Elective surgery and General trauma Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

surgical strategies to manage an arthritic joint

A

arthoplasty/replacement, excision/resection, arthrodesis, osteotomy

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2
Q

replacing one half of a joint is known as?

A

hemiarthroplasty

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3
Q

materials which can be used to replace a joint

A

stainless steel, cobalt chrome, titanium alloy, polyethylene and ceramic

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4
Q

best procedures for smaller joints

A

excision or resection arthroplasty

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5
Q

when is arthrodesis a good treatment option

A

end stage ankle arthritis, wrist arthritis, hallux rigidus

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6
Q

what does osetomyelitis effect

A

the bone, including compact and spongy bone. bone marrow as well

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7
Q

what makes infection in bone hard to eradicate

A

leucocytes cause local osteolysis and pus forms, this impairs local blood flow.

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8
Q

what is a dead fragment of bone called

A

sequestrum

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9
Q

new bone forming around an area of necrosis is called

A

involucrum

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10
Q

what bacteria can infect osteocytes intra cellularly

A

staph aureus

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11
Q

who is more likely to suffer from acute osteomyelitis

A

children, immunocompromised adults, recent surgery

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12
Q

what part of the skeleton is chronic osteomyelitis more likely to develop in

A

axial skeleton

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13
Q

osteomyelitis: infecting organismS NEWBORNS (4months)

A

S.aureus, enterobacter, group A/B strep

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14
Q

osteomyelitis: infecting organism CHILDREN

A

s.aureus, A strep, H.influenza, enterobacter

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15
Q

osteomyelitis: infecting organism 4 YEARS TO ADULT

A

s.aureus, A strep, H.influenza, enterobacter

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16
Q

osteomyelitis: infecting organism ADULT

A

s.aureus, rarely enterobacter or Strep

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17
Q

osteomyelitis: infecting organism SICKLE CELL PATIENTS

A

S.aureus, salmonella

18
Q

classification of osteomyelitis

A

superficial, medullary, localised, diffuse

19
Q

what is the primary survey

20
Q

what score on the GCS would indicate loss of airway control

21
Q

what is the maximum GCS score

22
Q

minimum GCS score

23
Q

describe secondary bone healing

A

1 fracture occurs,

2 haematoma and inflammation,
3 macrophages and osteoclasts remove debris and reabsorb bone ends,

4 granulation tissue forms from fibroblasts,
5 chondroblasts from cartillage (soft callus)
6 osteoblasts lay bone the matrix (collagen type 1)
7 calcium mineralisation produces woven bone (hard callus)
8 remodelling

24
Q

how long does it take the soft callus to form

25
how long does it take the hard callus to form
6-12 weeks
26
what are the five basic fracture patterns
transverse, oblique, spiral, comminuted, segmental
27
describe a transverse fracture
pure bending force (cortex on one side fails in compression and the other side in tension) might not shorten (unless totally displaced) may angulate
28
describe an oblique fracture
shearing force, can shorten and angulate
29
describe a spiral fracture
torsional force, unstable to rotational force
30
describe a comminuted fracture
2 or more fragments, high energy injury, very unstable
31
describe a segmental fracture
fractured in two separate places
32
what is displacement
describes the direction of translation of the distal fragment
33
what is angulation
describes the direction in which the distal fragment points towards the degree of deformity
34
assessment of an injured limb must include
open/closed?, distal neurovascular status, compartment syndrome? status of skin and soft tissue envelope
35
what nerve injuries are associated with a fracture
neurapraxia or axonotmesis
36
what is neurapraxia
temporary conduction defect
37
what is axonetmesis
sustained compression of a nerve. nerves die past the point of injury
38
what is a neurotmesis
complete transection of a nerve, rare in closed injuries
39
most common cause of septic arthritis
staph aureus
40
second most common cause of septic arthritis
streptococci