occur due to rotor brake slippage, immediately_________ _________ engine(s) or _______ _______ _______. During engine run-up, for rotor brake operations, ensure that approximately 45% NR for single engine operations and 57% NR for dual engine is reached prior to advancing PCLs to fly.
Gust lock
(ch 5)
Shut down
Release rotor broke
(Ch 8)
Discuss the safety devices, limitations, and emergency procedures for the rotor brake.
The Interlock prevents moving EPCL(s) past idle when engaged unless Tab is manually pulled.
Manual safety lockpin to prevent accidental release and electronic protection to prevent EPCLs to fly with the rotor brake applied,
Limits – for start – min-450, max-690; emergency stop 76% nr; normal stop 40% nr, 150-180 psi, stoppage in no less than 12 sec no more than 18 sec, Single and dual engine starts and operation at IDLE with rotor brake on are not time limited.
rotor brake advisory appears in flight.
If secondary indications of brake wear are present – land as soon as possible
Where are the cold start capsule lights located? What indications do they provide?
on the upper console
Emer Cargo Release test light, Batt Good, Batt Low, APU ON, ACC LOW, (apu) OIL HOT, APU FAIL
*provide status indicators and caution lights for the emergency cargo release, battery, APU and APU oil temperature, and accumulator
Figure 2-71
How long must a CAUTION be displayed before the pilot is able to acknowledge the caution?
for at least two seconds to transition to an acknowledged status.
What are the three annunciators on the top of the FMS and what do they indicate?
STS-indicates change in system status
FMS-indicates a BIT failure within the FMS
MSG-active, reserved for future use
(Illuminates during FMS display test, not currently used for any other function.)
How is the EMER SE-IAS (Item 15) derived from the PPC? When do I have to use this EMER SE-IAS and must I have one or two EMER SE-IAS’s?
Selected from the MIN/MAX-IAS (single engine) range computed in item 29. It is used immediately following an EP that requires Establishing S-E A/S. Normally only one is selected but two may be selected when item 29 is a wide range. 1-Slow and 1-Fast based on mission profile.
*** Note. The EMER SE-IAS is the emergency single-engine indicated airspeed (IAS) based on the mission and briefed to the crew for the purpose of crew coordination. This airspeed is selected from the MIN/MAX-IAS (SINGLE ENGINE) range computed in item 29, CRUISE data, and is used immediately following an emergency that requires adjustment to single-engine airspeed. When an aircraft does not have single-engine capability, the MAX ENDURANCE-IAS (DUAL ENGINE), item 24, or the OPTIMUM IAS AT MAX ALLOWABLE GWT (SINGLE ENGINE), item 34, as appropriate should be briefed as the emergency single-engine airspeed.
Note. Normally only one EMER SE-IAS is selected. However, when the MIN/MAX-IAS (SINGLE ENGINE) range, item 29, is wide, the crew may select two emergency single-engine airspeeds, one slow and one fast based on mission profile, modes of flight, environmental conditions or other factors.
What is “blowback” and what pilot action is required to compensate for it?
More lift is produced by the right side of the rotor disk due to the dissymmetry of lift, manifests itself 90 degrees because of gyroscopic procession causes the front of the rotor to lift
the aviator must continually move the cyclic forward as velocity of the helicopter increases.
Each DCU accepts _______, _______ and ____________ inputs and sends them to the MFDs. The DCUs also generate a __________ caution which indicates certain engine or transmission parameters have exceeded the normal operating ranges.
engine
powertrain
caution/advisory
CHECK EICAS
The first FMS to complete the BIT becomes the ______ _______, while the other becomes the back-up bus controller or _______ _______.
bus controller
remote terminal
Engine overspeed protection protects the power turbine from destructive overspeeds. The system is set to trigger at __________ NP1 or NP2 and will result in a fuel shut off causing the engine to ___________. When NP1 or NP2 is reduced below the overspeed limit, fuel flow is returned to the engine and engine ignition will come on to provide a ____________.
120% ±1%
flame out
relight
What are the WARNING’S and CAUTION associated when operating an engine in DEC/EDECU lockout?
WARNING
Going to DEC/EDECU LOCKOUT to obtain additional power does not remove Maximum Fuel Flow or NG limits. NR will decrease below normal operating range if Maximum Fuel Flow or NG limits are exceeded.
CAUTION
When engine is controlled with ENG POWER CONT lever in LOCKOUT, engine response is much faster and TGT limiting system is inoperative. Care must be taken not to exceed TGT limits and keeping NR and NP1 and 2 in operating range.
When the HUMS-E switch is pressed, what information is recorded and for how long?
The information is recorded 15 seconds prior to and 15 seconds after the button is pressed and HUMS-E REC is illuminated only when the IVHMU is recording. The information recorded is 30 seconds of aircraft flight (parameter) data, 30 seconds of cockpit audio, and 5 seconds of rotor track and balance data.
***Up to five intermittent events can be recorded per rotor start/stop interval. It takes up to 5.5 minutes to complete the procession of the event; while processing the data, IVHMS will not be available for subsequent captures.
Define Effective Translational Lift.
ETL occurs between 16-24 Knots, when the rotor completely outruns the recirculation of old vortexes and begins to work in relatively undisturbed air. The increased efficiency continues with A/S increase until reaching Best Rate of Climb A/S and total drag is at it’s lowest point.
***occurs with the helicopter at about 16 to 24 knots, when the rotor—depending on size, blade area, and RPM of the rotor system—completely outruns the recirculation of old vortexes and begins to work in relatively undisturbed air. The rotor no longer pumps the air in a circular pattern but continually flies into undisturbed air. The flow of air through the rotor system is more horizontal, therefore induced flow and induced drag are reduced. The AOA is subsequently increased, which makes the rotor system operate more efficiently. This increased efficiency continues with increased airspeed until the best climb airspeed is reached, when total drag is at its’ lowest point. Greater airspeeds result in lower efficiency due to increased parasite drag.
During a hover, for low wind conditions aircraft should be headed into wind. ________ crosswind or tailwind may increase torque required by up to _____ over zero wind values.
3-5 knot
4%
(note on hover chart)
Under what conditions is it considered normal to hover with the transmission oil temperature in the yellow precautionary range?
Prolonged hovering flight in temperatures above 35°C (95°F) at higher gross weight may cause transmission oil temperature to rise into the yellow precautionary range.
What is the CAUTION about the antennas when performing pre-flight of the cabin top of the helicopter?
CAUTION
The SATCOM and COM3 antennas are a trip hazard. Care must be taken while accessing the APU compartment not to trip on or damage these antennas.
