Elective surgery and General trauma Flashcards

1
Q

surgical strategies to manage an arthritic joint

A

arthoplasty/replacement, excision/resection, arthrodesis, osteotomy

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2
Q

replacing one half of a joint is known as?

A

hemiarthroplasty

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3
Q

materials which can be used to replace a joint

A

stainless steel, cobalt chrome, titanium alloy, polyethylene and ceramic

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4
Q

best procedures for smaller joints

A

excision or resection arthroplasty

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5
Q

when is arthrodesis a good treatment option

A

end stage ankle arthritis, wrist arthritis, hallux rigidus

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6
Q

what does osetomyelitis effect

A

the bone, including compact and spongy bone. bone marrow as well

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7
Q

what makes infection in bone hard to eradicate

A

leucocytes cause local osteolysis and pus forms, this impairs local blood flow.

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8
Q

what is a dead fragment of bone called

A

sequestrum

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9
Q

new bone forming around an area of necrosis is called

A

involucrum

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10
Q

what bacteria can infect osteocytes intra cellularly

A

staph aureus

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11
Q

who is more likely to suffer from acute osteomyelitis

A

children, immunocompromised adults, recent surgery

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12
Q

what part of the skeleton is chronic osteomyelitis more likely to develop in

A

axial skeleton

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13
Q

osteomyelitis: infecting organismS NEWBORNS (4months)

A

S.aureus, enterobacter, group A/B strep

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14
Q

osteomyelitis: infecting organism CHILDREN

A

s.aureus, A strep, H.influenza, enterobacter

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15
Q

osteomyelitis: infecting organism 4 YEARS TO ADULT

A

s.aureus, A strep, H.influenza, enterobacter

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16
Q

osteomyelitis: infecting organism ADULT

A

s.aureus, rarely enterobacter or Strep

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17
Q

osteomyelitis: infecting organism SICKLE CELL PATIENTS

A

S.aureus, salmonella

18
Q

classification of osteomyelitis

A

superficial, medullary, localised, diffuse

19
Q

what is the primary survey

A

ABCDE

20
Q

what score on the GCS would indicate loss of airway control

A

8 or less

21
Q

what is the maximum GCS score

A

15

22
Q

minimum GCS score

A

3

23
Q

describe secondary bone healing

A

1 fracture occurs,

2 haematoma and inflammation,
3 macrophages and osteoclasts remove debris and reabsorb bone ends,

4 granulation tissue forms from fibroblasts,
5 chondroblasts from cartillage (soft callus)
6 osteoblasts lay bone the matrix (collagen type 1)
7 calcium mineralisation produces woven bone (hard callus)
8 remodelling

24
Q

how long does it take the soft callus to form

A

2-3 weeks

25
Q

how long does it take the hard callus to form

A

6-12 weeks

26
Q

what are the five basic fracture patterns

A

transverse, oblique, spiral, comminuted, segmental

27
Q

describe a transverse fracture

A

pure bending force (cortex on one side fails in compression and the other side in tension) might not shorten (unless totally displaced) may angulate

28
Q

describe an oblique fracture

A

shearing force, can shorten and angulate

29
Q

describe a spiral fracture

A

torsional force, unstable to rotational force

30
Q

describe a comminuted fracture

A

2 or more fragments, high energy injury, very unstable

31
Q

describe a segmental fracture

A

fractured in two separate places

32
Q

what is displacement

A

describes the direction of translation of the distal fragment

33
Q

what is angulation

A

describes the direction in which the distal fragment points towards the degree of deformity

34
Q

assessment of an injured limb must include

A

open/closed?, distal neurovascular status, compartment syndrome? status of skin and soft tissue envelope

35
Q

what nerve injuries are associated with a fracture

A

neurapraxia or axonotmesis

36
Q

what is neurapraxia

A

temporary conduction defect

37
Q

what is axonetmesis

A

sustained compression of a nerve. nerves die past the point of injury

38
Q

what is a neurotmesis

A

complete transection of a nerve, rare in closed injuries

39
Q

most common cause of septic arthritis

A

staph aureus

40
Q

second most common cause of septic arthritis

A

streptococci