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HELP CAMPUS > EENT > Flashcards

EENT Flashcards

1
Q

What type of infxn are steroid inhalers most likely to have?

A

Fungal infxn

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2
Q

What underlying disorders are patients with nasal polyps most likely to have?

A

Asthma, ASA/NSAID allergy (ASA triad)

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3
Q

What is the most aggressive and worst type of thyroid CA?

A

Anaplastic

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4
Q

What are the RF for thyroid CA?

A

Female, Asian, hx of goiter, hx of radiation

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5
Q

What is the most common thyroid CA?

A

Papillary

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6
Q

What are the types of thyroid CA?

A

Papillary, follicular, anaplastic, medullary

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7
Q

What is the most common laryngeal CA?

A

Squamous cell

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8
Q

What is bacterial infxn on the floor of the mouth that could be potentially life threatening?

A

Ludwing angina

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9
Q

What is L sided supraclavicular adenopathy?

A

Virchow’s node

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10
Q

What is painless, unilateral adenopathy?

A

Hodgkin’s lyphoma

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11
Q

What drugs can cause gingival hyperplasia?

A

CCB, phenytoin (seizure meds), cyclosporine (DMARDS)

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12
Q

What bug causes mumps?

A

Paramyxovirus

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13
Q

What bug causes sialadenitis?

A

S. Aureus

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14
Q

What glands are affected in sialadenitis? Sialolithiasis?

A

1) parotid 2) submandibular

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15
Q

What bug causes epiglottis?

A

H. influenzae

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16
Q

What bug causes mono?

A

EBV

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17
Q

Most common area for posterior epistaxis?

A

Woodruff

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18
Q

What are the 3 common bugs causing bacterial sinusitis?

A

M. Catarrhalis, H. influenzae, S. Pneumonia

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19
Q

Is Meniere’s peripheral or central cause of vertigo?

A

Peripheral

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20
Q

Patient has positive Dix Hallpike?

A

BPPV

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21
Q

What systemic disease can lead to hearing loss?

A

Lyme, neurosyphilis

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22
Q

What drug can be used to perforated TM?

A

Fluroquinolones

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23
Q

What is the common non-suppurative cause of sialadenitis?

A

Mumps/paromyxovirus

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24
Q

45yo male presents with progressive enalargement of R submandibular gland over last week?

A

Sialolithiasis

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25
Q

What GI disorder can lead to laryngitis if not treated?

A

GERD

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26
Q

68yo male drinker presents with 3mo of hoarseness?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

27
Q

How to treat peritonsillar abscess?

A

IV ampicillin or IV clindamycin

28
Q

Patient has dark urine after pharyngitis couple weeks ago. UA reveals RBC casts, what lab should you order next?

A

ASO titers for post-strep glomerulonephritis

29
Q

6yo male presents with chronic sinusitis, what to expect on PE?

A

Enlarged adenoids

30
Q

Bilateral acoustic neuroma occurs only when?

A

Neurofibromatosis II

31
Q

How to differentiate labyrinthitis vs vestibular neuritis?

A

Labyrinthitis has hearing loss, vestibular neuritis does not

32
Q

What disease should be considered with a patient who has a recent diagnosis of toxoplasmosis?

A

Vestibular neuritis

33
Q

What must be r/o’d if patient has vertigo + syncope?

A

Vertebral basilar insufficiency

34
Q

What is the most common fungal otitis externa?

A

Aspergillus

35
Q

Most common cause for retinal artery occlusion?

A

carotid plaque from carotid

36
Q

Central vision loss vs peripheral vision loss dx?

A

central - macular degeneration, peripheral - glaucoma

37
Q

“Blood and thunder” on otoscopy exam?

A

central retinal vein occlusion

38
Q

What congenital infxn can lead to childhood glaucoma?

A

TORCH infxn

39
Q

Dendritic ulcers on cornea with fluorescein stain?

A

herpes simplex

40
Q

4 drug classes to treat open angle glaucoma?

A

alpha agonist, beta blockers, topical carbonic anhydrase, prostaglandins

41
Q

What nerve could be damaged with a blowout fracture?

A

infraorbital nerve

42
Q

What PE will show with infraorbital nerve damage?

A

paresthesia in the gums, upper lips and cheek

43
Q

What are 3 concerns for blowout fracture?

A

loss of EOM, parestheisa, diplopia

44
Q

What congenital malformation leads to dacroadenitis and resolves w/in the first year?

A

dacryostenosis

45
Q

Common cause for optic neuritis?

A

MS

46
Q

What must be r/o’d with acute loss of monocular vision/amaurosis fugax?

A

artery occlusion, optic neuritis, giant arteritis

47
Q

Patient complains of floaters, bright lights, loss of vision in one field?

A

retinal detachment

48
Q

Common cause for orbital cellulitis?

A

staph, strep

49
Q

Common cause of viral conjunctivitis?

A

adenovirus

50
Q

Pressure to dx glaucoma?

A

> 21

51
Q

Unilateral deep painful red eye decreased vision, halos, steamy/cloudy cornea pupil, fixed, dialted?

A

acute angle glaucoma

52
Q

Other sx/PE for acute angle glaucoma?

A

unilateral HA, N/V, photophobia

53
Q

What is term for inflammation of the lacrimal gland?

A

dacryoadenitis

54
Q

Swelling of the medial corner of eye with erythema, tenderness, d/c, and excess tearing?

A

dacryocystitis

55
Q

What muscle may become entrapped with blowout fracture?

A

inferior rectus muscle

56
Q

Patient has hyphema with no trauma, what must be r/o’d?

A

blood disorders

57
Q

Patient has gradual onset of central vision loss?

A

macular degeneration

58
Q

HIV patient has retinopathy, what’s the bug?

A

CMV

59
Q

Immunocompressed patient with retinopathy, 2bugs?

A

CMV, toxo

60
Q

Patient has sudden blurred vision and retinal vein occlusion will have what kind of occlusion?

A

central

61
Q

What are the bugs with bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

s. aurues, s. pneumonia, m. catarrhalis, h. influeanzea

62
Q

When to start screening for glaucoma?

A

40yo

63
Q

Patient has disk ratio of 0.7, what must be done to r/o?

A

tonometry for acute close angle glaucoma

64
Q

What disorder is characterized by congenital malformation or failure to open nasolacrimal duct?

A

dacryostenosis

HELP CAMPUS (10 decks)

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