What is the CAUTION associated with the UES during the NOSE SECTION check on preflight?
CAUTION
Ensure no heat damage (blistering, charring or disbanding) to main rotor blades with UES installed.
BAROMETRIC ALTITUDE PRE- SELECT (ALTP) Hold Mode will capture when the helicopter is within _______ feet of the pre-selected altitude. When the helicopter reaches the selected altitude the FD will ______ the ALT mode and ALTP will _______.
300
engage
disengage
Discuss all the ways the pilot can adjust the Barometric Altitude Hold once it has been engaged.
Using the P-sync knob, or using the collective trim beeper. Rate of 4 fps for the first 4 seconds. After 5 seconds, the altitude will change at a rate of 16 fps. Holding it greater than 5 seconds results in approximately a 1000 fpm change to the reference ALT.
Identify the following cyclic stick switches:
A- Slew-up Switch B- ICS/Radio Switch C- Trim Release Button D- Remote Standby Switch E- Trim Switch F- Go Around Switch G- Weapons Fire Switch H- C/F Dispenser Switch I- Cargo Release Switch J- Vox-Caut Switch
Identify the following collective stick switches:
A- Search Light Control B- HUD Control C- Cargo Hook Emer Release D- Landing Light Switch E- Cursor Slew Control F- Radio Select button G- Trim Release Control H- AFCS Trim
Helicopter SVFR minima is ____ visibility and ___________ unless a higher minimum is required at the airfield.
½ mile
clear of clouds
While in cruise flight at 100 KIAS and 46% torque, you notice ice starting to form on the aircraft. As the ice builds more torque is required to maintain level flight. What actions are required if the torque required to maintain level flight increases to 66% or more? What does this indicate may no longer be possible?
If icing conditions are encountered, turn on all anti-icing equipment immediately. If torque required increases 20% above that required for level flight at the airspeed being maintained before entering icing, exit the icing environment or land as soon as possible. A 20% torque increase indicates that normal auto rotational NR may not be possible, should dual-engine failure occur.
On the PFD how does the pilot determine whether the wind values are current or remembered, and what is the wind direction? At what calculated wind speed is the wind speed and direction remembered?
Wind symbology will be white when current, yellow with an R when remembered; wind direction is shown relative to the current helicopter heading; wind speed is shown above 4 knots
***Remembered wind is displayed with an R to the right of the windspeed. The wind symbology is white when the current wind information is displayed and yellow when the remembered wind is displayed. The wind arrow rotates to show the wind direction relative to the current helicopter heading. Wind direction is consistent with the magnetic/true reference selected. The windspeed is shown in knots.
During startup and run-up, the Active Vibration Control System is found to be inoperative. Can the aircrew take-off and begin flying?
No, per AWR 1726 an operational AVCS is required for day, night, NVD and IMC flights. (AWR pg 32)
What is the NOTE in UH-60 ATM Module 8 regarding the digitization of the cockpit?
(NOTE)
Digitization of the crew compartments has expanded and redefined the lines of responsibility for each crewmember. The enhanced ability for either PI to perform most aircraft/system functions from their crew station breaks down the standard delineation of duties and has added capabilities and potential distractions, in training and in combat. This could mean that during an unforeseen event, one PI may attempt to resolve the situation rather than seeking assistance from or even communicating that action with the other crewmember. It is essential for the PC to brief specific duties prior to stepping into the aircraft. Effective sharing of tasks relies on good crew coordination and information management.
With engine bleed air on, the available torque per engine is reduced as follows: The engine anti-ice on ______ . Cockpit/gunner heater on: Reduce torque available by _____ Anti-ice and cockpit/gunner heater on: Reduce maximum torque available by _____
20%
5%
25%
The engine anti-ice will increase dual engine fuel flow ______ . Cockpit and gunner heat will increase fuel flow ______. With anti-ice and cockpit/gunner heat on fuel flow will increase ______.
100 lbs/hr
20 lbs/hr
120 lbs/hr
Increased rotor efficiency IGE is caused by what two factors?
Reduced induced flow (allows for a small angle of incidence) and smaller wing tip vortexes
***induced flow reduced. This increase in AOA requires a reduced blade pitch angle. This reduces the power required to hover IGE.
Reduced rotor-tip vortexes
Aerodynamic of the airfoil
A-Chord line
B-Rotational relative wind
C-Angle of incidence
D-Resultant relative wind
E-Angle of attack
F-Lift
G-Drag
H-Center of pressure
I-Total aerodynamic force
Describe the two-challenge rule using UH-60 ATM.
The two-challenge rule allows one crewmember to assume the duties of another crewmember who fails to respond to two consecutive challenges automatically.
While starting the aircraft for a DAY VFR flight it is discovered that the #4 MFD will only display the PFD and Engine Instrument Caution Advisory System (EICAS) pages and the #2 MFD is inoperative. Is it still legal to fly the aircraft?
Yes according to AWR 1726 R26
***A Multifunction Display (MFD) is considered operational if the Primary Flight Display (PFD) and Engine Instrument Caution Advisory System (EICAS) pages can be displayed and provide the required information. The ability to select the desired bezel functions on the MFD with the Multi-Function Slew controller (MFSU) or Collective Slew Control is an acceptable method to control the desired function when individual buttons on the MFD are bruised or inoperative.
MFD’s in position 1, 3, and 4 must be operational. An inoperative outboard MFD will result in loss of the barometric altimeter information on the inboard MFD. The #3 MFD is the only MFD position powered by DC Essential power and must be operational should an electrical failure occur.
What is the purpose of the Main Rotor Head Lead Stop installed on the forward edge of each elastomeric bearing endplate?
Each spindle has attached lead lag stops which prevent damage to the spindles during rotor brake operation (when installed)
The Active Vibration Control System (AVCS) uses force generators to counterbalance airframe vibration. This is accomplished by mechanically generating additional airframe vibratory loads out-of-phase with the main rotor induced 4 per rev vibrations such that the resulting cockpit/cabin vibration is reduced. The AVCS maintains consistent vibration performance with varying rotor speeds from ________ through ________. An ____________advisory will appear when the system is not operating.
90%
105%
AVCS INOP
Aside from hover hold, radar altitude hold and go-around mode, below what airspeed will the flight director become unusable?
Airspeed below 48 knots.
What are the ground and flight indications for a Load Demand System Malfunction?
On ground:
ENG POWER CONT in IDLE - NG 3 to 4% higher than normal.
ENG POWER CONT to FLY - Torque split (Single malfunction).
