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drugs Flashcards

1
Q

what is the goal of glaucoma drugs

A

decreased intraocular pressure via decreasing the amount of aqueous humor production.

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2
Q

what does epinephrine do for glaucoma

A

decreases the production of aqueous humor synthesis via vasoconstriction.

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3
Q

When to not use epinephrine and why

A

in close-angle glaucoma. this will cause mydriasis and exacerbation

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4
Q

brimonidine for glaucoma

A

decreased aqueous humor production

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5
Q

what are the SE for brimonidine

A

blurry vision, ocular hyperremia, foreign body, pruritus or allergic reaction

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6
Q

what beta blockers are used for glaucoma

A

timolol, betaxolol and carteolol

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7
Q

How do the beta blockers work for glaucoma

A

reduce humor production.

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8
Q

When using beta blockers for glaucoma are there pupillary or vision changes

A

None.

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9
Q

what is the mechanism for acetazolamide in glaucoma

A

reduces production by inhibition of carbonic anhydrase

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10
Q

what are the direct cholinometics and how do they work for glaucoma

A

pilocarpine and carbachol. they increase the outflow of humor via contraction of the colliery muscle and opening of the trabecular meshwork.

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11
Q

what are the SE of the cholinometics

A

myosis and cyclospasm. contraction of the cilliary muscle.

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12
Q

what are the indirect cholinometics and how do they work in glaucoma

A

physostigmine and echothiophate. physostigmine is used in emergencies and is very effective at opening of the canal of schlemm.

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13
Q

what are the prostaglandin drugs for glaucoma

A

latanoprost. (PGF2alpha). increases the outflow of humor.

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14
Q

what are the SE of latanoprost

A

darkens the color of the iris.

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15
Q

what is tramadol and what is it used for

A

very weak opioid agonist, also inhibits serotonin and NE uptake. thesis for chronic pain.

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16
Q

what are the SE of tramadol

A

decreases seizure threshold.

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17
Q

what is phenytoin used for

A

focal simple and complex seizures; general tonic clonic seizures.

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18
Q

what is first line therapy for general tonic clonic seizures

A

phenytoin, carbamezepine, valproic acid

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19
Q

what is first line therapy for status epilepticus prophylaxis

A

phenytoin

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20
Q

what is first line therapy for status epilepticus acute

A

benzodiazepines (lorazepam or diazepam)

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21
Q

what is first line therapy for simple or complex partial seizures

A

carbamazepine

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22
Q

what else is carbamazepine used for

A

first line therapy for trigeminal neuralgia.

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23
Q

what are the therapies for simple or complex partial seizures,.

A

carbamazepine (1st line), phenytoin, lamotrigine, gabapentin, topiramate, phenobarbital, valproic acid, tiagabine, levetiracetam. j

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24
Q

what are the therapies for general tonic clonic seizures

A

carbamazepine (first line), phenytoin (first line), valproic acid (first line), lamotrigine, gabapentin, topiramate, pehnobarbital, levetiracetam.

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25
Q

what are the therapies for absence seizures

A

ethosuximide (first line), can also use valproic acid

26
Q

what is used for seizures of pregnancy

A

MgSO4

27
Q

what drug is used for migraine prevention

A

verapamil, topiramate, beta blockers

28
Q

what are the SE for the benzo

A

sedation, tolerance, dependence.

29
Q

what are the SE for carbamazepine

A

diplopia, ataxia, blood dycrasias, lover toxicity, teratogenesis, SIADH, SJS.

30
Q

what are the SE for ethosuximide

A

GI distress, fatigue, HA, urticaria, SJS

31
Q

what are the Se of the phenobarbs

A

sedation, tolerance, dependence, induction of cytochrome P450

32
Q

what are the SE for phenytoin

A

nystagmus, diplopia, ataxia, sedation, gingival hyperplasia, hisutism, megaloblastic anemia, teratogenesis, SLE-like, lymphadenopathy, SJS

33
Q

SE of valproic acid

A

Gi distress, hepatotoxicity, neural tube defects, tremor, weight gain,

34
Q

what are the SE off lemotrigine

A

SJS

35
Q

what are the SE of gaabpeitin

A

sedation and ataxia

36
Q

what are the SE of topiramate,

A

sedation, mental dulling, kidney stones, weight loss.

37
Q

what is succinylcholine

A

polarizing anesthetic strong ACh agonist. produces sustained depolarization and prevents muscle contraction.

38
Q

is there an antidote for succinylcholine

A

not in phase I, but yes in phase 2. lots of neostigmine.

39
Q

what are the complications of succinylchonline

A

malignant hyperthermia. Hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia

40
Q

what is tubocurarine

A

nondepolarizing competitive ACh antagonist.

41
Q

what drugs are similar to tubocurarine

A

atracurium, mivacurium, pancuronium, vecuronium, rocuronium,

42
Q

what is the antidote for tubocurarine

A

reversal of the blockade with neostigmine, edrophonium, and other cholinesterase inhibitors.

43
Q

what is the treatment of malignant hyperthermia

A

dantrolene

44
Q

what is dantrolene

A

prevents Ca release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, used for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

45
Q

what are the dopamine agonists and what are they used for

A

bromocriptine, pramipexole, ropinirole. used to treat parkinsons in someone under 70 or functioning

46
Q

what drugs can increase the availability of dopamine

A

amantidine and carb/levadopa.

47
Q

what can prevent the breakdown of dopamine

A

MOAi and COMTi such as selegeline (MAOBi), entacapone(COMTi), tolcapone (comt),

48
Q

what are the MAOBi

A

selegiline

49
Q

what are the COMTi

A

entacapone, tolcapone

50
Q

what can be used for the treatment of excess tremor and rigidity in Parkinsons

A

benztropine.

51
Q

what is memantine used for

A

NMDA receptor antagonist that helps prevent the excitotoxicity of Alzheimers

52
Q

what are the SE for memantine

A

hallucinations, dizziness and confusion.

53
Q

what acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are used for Alzheimers

A

donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine.

54
Q

what are the SE of the AChesterase inhibitors

A

dizziness, nausea and insomnia./

55
Q

why don’t we use phenytoin in pregnancy

A

because it can cause fetal hydantoin disease

56
Q

what is fetal hydantoin

A

cleft lip and palate, short broad nose, malformed ears, microcephaly, wide-spaced eyes.

57
Q

serotonin syndrome may occur with combinations of what drugs?

A

MAOi, dextramorphan, SSRIs/SNRIs, TCAs, meperidine

58
Q

what causes lymphadenopathy, eosinophilia, truncal rash, and systemic syndromes

A

carbamazepine and phenytoin. DRESS syndrome

59
Q

what are the teratogenic effects of carbamazepine?

A

cleft palate, cardiac defects, neural tube defects, skeletal abnormalities.
inhibits folate absorption

60
Q

what drugs can cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome and what is the cause

A

atypical antipsychotics, such as riperidone, or olanzapine. caused by antagonization of the D2 receptor.

61
Q

treatment for neuroleptic malignant sydnrome

A

dantrolene. bromocriptine, amantidine can all be used

62
Q

what is the treatment for shingles

A

oral acyclovir or valacyclovir

neuro (17 decks)

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