drugs Flashcards

1
Q

what is the goal of glaucoma drugs

A

decreased intraocular pressure via decreasing the amount of aqueous humor production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does epinephrine do for glaucoma

A

decreases the production of aqueous humor synthesis via vasoconstriction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When to not use epinephrine and why

A

in close-angle glaucoma. this will cause mydriasis and exacerbation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

brimonidine for glaucoma

A

decreased aqueous humor production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the SE for brimonidine

A

blurry vision, ocular hyperremia, foreign body, pruritus or allergic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what beta blockers are used for glaucoma

A

timolol, betaxolol and carteolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do the beta blockers work for glaucoma

A

reduce humor production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When using beta blockers for glaucoma are there pupillary or vision changes

A

None.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the mechanism for acetazolamide in glaucoma

A

reduces production by inhibition of carbonic anhydrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the direct cholinometics and how do they work for glaucoma

A

pilocarpine and carbachol. they increase the outflow of humor via contraction of the colliery muscle and opening of the trabecular meshwork.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the SE of the cholinometics

A

myosis and cyclospasm. contraction of the cilliary muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the indirect cholinometics and how do they work in glaucoma

A

physostigmine and echothiophate. physostigmine is used in emergencies and is very effective at opening of the canal of schlemm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the prostaglandin drugs for glaucoma

A

latanoprost. (PGF2alpha). increases the outflow of humor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the SE of latanoprost

A

darkens the color of the iris.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is tramadol and what is it used for

A

very weak opioid agonist, also inhibits serotonin and NE uptake. thesis for chronic pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the SE of tramadol

A

decreases seizure threshold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is phenytoin used for

A

focal simple and complex seizures; general tonic clonic seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is first line therapy for general tonic clonic seizures

A

phenytoin, carbamezepine, valproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is first line therapy for status epilepticus prophylaxis

A

phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is first line therapy for status epilepticus acute

A

benzodiazepines (lorazepam or diazepam)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is first line therapy for simple or complex partial seizures

A

carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what else is carbamazepine used for

A

first line therapy for trigeminal neuralgia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the therapies for simple or complex partial seizures,.

A

carbamazepine (1st line), phenytoin, lamotrigine, gabapentin, topiramate, phenobarbital, valproic acid, tiagabine, levetiracetam. j

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the therapies for general tonic clonic seizures

A

carbamazepine (first line), phenytoin (first line), valproic acid (first line), lamotrigine, gabapentin, topiramate, pehnobarbital, levetiracetam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what are the therapies for absence seizures
ethosuximide (first line), can also use valproic acid
26
what is used for seizures of pregnancy
MgSO4
27
what drug is used for migraine prevention
verapamil, topiramate, beta blockers
28
what are the SE for the benzo
sedation, tolerance, dependence.
29
what are the SE for carbamazepine
diplopia, ataxia, blood dycrasias, lover toxicity, teratogenesis, SIADH, SJS.
30
what are the SE for ethosuximide
GI distress, fatigue, HA, urticaria, SJS
31
what are the Se of the phenobarbs
sedation, tolerance, dependence, induction of cytochrome P450
32
what are the SE for phenytoin
nystagmus, diplopia, ataxia, sedation, gingival hyperplasia, hisutism, megaloblastic anemia, teratogenesis, SLE-like, lymphadenopathy, SJS
33
SE of valproic acid
Gi distress, hepatotoxicity, neural tube defects, tremor, weight gain,
34
what are the SE off lemotrigine
SJS
35
what are the SE of gaabpeitin
sedation and ataxia
36
what are the SE of topiramate,
sedation, mental dulling, kidney stones, weight loss.
37
what is succinylcholine
polarizing anesthetic strong ACh agonist. produces sustained depolarization and prevents muscle contraction.
38
is there an antidote for succinylcholine
not in phase I, but yes in phase 2. lots of neostigmine.
39
what are the complications of succinylchonline
malignant hyperthermia. Hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia
40
what is tubocurarine
nondepolarizing competitive ACh antagonist.
41
what drugs are similar to tubocurarine
atracurium, mivacurium, pancuronium, vecuronium, rocuronium,
42
what is the antidote for tubocurarine
reversal of the blockade with neostigmine, edrophonium, and other cholinesterase inhibitors.
43
what is the treatment of malignant hyperthermia
dantrolene
44
what is dantrolene
prevents Ca release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, used for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
45
what are the dopamine agonists and what are they used for
bromocriptine, pramipexole, ropinirole. used to treat parkinsons in someone under 70 or functioning
46
what drugs can increase the availability of dopamine
amantidine and carb/levadopa.
47
what can prevent the breakdown of dopamine
MOAi and COMTi such as selegeline (MAOBi), entacapone(COMTi), tolcapone (comt),
48
what are the MAOBi
selegiline
49
what are the COMTi
entacapone, tolcapone
50
what can be used for the treatment of excess tremor and rigidity in Parkinsons
benztropine.
51
what is memantine used for
NMDA receptor antagonist that helps prevent the excitotoxicity of Alzheimers
52
what are the SE for memantine
hallucinations, dizziness and confusion.
53
what acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are used for Alzheimers
donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine.
54
what are the SE of the AChesterase inhibitors
dizziness, nausea and insomnia./
55
why don't we use phenytoin in pregnancy
because it can cause fetal hydantoin disease
56
what is fetal hydantoin
cleft lip and palate, short broad nose, malformed ears, microcephaly, wide-spaced eyes.
57
serotonin syndrome may occur with combinations of what drugs?
MAOi, dextramorphan, SSRIs/SNRIs, TCAs, meperidine
58
what causes lymphadenopathy, eosinophilia, truncal rash, and systemic syndromes
carbamazepine and phenytoin. DRESS syndrome
59
what are the teratogenic effects of carbamazepine?
cleft palate, cardiac defects, neural tube defects, skeletal abnormalities. inhibits folate absorption
60
what drugs can cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome and what is the cause
atypical antipsychotics, such as riperidone, or olanzapine. caused by antagonization of the D2 receptor.
61
treatment for neuroleptic malignant sydnrome
dantrolene. bromocriptine, amantidine can all be used
62
what is the treatment for shingles
oral acyclovir or valacyclovir