In flight:
Initial takeoff (during collective pull) - Increased torque split (Single malfunction).
Low power descent. (Lowering collective to minimum). - Rapid NP and NR rise.
(Emergency Procedure)
If a load demand system malfunction is detected/suspected, perform the following:
On ground:
Shut down and consult maintenance.
In flight:
- LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
- Perform a normal approach, avoiding low power autorotative descents.
Explain Collective/Airspeed to Yaw (Electronic Coupling).
Compensates for the torque effect caused by changes in collective position. It decreases tail rotor pitch as airspeed increases and the tail rotor and cambered fin become more efficient.
a) The #2 Flight Control Computer commands the yaw trim actuator to change tail rotor pitch as collective position changes.
b) The amount of tail rotor pitch change is proportional to airspeed. Maximum mixing occurs from 0 to 40 knots. The amount of mixing decreases until 100 knots, after which no mixing occurs.
Two aircraft of the same category are converging at ACP Nolin, according to FAR 91.113, whom has the right of way? What if they were head-on?
When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft to the other’s right has the right-of-way.
When aircraft are approaching each other head- on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right
What is meant by the term “Cross-country flight?”
A flight extending beyond the local flying area or within the local flying area which is planned to terminate at a place other than the location of origin.
Reference the Radar Altimeter, The dial and pointer will be displayed up to a value of _______feet. At values beyond _________, the dial and pointer will be removed. Radar altitude digital readout values will remain but only up to an upper limit of 1500 feet. The readouts are removed above _______feet and return below ________feet.
1050
1050
1500
1450
Discuss the purpose, functions, and capabilities of the Multifunction Slew Controller.
The multifunction slew control located on the lower console (Figures 2-7 and 2-42) consists of three push buttons and a thumb operated slew controller. It provides control of the MFD cursor and provides cursor activation, menu navigation and selection. The controls and functions are: Slew controller (controls cursor), Select control, Menu Control and Mode Control
Discuss the three cursor modes of the Digital Map System?
- Free- The cursor can be moved anywhere on the display via the active slew button
- Bezel- The bezel cursor symbol travels around the bezel keys based on directional inputs.
- Menu- allows selection of menu items by means of a captive cursor control. The cursor automatically switches to menu cursor mode upon activation of a menu.
During single engine ground operation with the collective full down NP/NR may indicate _____, even when the engine speed trim is increased to the maximum setting. This is a __________ characteristic, and may be observed more frequently during hot weather. Raising the collective slightly (approximately 1⁄2 inch) will bring the NP/NR to 100%.
99%
Normal
What are your VFR weather minimums for Class G Airspace Day and Night below 1200’ AGL?
Day: 1/2 mile clear of clouds.
Night: 1 mile clear of clouds.
Define Dynamic Rollover and the conditions required for it to occur?
A helicopter is susceptible to a lateral-rolling tendency called dynamic rollover. Dynamic rollover can occur on level ground as well as during a slope or crosswind landing and takeoff. Three conditions are required for dynamic rollover— pivot point, rolling motion, and exceed critical angle.
What is the Note associated with Slope Landing Limitations?
Because of the flat profile of the main transmission and forward location of both transmission oil pumps, transmission oil pressure will drop during nose-up slope operations. At slope angle of 10°, an indicated oil pressure of 30 to 35 psi is normal; and at a 15° slope angle, a pressure in the range of 10 to 15 psi is normal due to pitching of the helicopter.
According to Chapter 8 of TM 1-1520-280-10, when should a roll-on landing be used?
A roll-on landing may be used when the helicopter will not sustain a hover; to avoid hovering in snow or dust; if tail rotor control is lost; or when operating with one heavy external tank.
Under what conditions will NG and TGT appear on the power pod display of the MFD?
NG:
- Either engine NG exceeds 100%.
- The difference between NG1 and NG2 exceeds 5%.
- Either engine is out (indication of en-gine out comes from the DCU).
TGT:
- Either engine TGT exceeds the continuous limit of 793°C.
- The difference between TGT1 and TGT2 exceeds 75°C.
- Either engine is out (indication of engine out comes from the DCU).
The active cursor display can be switched between the onside MFDs using the _____________ icon?
screen jump
displayed as a white arrowhead pointing toward the MFD that will become active.
Discuss the heading hold functions in FPS above and below 50 knots.
The yaw axis of the FPS provides heading hold at airspeeds less than 50 knots and heading hold or turn coordination at airspeeds greater than 50 knots. For heading hold operation at airspeeds less than 50 knots, the helicopter is maneuvered to the desired heading with feet on pedals. When trimmed at the desired heading, the pilot may remove feet from pedals, at which time the existing heading becomes the reference, which is automatically held. To change heading, the pilot may activate one or both pedal switches, trim to the desired heading and remove feet from pedals. Alternatively, below 50 KIAS the four-way collective trim beeper may be used to slew the aircraft to the desired heading.
At airspeeds greater than 50 knots, heading hold will be automatically disengaged and coordinated turn engaged under these conditions:
(a) TRIM switches actuated in the lateral direction.
(b) TRIM REL switch is pressed and roll attitude is greater the 2.5°.
(c) Approximately ½ inch cyclic displacement and a roll attitude of approximately 1.0°.
(d) Heading hold is automatically reengaged and turn coordination is disengaged upon recovery from the turn when the lateral stick force, roll attitude, and yaw rate are within prescribed limits.
(e) Alternatively, when HDG is not engaged with a coupled FD, the collective trim beeper may be used to establish a standard rate turn.
(4) To make a coordinated turn, the pilot enters a turn under one of these conditions:
(a) Changing reference roll attitude by pressing the TRIM switch in the desired lateral direction.
(b) Pressing the TRIM REL switch and establishing the desired bank angle with feet off the pedal switches.
(c) Exerting a lateral force on the cyclic to achieve the desired bank angle, and then neutralizing the force with the TRIM switch.
(d) Keeping a lateral force on the cyclic for the duration of the turn.
Why should the windshield wipers not be operated on a dry windshield? Why should the wipers be parked if they slow noticeably?
(CAUTION) ch 2
To prevent possible damage to windshield surface, do not operate windshield wipers on a dry windshield.
(CAUTION) ch 8
At airspeeds greater than 120 KIAS or during periods of reduced rain intensity the windshield wipers may slow noticeably. If this occurs, wipers must be parked immediately to avoid wiper motor failure.
What conditions must exist simultaneously for settling with power to occur?
Vertical or near-vertical descent or atleast 300 FPM.
Slow forward Airspeed (less than ETL)
20 to 100% power is being used with insufficient power remaining to arrest the descent.
