Endocrine hypertension Flashcards

1
Q

What 3 endocrine conditions are really associated with HTN? What are some others?

A

Pheochromocytoma, mineralcorticoid excess, glucocorticoid excess

Acromegaly, DM, obesity, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, estrogen-induced HTN, pregnancy induced HTN, renin secreting tumors, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, liddle syndome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

____ is a catecholamine producing tumor of chromaffin cells that typically produced HTN.

A

pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What percent of pheochromocytomas are malignant? extra-adrenal?

A

10;10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe familial syndrome assosiated with pheochromocytoma?

A

usually AD, MEN 2A (hyperparathyroidism and medullary thyroid carcinoma), multiple endocrine neoplasia (type 2B; multiple mucosal neuromas and medullary thyroid carcinoma), familial pheochromocytoma without associated disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is pheochromocytoma treated pre-op, intra-op, and post-op?

A

pre: alpha, beta blockade; fluids
Intraop: IV, fluids
Postop: fluids pressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are 3 general conventional risk factors for hypoglycemia?

A

inadequate caloric consumption, increased insulin sensitivity, impaired glucose production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Neurogenic symptoms of hypoglycemia

A

sweating, palpitation, tremulousness, hunger, nervousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Neuroglycopenic symptoms?

A

impaired concentration, tiredness, dizziness, tingling, blurred vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Severe neuroglycopenia

A

seizure coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

4 major components of syndrome of hypoglycemia associated autonomic failure

A
  1. recent antecedent hypoglycemia
  2. hypoglycemia unawareness (impaired symptomatic responses)
  3. Defective glucose counter-regulation (impaired hormonal responses)
  4. Recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How common is secondary HTN?

A

less than 5% of all HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe degradation of catecholamines

A

By MOA and COMT–> VMA, normetanephrine, metanephrine (can be measured in urine and serum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the difference in hemodynamic response to E and to NE?

A

E: increased systolic, but not anything else
NE: increased systolic, diasoltic, and reflex restraint of increase of HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Epineprhine is synthesized where? Ne?

A

E: adrenal medulla
Ne: nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

4 reasons why pheochromocytoma is important to diagnosis

A
  1. curable
  2. risk for lethal HTN paroxysm
  3. Some are malignant (10%)
  4. Clue to presence of familial syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Clinical presentation of pheochromocytoma

A

Episodic sweating, palpitation, headache, tachycardia, anxiety

17
Q

Metabolic features of pheochromocytoma

A

signs of hypercatabolism and hyperglycemia

18
Q

Hematologic features of pheochromocytoma

A

Orthostatic hypotension, elevated hct, erythrocytosis,

19
Q

How is the presence of pheochromocytoma diagnosed?

A

24 hr urine: E, NE or metanephrines
Plasma NE and E
Drug free state (give clonidine if you have to) and basal state

20
Q

Location of pheochromocytome tumor

A

90% are adrenal, 99% in abdomen, rest are in mediastinum

Multiple in 10% of sporadic pheos, but bilateral adrenomedullary disease is the rule in familial pheo

21
Q

Imaging of pheochromocytoma tumor

A

MRI, CT, scintigraphy

22
Q

Tx of pheochromocytoma

A

Resection, pre-op control with alpha blockers is a must.

23
Q

Actions of mineralcorticoids

A

stimulate distal renal tubules to reabsorb sodium, excrete K and H
Expand ECF, increase BP, lower plasma K, increase pH

24
Q

The mineralcorticoid receptor is activated by ____.

A

Aldosterone and cortisol

25
What does 11B hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase do? What happens if this enzyme is inactivated or overcome?
Inactivates cortisol to keep it from activating the MR. MC effects including hypertension and hypokalemia.
26
Why don't you get hypernatremia and edema with mineralcorticoid excess?
regulation by ADH and ANP
27
Regulators of aldosterone
ECF volume, angII (renin can be stimulated by sympathetics), hyperkalemia, NOT ACTH
28
When is the ratio of plasma aldosterone to renin useful?
Diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism. Aldosterone will be high renin will be low.
29
Etiology of primary hyperaldosteronism
2/3 of cases are due to aldosterone secreting adenoma, <2 cm, others are bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
30
Clinical findings in primary hyperaldosteronism
hypertension, hypokalemia (muscle weakness, cramps, polyuria) total body Na increased, but NOT hypernatremia
31
DDx for primary hyperaldosteronism
incidental adrenal nodules are common, thiazide use
32
Tx for primary hyperaldosteronism
resection, spironolactone
33
Is there edema with hyper-aldosteronism?
Nope.Compensatory mechanisms
34
Primary aldosteronism is most commonly due to a benign adenoma in the ______.#
zone glomerulosa
35
An aldosterone-to-renin ratio of ______ is diagnostic of hyperaldosteronism. #
>20-30
36
How can a Na suppression test diagnose hyperaldosteronism?#
Na-load pt and measure aldosterone. Should go down.
37
Clinical presentation of Cushing
central obesity, moon facies, buffalo hump, HTN, glucose intolerance, purple striae,
38
Glucocorticoids stimulate hepatic synthesis of ____
angiotensinogen