In the event of a dual engine fire, if both Engine Fire T-handles are pulled and then the fire extinguisher activated, which engine compartment will the extinguisher discharge into? What is the WARNING associated with fire protection systems?
The contents of the fire extinguisher container discharge into the compartment of the last lever pulled.
(WARNING)
In case of fire when ac electrical power is not applied to the helicopter, the reserve fire extinguisher must be discharged. Fire extinguisher agent cannot be discharged into No. 2 engine compartment if ac electrical power is not applied to helicopter.
What is the recommended airspeed for Autorotation in a UH-60? Below what airspeed during an autorotation will the rate of descent increase while the glide distance decreases? What should be considered when discussing pitch attitudes of the helicopter during deceleration?
The recommended airspeed for autorotation is 80 KIAS. Autorotation below 80 knots is not recommended because the deceleration does not effectively arrest the rate of descent. Adjusting the cyclic and collective control to maintain 100% NR and 110 KIAS (100 KIAS high drag) will result in achieving the maximum glide distance. A landing area must be selected immediately after both engines fail. As airspeed decreases below 64 KIAS, the rate of descent will increase and glide distance will decrease.
Pitch attitudes up to 25° at the point of touchdown normally result in an adequate deceleration and safe landing. Withpitch attitude beyond 25° there is the possibility of ground contact with the stabilator trailing edge.
Explain why the aircraft hangs slightly left wheel low at a hover. What component on the aircraft corrects this aerodynamic phenomena?
When the rotor disk is tilted left to counteract the translating tendency, the fuselage follows the main rotor mast and hangs slightly low on the left side.
Due to the MMU compensating for translating tendency.
*** Collective to Roll - Compensates for the rolling moments and translating tendency caused by changes in tail rotor thrust. The mixing unit provides left lateral input to the main rotor system as collective is increased and right lateral input as collective is de-creased.
What indications cause the illumination of the CHECK EICAS caution?
Indicates engine oil temperature, engine oil pressure, main transmission oil temperature, and main transmission oil pressure are not within their normal range.
What is a FMS message alert? How would you check the FMS status alert “Check IVHMS”?
The FMS displays the message alert MSG in yellow on the pilots’ MFDs, prompting the pilot to look at the FMS when a message requiring pilot attention is activated. Once activated by the FMS, MSG flashes for the first five seconds it is displayed, then remains displayed until the pilot has read and cleared the message on the FMS.
To Check on IVHMS = Main (T1), EXCD (R2), WARNING/CAUTION/ADVISORY HISTORY (L4)
During startup, you experience an ENG 1 OIL BYPASS. What does this indicate and is this a normal indication?
It is normal for the ENG OIL BYPASS caution to appear when starting an engine with oil temperatures below normal because of high oil viscosity and the accumulation of oil filter contaminants. When the engine oil temperature reaches about 38°C (100°F) during warm-up, the caution should disappear.
During shutdown, the droops fail to return to the static position during rotor coast down. What are your actions? Additionally, how low will the blade/blades droop in feet from the ground?
If one or more droop stops do not go in during rotor shutdown, shut down an engine to lower rotor idling NR in an attempt to seat the droop stops. If droop stops still do not go in, accelerate rotor to above 75% NR. Repeat rotor shut-down procedures slightly displacing cyclic in an attempt to dislodge jammed droop stop. If droop stops still do not go in, make certain that rotor disc area is clear of personnel and proceed with normal shutdown procedures while keeping cyclic in neutral position.
When the droop stops do not return to the static position, the main rotor blades may droop to within 4 feet of the ground during shutdown.
When does the fuel indication on the Power Pod turn yellow? When does the FUEL 1 or FUEL 2 LOW caution illuminate?
On the power pod FUEL display, the pointers turn yellow if a main tank level falls below the low fuel caution level (200 lbs).
These cautions appear when the fuel level decreases to approximately 172 pounds in each tank.
You are planning a VFR flight to a Class D airport. Predominant weather at your ETA is 1SM visibility and 500 ft. ceilings. Assuming no local restrictions, can you legally file VFR to this airfield?
Yes, Aviators may file flight plans to a destination within Class B, C, D, and E surface area airspace when weather conditions are forecast to be equal to or greater than known special visual flight rules (SVFR) minima for that airspace at ETA through one hour after ETA.
List the additional components on the UH-60M that have been incorporated for transient droop response. Where are these items located?
- NR Sensor mounted on the left Accessory Module.
- Collective Position Transducer mounted with two previous transducers on a modified bracket assembly in the MMU.
- Engine torque signal.
Torque Signal from the engine. (Flightline Supp. page 13)
Collective position transducer located on the MMU. (TM Para. 2.25.1 a)
Rotor speed (NR) sensor mounted on the left accessory module. (TM Para. 2.41.2)
The DEC accepts the following inputs: alternator, thermocouple harness, NP sensor, torque and overspeed sensors, NR sensor, and collective position transducer for improved transient droop response, torque signal from the opposite engine for load sharing, feedback signals from the HMU for response and torque system stabilization and the ENG SPD TRIM switch for NP1 and NP2 demand speed reference.
As an instrument rated pilot flying an instrument certified aircraft, when are you NOT required to file an IFR flight plan?
(a) Flight is primarily for VFR training.
(b) Time will not permit mission completion under IFR.
(c) Mission can only be accomplished under VFR.
(d) Excessive ATC departure, en route, or terminal area delays are encountered.
(e) Hazardous weather conditions must be avoided.
*** (f) Aircraft is being flown single pilot. (Not in 95 - 1)
IAW Current AWR 1726, what is the NOTE for the weight and balance considerations associated with the UH-60M with only two pilots and no passengers or cargo onboard the aircraft? How does this correlate to AR 95-1 and the responsibilities of the Pilot in Command (PC)?
The UH/HH-60M is capable of exceeding the aft center of gravity limit of 365 inches (arm), particularly when operating in the two pilot configuration without crew chiefs and/or passengers/cargo.
The Pilot in Command (PC) shall verify Center of Gravity (CG) and Gross Weight (GWT) within aircraft limits for the duration of the flight and identify all mission or flight limitations imposed by weight or CG.
The Stormscope WX-500 is a weather mapping system displayed on the MFDs, for _______________ severe weather, not for _______________ it. The weather mapping sensor detects electrical discharges associated with thunderstorms within a ______ nautical mile radius of the helicopter. What are the stormscope strike and cell symbols? The stormscope ENBL/DSBL display indicates the __________ stormscope state ENBL or DSBL.
avoiding
penetrating
200
current
- Strike symbol: ×
- Cell symbol: +
The cell and strike symbols are the same size and both are white.
What type of controlled airspace is Lowe Army Airfield located in and what are the cloud clearance and visibility requirements for operating in this airspace?
Class D, 500 below, 1,000 above, and 2,000 horizontal
***3 SM
What is considered “established two-way radio communication”?
When the controller has responded to the A/C using the Aircraft callsign.
What are Basic Weight and Operating Weight?
Basic weight of an aircraft is weight including all hydraulic and oil systems full, trapped and unusable fuel, and all fixed equipment. From basic weight total, it is only necessary to add crew, fuel, cargo, and ammunition (if carried) when determining the aircraft’s gross weight. Basic weight varies with structural modifications and changes of fixed aircraft equipment.
Operating weight includes basic weight plus aircrew, aircrew’s baggage, emergency gear, and other equipment required. Operating weight does not include weight of fuel, ammunition, bombs, cargo, or external auxiliary fuel tanks if such tanks are to be disposed of during flight.
What is the CAUTION associated with the BINGO screen, and how does Empty Weight correlate to Basic Weight?
(CAUTION)
The bingo fuel calculator contains default crew weight values. Crew weight must be manually entered for each flight. Aircraft empty weight shall be equal to operating weight minus crew weight, as found on the aircraft Form F. Crew weight shall be equal to the actual weight of the crew.
Empty- it is the basic weight without fluids, aircrew, aircrew baggage, emergency gear.
*** Empty weight is used for design purposes and usually does not affect service activities. Empty weight includes aircraft structure weight plus–communications, control, electrical, hydraulic, instrument, and power plant systems; furnishings; anti-icing equipment; auxiliary power plant; flotation landing gear; and armament, anchor, and towing provisions.
How does the FMS calculate wind speed and direction?
The wind direction and speed are calculated by the FMS by comparing IAS to GS and helicopter heading to ground track.
Define total aerodynamic force (TAF).
TAF is the result or lift and drag and acts at the center of pressure
As air flows around an airfoil, a pressure differential develops between the upper and lower surfaces. The differential, combined with air resistance to passage of the airfoil, creates a force on the airfoil. This is known as TAF (figure 1-39). TAF acts at the center of pressure on the airfoil and is normally inclined up and rear. TAF, sometimes called resultant force, may be divided into two components, lift and drag.
During all fixed pitch situations the nose of the aircraft will turn (left/right) when power or airspeed is increased or decreased?
In all fixed pitch situations the nose of the helicopter will turn to the right when power or airspeed is increased and turn to the left when collective or airspeed is decreased.
Hearing protection devices are required to be worn when? What type(s) are required to be worn in or around an operating UH-60?
Hearing protection devices, such as the aviator helmet or ear plugs are required to be worn by all personnel in and around the helicopter during its operation.
Operations in UH-60 and CH-47 aircraft require both helmet and earplug use to attenuate noise and prevent hearing loss.
When exceeded, what hydraulic pump temperature requires an entry on DA Form 2408-13-1?
When the temperature label indicates that a temperature of 132°C (270°F) has been exceeded, an entry shall be made on DA FORM 2408-13-1.
IAW the Current AWR 1726, how do we have to power on both the inboard MFD’s and why?
Both inboard MFDs shall be powered on within five seconds of each other to ensure that JVMF messages are properly displayed.
***If either inboard MFD is power cycled, both inboard MFDs shall be powered off for five seconds and turned on within five seconds of each other.
In most cases, how long should you take retarding a power control lever when performing engine shutdown in flight?
If the decision is made to shut down an engine, take at least five full seconds while retarding the ENG POWER CONT lever from FLY to IDLE, monitoring Q, NG, TGT, NP, and ENG OUT warning light on.
What are the CAUTION’S associated with ground taxi and how do we perform ground taxi?
(CAUTION)
When performing these maneuvers, cyclic inputs should be minimized to prevent droop stop pounding.
(CAUTION)
Landing and searchlight have less than one foot ground clearance when extended. Use caution when taxiing over rough terrain when landing light and/or searchlight are extended.
(How to)
Increase collective and place cyclic forward of neutral to start forward movement. Minimize forward cyclic movement to prevent droop stop pounding. Reduce collective to minimum required to maintain forward movement. Soft or rough terrain may require additional collective pitch. The use of excessive collective pitch during taxi, especially at light gross weights, can cause the tail wheel to bounce. Regulate taxi speed with cyclic and collective and control heading with pedals. Use brakes as required.
The stabilator is programmed to perform what five functions?
- Streamlines w/ rotor downwash at low speed (below 30 knots) to min. nose up attitude from downwash. (ADC, FCC)
- Collective Coupling to min. pitch attitude excursions due to collective inputs. (Collective Position Transducers) begins @ 30knots
- Angle of Incidence decreases above 30 knots for improved static stability. (ADC, FCC)
- Lateral Sideslip to pitch coupling to reduce susceptibility to gusts. Stab up for right pedal, stab down for left pedal. (Lateral accelerometers)
- Pitch Rate Feedback to improve dynamic stability. Dampen pitch excursions due to turbulence or “G” forces. (EGI, FCC)
What is the most expedient way to copy map files (such as updating maps) to the DTS, if it already has a large number of map files loaded on it?
When intending to copy a large number of map files to the DTS, when the DTS already has a large number of map files loaded on it, the process is much faster if the operator zeroizes the DTS CACHE using the FMS before inserting the PC Cards used for the copy process, (ZRO/ZEROIZE DTS page and then press the CACHE bezel to erase all the files in the DTS CACHE).
***Copying the maximum 2G of files to the DTS when the drive is emptytakes approximately 40minutes.
In reference to confined area considerations for TASK 1058- Perform Visual Meteorological Conditions Approach, when should the go-around be initiated (if possible) during an approach to a confined area?
If possible, make the decision to go-around before descending below the barriers or going below ETL. After touchdown, check aircraft stability as the collective is lowered.
The AFCS provides what two types of control and explain each?
The inner-loop (SAS) employs rate damping to improve helicopter stability. This system is fast in response, limited in authority, and operates without causing movement of the flight controls.
The outer-loop (Trim) provides long-term inputs by trimming the flight controls to the position required to maintain the selected flight attitude. It is capable of driving the flight controls throughout their full range of travel (100% authority) at a limited rate of 10% per second.
Both inner and outer loops allow for complete pilot override through the normal use of the flight controls.
What is the maximum weight that can be supported by the servicing platform on the engine cowling?
250 pounds
While preparing for a mission you discover that the cockpit voice recorder is inoperative. Can you still take the aircraft?
A nonoperational FDR or IVHMS should not result in mission cancellation. Inoperative IVHMS will affect CBM data collection.
List and define the three no-lift areas on the rotor system.
Reverse flow - At the root of the retreating blade is an area where the air flows backward from the trailing to the leading edge of the blade. This is due to wind created by forward airspeed being greater than rotational velocity at this point on the blade.
Negative stall - In the negative stall area, rotational velocity exceeds forward flight velocity, causing resultant relative wind to move toward the leading edge. The resultant relative wind is so far above the chord line, a negative AOA above the critical AOA results. The blade stalls with a negative AOA.
Negative lift - In the negative lift area, rotational velocity, induced flow, and blade flapping combine to reduce the AOA from a negative stall to an AOA that causes the blade to produce negative lift.
Reverse Flow- air flows backward from the trailing to the leading edge of the blade. This is due to wind created by forward airspeed being greater than rotational velocity.
Negative Stall- rotational velocity exceeds forward flight velocity, causing resultant relative wind to move toward the leading edge. The resultant relative wind is so far above the chord line, a negative AOA above the critical AOA results.
Negative Lift- rotational velocity, induced flow, and blade flapping combine to reduce the AOA from a negative stall to an AOA that causes the blade to produce negative lift.
Identify the following components? Hydraulic deck
A. Utility module
B. 2nd Stage Lateral Primary Servo
C. Roll SAS Actuator
D. 2nd Stage T/R Shutoff Valve
E. Pilot Assist Module
Discuss the hot start prevention system.
- Automatically prevents overtemp during starting and shutdown.
- Requires 400 Hz, 120 VAC
- Requires signals form Np, Ng and TGT
- Activates ODV when Ng less or equal 60%, Np less or equal 50% TGT greater or equal 900*C
- Can be disabled by pressing and holding either Np overspeed test button during the start.
***Automatically prevents overtemperature during engine starts by shutting down the engine.
Requires 400 Hz, 120 vac power for operation (APU generator).
Requires signals from the NP Sensor, NG Alternator Winding, and the Thermocouple Harness (TGT).
HSP activates a solenoid in the ODV which shuts off fuel flow to the engine when NP and NG are below their Hot Start Reference Values and the TGT exceeds its reference value.
1. NG < 60%. 2. NP < 50%. 3. TGT > 900⁰C.
In an emergency HSP can be disabled by pressing and holding either of the NP overspeed test buttons during the start. To ensure the system is disabled throughout the full start sequence, hold button in until NG > 60%.
What are the five aerodynamic emergencies?
Settling with power Dynamic Rollover Retreating Blade Stall Ground Resonance Compressability Effects
What is the difference between EARLY and OVER options on the flight plan screen?
When OVER (overfly) is active, the aircraft will overfly the waypoint and will fly a teardrop pattern to intercept the outbound leg. When the capture criteria is EARLY and the turn is less than 120°, the helicopter will roll out exactly on the next leg of the flight plan. When the turn is greater than 120° the helicopter will fly a teardrop pattern to intercept the outbound leg. If there is no next leg, OVER capture criteria will be used.
FMS uses actual track rather than desired track in calculating turn anticipation, to allow for low-level tactical flight where the final track to away point may not be along the desired track.
What information is provided in each FMS header default? How do you change the header?
Headers are either in COM or NAV format, upon power-up FMS 1 will default to the communication header and FMS 2 will default to the navigation header. Header selection can be changed on initialization page 3/3 or on the PPS page.
COM Header:
System time - Indicates system time.
PLT - Indicates pilot’s side of display. In inversevideowhentheICSselected radio is keyed.
Preset ID - Shows selected preset. Blank if manual tune, or ICS mode, EMERG when emergency selected.
Selected radio - Type of radio selected with the transmit control.
Frequency - Frequency or channel display. Area is blank when in ICS selection mode.
Call sign - Name of call sign chosen for frequency shown.
Nav mode - Indicates navigation mode of the FMS.
SEC/DAT - Appears in inverse video when the selected radio is in CIPHER (SEC) or DATA (DAT) mode. When operating in PLAIN mode, the display is MHZ or blank.
CPT - Indicates copilot’s side of display. In inverse video when the ICS selected radio is keyed.
NAV Header:
(NOTE)
A “°” following a bearing or direction indicates magnetic bearing. A “°T” indicates true bearing.
BRG - The bearing to the present way-point. 0 is displayed when there is no active steering.
RNG - Distance in nautical miles to the present way-point. Displays are 0 to 9999.9 or **.* if beyond range. Thereisnodisplaywhenthereisno active steering.
NXT - The initial desired course of the next leg of the flight plan with the present way-point as the FROM point. Blank when there is no next leg or no active steering.
WND - Computedwinddirectionandspeed in knots. An asterisk is displayed when windspeed > 99 knots. Wind direction may fluctuate when the windspeed is near < 4 knots. Remembered wind will be displayed in inverse video. Wind information is not displayed on the ground.
Time - System time.
TTG - Time to go to the present way-point at current ground speed. Blank is displayed when there is no active steering.
GS - Ground Speed in knots.
WPT - The identifier of the present TO way-point. DisplaysWPTforregular way-point. Labelswillflashbetween normal and inverse video when a way-point is captured (minimum 3 seconds).
WPT number - Displays WPT reference number for the current “TO” way-point. Blank is displayed when there is no active steering.
WPT name - Displays first five characters of the eight character way-point name for the current “TO” way-point. Blank is displayed when there is no active steering.
Nav mode - Indicates navigation mode of the FMS.
No. 1 EGI Navigation sourced.
IG1 - Indicates blended solution with GPS aiding.
I-1 - Indicates blended solution without GPS aiding.
GP1 - Indicates GPS solution.
IN1 - Indicates pure inertial solution.
No. 2 EGI Navigation sourced.
IG2 - Indicates blended solution with GPS aiding.
I-2 - Indicates blended solution without GPS aiding.
GP2 - Indicates GPS solution.
IN2 - Indicates pure inertial solution.
What three Emergency Procedures in Chapter 9 of TM 1-1520-280-10 require the Engine to be placed in LOCKOUT? Define LOCKOUT?
Decreasing NR (DEC/EDECU low side failure), NP Decreasing/Increasing (Oscillation), Torque Split between Engines
The term LOCKOUT is defined as manual control of engine RPM while bypassing DEC/EDECU functions.
The digital mapping system displays maps on the ________. The digital map accepts ________ ________ map data loaded into the system through the ________.
MFDs
mission relevant
DTS
Referencing the Tactical Flight Mission Planning and Map Preparation Guide (TFMP), selecting appropriate altitude(s) and terrain flight modes as appropriate: The _____________ terrain flight altitude for the specific condition should always be used. Flight at _________ terrain flight altitudes reduces the __________ ____ __________, enables ________ airspeeds, reduces __________ to terrain flight, and minimizes __________.
highest
higher
difficulty of navigation
higher
hazards
fatigue
How does the TFMP define Air Control Point, where are they designated and what may allow them to be placed farther apart?
An easily identifiable point on the terrain or an electronic NAVAID used to provide necessary control during air movement. ACPs are generally designated at each point where the flight route or air corridor makes a definite change in any direction and at any other point deemed necessary for timing or control of the operation. ACPs should be progressively closer as an aircraft nears the objective, facilitating timing and navigation. Type of terrain, illumination, total route distance, and accuracy of onboard navigation systems may allow selection of ACPs much further apart.
What are the two basic maps used in tactical flight mission planning, and what are the advantages/disadvantages of each?
the JOG and the tactical map
The Joint Operations Graphic has a scale of 1:250,000. The scale of the map permits a relatively small map uncluttered with extraneous information. It shows coordinates in Latitude and Longitude, as well as Military Grid Reference System (MGRS). It is useful for performing long enroute legs performed at Low Level. However, because it lacks adequate terrain detail, it should not be used for Contour or Nap of the Earth (NOE) planning and navigation.
The tactical map has a scale of 1:50,000 and is a highly detailed map. This is the primary map used for the objective phase of the operation. It should be used anytime Contour or NOE flight is conducted, or anytime precise navigation is required (i.e. at a PZ or LZ).
What does the TFMP state you should consider when planning and plotting routes regarding:
Location of SP & RP Selection of ACP's Turns enroute Route Width Course to be flown from RP to LZ
Route Planning - - The route for the mission must be tactically sound, yet not so difficult as to preclude successful navigation. The first step is to determine the threat situation. The following are considerations for planning and plotting the route:
a. The easiest, quickest and least hazardous mode of flight is Low Level. It should be used whenever the threat situation allows.
b. Contour and NOE are progressively slower, more difficult and more hazardous, and should only be used when the threat situation dictates.
c. As a rule of thumb, use NOE when flying within the effective range of the threat weapon systems.
d. Use Contour when flying within 10 -15 Kilometers of the maximum effective range of the threat weapons systems.
e. Plan alternate ingress and egress flight routes.
f. Locate the SP 3 to 8 kilometers from the PZ’s. The flight route starts here.
g. Locate the RP 3 to 8 kilometers from the LZ’s, primary and alternate. The flight route ends here.
h. Use prominent, distinct terrain features located along the flight route that facilitates navigation, control of speed, and control of en route fires as ACPs.
i. Plan that no turn in the route exceeds 60 degrees, especially if slingloads are involved. j. Plan that routes are at least two kilometers wide.
k. Ensure the course to the RP is within 30 degrees of the final course and the final course is within 30 degrees of the LZ landing heading.
When pressing the soft key HAT on the TAC/MFD and enabling (W+C) what does the red and yellow tinting indicate? What is default height value for the yellow tinting?
Warning elevation will display a red tinting for areas that are above the current helicopter barometric altitude.
Caution elevation will display a yellow tinting for areas that are below the current helicopter barometric altitude but above a specified height delta defined via the CONFIG submenu.
The default value is 200 feet.
What is the WARNING in current AWR1726 associated with the Height Above Terrain (HAT) warning elevation reference?
The Multi-Function Display (MFD) Height Above Terrain (HAT) warning elevation reference erroneously displays 100 feet above the helicopter barometric altitude. This reference should be equal to the helicopter barometric altitude. Personal injury or loss of life may occur due to the MFD not displaying red shading as described in reference 1.
According to the Tactical Flight Mission Planning Guide, what is meant by the term cockpit teamwork? Prior to arriving at a checkpoint, what should the navigator tell the pilot?
The ability of the crew to work as a team is crucial to the success of the mission. The navigator must give the pilot timely, clear and accurate information. The pilot should acknowledge that information and question anything not understood. Prior to arriving at a checkpoint the navigator should tell the pilot the following:
a. The description of the checkpoint coming up.
b. The direction and magnitude of the turn, if any.
c. The change in airspeed, if any.
What are the three modes of terrain flight as listed in the TC 3-04.4?
Nap of the Earth, Contour, Low-Level
NAP-OF-THE-EARTH FLIGHT
5-11. NOE flight is conducted at varying airspeeds as close to the earth’s surface as vegetation and obstacles permit. For NVG training, NOE flight is further defined as operating with the skids or wheels up to 25 feet above trees and vegetation in the flight path. (For training, a safe airspeed is used based on ambient light, flight visibility, terrain, winds, turbulence, obstacles, and crew proficiency.) Aviators should decrease airspeed if weather and/or ambient light restrict visibility.
CONTOUR FLIGHT
5-12. Contour flight is conducted at low altitudes conforming to the earth’s contours. It is characterized by relatively constant airspeeds and varying altitude as dictated by terrain and obstacles. For NVG training, contour flight is further defined as operating with the skids or wheels between 25 and 80 feet above highest obstacle (AHO). (For training, a safe airspeed is used based on ambient light, flight visibility, terrain, winds, turbulence, obstacles, and crew proficiency.) Aviators should decrease airspeed if weather and/or ambient light restrict visibility.
LOW-LEVEL FLIGHT
5-13. Aviators perform low-level flight at constant altitude and airspeed, dictated by threat avoidance. For NVG training, low-level flight is further defined as operating with the skids or wheels between 80 and 200 feet AHO at an airspeed commensurate with operational requirements and aircrew limitations. Aviators should decrease airspeed if weather and/or ambient light restrict visibility.
Who is considered a passenger and what flights are they restricted from?
Any occupant of the aircraft not performing an aircrew duty and logging flying time under paragraph 2 – 6. Passengers on Army aircraft authorized by chapter 3 of this regulation. Do not enter passenger names on the DA Form 2408 – 12.
Passengers are restricted from the following types of flights:
(1) Maintenance, engineering, functional, or experimental test flights.
(2) Aerobatics flights.
(3) Aerial demonstrations (mission essential personnel authorized) as defined by DODI 5410.19 and AR 360 – 1.
(4) Flight crew emergency procedures training.
(5) NVD qualification and refresher training.
(6) Aeronautical record attempts.
(7) Aircraft acceptance flights.
Wait at least _____ minutes after engine shutdown before checking engine oil level, If flights of over ___ hours are made, engine oil level must be at the full line of the sight glass before flight.
20
6
In reference to formation flight, what is sight picture and why must an aviator become proficient and comfortable with sight picture?
Sight picture is a particular angle, based on particular components a trailing aircraft sees or cues on when flying in formation on another aircraft. This is based on aircraft type and may cue on formation lights– especially at night or with NVDs. An aviator must become proficient and comfortable with this sight picture as it allows an aviator to judge attitude changes and relative position to the preceding aircraft.
What is a “close” formation and how is this distance determined for an aircraft in flight?
Close - The horizontal distance for close is three to five rotor disks.
Formations are defined and expressed in rotor diameters (based on type of aircraft being flown) between tip-path planes or the rearward edge of the disk on the leading aircraft and the forward edge of the disk on the trailing aircraft.
Pressing the Select button while the cursor is in Free Cursor Mode will cause an _____ ________ to appear next to the _______ _______. The ________ ______ _______ will be dependent upon the hooked item at the time the Select button is pressed.
edit menu
hooked point
specific menu options
According to the Student Handout, ADD will be provided on the Waypoint Edit menu. Selection of ADD will provide a graphical interface for the operator to add waypoints to the ___ __ ____ _______ _______. Off-route waypoints may be selected for ____________ without the creation a new waypoint. The ADD selection will only be available if the originally selected waypoint is the ____ __________ of the flight plan. If an off-route waypoint is hooked, the ___ __________ _________ will be removed. When SELECT is pressed from the cursor controller, a ______ ________ _______ will be drawn from the last flight plan waypoint to the potentially added waypoint (new or off-route). BE PREPARED TO DISCUSS.
end of the flight plan
insertion
last waypoint
new waypoint symbol
white dashed line
Selection of DATA will open the ________ _____ or __________ _____ menus, as appropriate, for the hooked item. The data displayed will be dependent upon the _________ _____ _________ about the symbol, graphic, or waypoint type. The Data Menu will display the data for all fields in the database for which there is valid data.
symbol / graphic
waypoint data
available data stored
According to the Student Handout, DIRECT TO will be provided on the Map , Symbol , and Waypoint Edit menus. Selection of DIRECT TO will add the hooked item into the ______ _______ _____ as the _______ __ ________. A white dashed line will be drawn from the ________ _______ ________ symbol to the future Direct To point. BE PREPARED TO DISCUSS.
active flight plan
current TO waypoint
aircraft present position
According to the Student Handout, INSERT will be provided on the Waypoint Edit menu. Selection of INSERT will provide a graphical interface for the operator to insert waypoints into a flight plan, ________ ___ ___________ ________ _______. Off-route waypoints may be selected for insertion ________ ___ ________ of a new waypoint. When INSERT is selected, a new waypoint symbol will be displayed at the cursor location. If an _________ waypoint is hooked, the new waypoint symbol will be removed. When SELECT is pressed from the cursor controller, white dashed line will be drawn from the __________ ________ ________ to the new waypoint (or off-route waypoint) and from the waypoint preceding the originally selected waypoint to the new waypoints. BE PREPARED TO DISCUSS.
preceding the originally selected waypoint
without the creation
off-route
originally selected waypoint
MAP MARK will be provided on the Map Edit, Symbol Edit, and Waypoint Edit menus. Selection of MAP MARK will capture the _______ ______________ ________ ________ or the position of the ______ _____ in Lat/Long or MGRS and display the position in the FMS scratchpad
current geo-referenced cursor position
hooked item
What are the three vertical separations that can be used during Multi-aircraft operations, and what are the advantages/disadvantages to each?
Flat. All aircraft are flown at the same altitude.
Disadvantages: may get caught in rotor wash of aircraft ahead of you
Stepped-up. Vertical separation of 1 to 10 feet higher between lead, chalk 2, and each successive aircraft.
Advantages: stay out of rotor wash of the aircraft in front
Stepped-down. Vertical separation of 1 to 10 feet lower between lead, chalk 2, and each successive aircraft.
Advantages: See the aircraft in front easier
Disadvantages: Trailing aircraft may experience wake turbulence. To avoid this, they will need to adjust their relative position. Trailing acft require more power to fly in this formation
What is Degraded Visual Environment? What may it severely affect?
A state of reduced visibility whereby spatial situational awareness and aircraft control cannot be maintained with the same precision as in normal visual meteorological conditions.
DVE may severely affect a pilot’s ability to maintain accurate aircraft orientation or control.
How does a pilot’s experience affect susceptibility to spatial disorientation (SD)?
All crewmembers are vulnerable to SD regardless of experience level.
During terrain flight planning, what is the primary criteria to consider for route selection?
enemy tactical situation and, secondarily, on ease of navigation
Terrain flight is a tactic that uses_______, ________, and ________ objects to mask the aircraft from _______, ________, ________, and electronic detection systems.
terrain, vegetation, and manmade
visual, optical, thermal
How does the Upturned Exhaust System (UES) enhance aircraft survivability?
The UES enhances aircraft survivability by significantly suppressing the infrared (IR) signature of the engines. The UES is a modular replacement for the standard exhaust tail cone or the IHIRSS. The main components of the UES are a lobed exhaust nozzle, a baffled exhaust duct, and an insulated chimney fairing that directs exhaust gases upward through the rotor system, preventing line-of-sight viewing of the engine’s IR signature.
The map will automatically enter static mode once the ________becomes active. Static mode allows for _________ and _________ of the digital map underlay.
free cursor
zooming
panning
According to the Student Handout, MOVE will be provided on the Symbol Edit and Waypoint Edit menus. Selection of MOVE will activate the symbol or waypoint move function. When moving a symbol, positioning the cursor at a ___ ________ and pressing the MFSC Select button will cause a _______ of the symbol to be placed at that location in ______. BE PREPARED TO DISCUSS.
new location
replica
white
In reference to TC 3-04.4, what is the caution associated with wire hazards? What are two specific cues for locating wires?
(CAUTION)
Wires are nearly impossible to see with night vision devices (NVDs). They are also difficult to see during certain times of the day; for example, when an aviator is flying into a setting sun. Wires and poles can become coated in dust and snow making them even more difficult to identify. During any mission briefing, an aviator must review the presence of wires and identify the location and status of the wire-hazards map.
swath cut through vegetation and the presence of supporting poles
Where are the two locations that the Storm Scope information can be displayed?
Navigation Source Data Display and ARC Display on PFD
