Diagnostic Test Flashcards

1
Q

What anatomical feature does a chest x-ray assess?

A

The anatomical and appearance of the lungs

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2
Q

What type of radiation is used in a chest x-ray?

A

Low beam radiation

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3
Q

Can pregnant women undergo a chest x-ray?

A

Yes, but only if they wear ‘lead aprons’

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4
Q

What should be assessed on a pregnant woman before a chest x-ray?

A

LMP, sexual history, marital status, and occupation

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5
Q

What is another name for the Mantoux test?

A

Purified Protein Derivative (PPD)

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6
Q

What is the purpose of the Mantoux test?

A

Screening test for TB exposure

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7
Q

When should a patient return after a Mantoux test?

A

After 48-72 hours

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8
Q

Why should a patient return after a Mantoux test?

A

For the interpretation of the results

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9
Q

What classification indicates a patient is considered normal?

A

Normal Individual

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10
Q

What classification indicates a patient is suffering from high blood pressure?

A

Hypertensive

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11
Q

What is the classification for a patient with high blood sugar levels?

A

Diabetes Melitus

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12
Q

What chronic illness is characterized by obstructed airflow from the lungs?

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases

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13
Q

What condition is characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways?

A

Asthma

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14
Q

What classification indicates a patient has impaired kidney function?

A

Chronic Kidney Disease

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15
Q

What is the PPD result threshold for a negative test?

A

<10mm - negative

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16
Q

What is the PPD result threshold for a positive test?

A

> 10mm - positive

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17
Q

What classification is given to individuals with compromised immune systems?

A

Immunocompromised Individual

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18
Q

What virus is associated with the classification of immunocompromised individuals?

A

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

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19
Q

What syndrome is associated with HIV?

A

Acquired immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

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20
Q

What disease classification may involve cancer?

A

Cancer

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21
Q

What is the PPD result threshold for a negative test in immunocompromised individuals?

A

<5mm - negative

22
Q

What is the PPD result threshold for a positive test in immunocompromised individuals?

A

> 5mm - positive

23
Q

What does a positive PPD indicate?

24
Q

What imaging is used to assess the extent of lesions in TB?

25
Q

What are the confirmatory tests for tuberculosis?

A
  • Sputum Exam
  • TB QuantiFERON gold test (blood)
26
Q

What should be done if the PPD test is negative?

A

Continue to monitor signs and symptoms

27
Q

What is the purpose of a sputum exam?

A

To analyze respiratory secretions

28
Q

What is the recommended time to collect a sputum sample?

A

Early in the morning (5-6 am)

29
Q

What is the recommended amount of sputum to collect?

A

10-15ml (1 spoonful)

30
Q

What should be done before collecting a sputum sample?

A

Don’t do oral care, only rinse with water

31
Q

What is the viability time for a sputum sample?

A

<30 minutes, properly stored

32
Q

What is the purpose of bronchoscopy?

A
  • Visualization
  • Bronchial washing
  • Bronchial suctioning
  • Collection of tissue sample
33
Q

What is required before performing a bronchoscopy?

A
  • Consent + money
  • Baseline vital signs for comparison
  • Fasting or NPO for 4-6 hours
34
Q

What type of equipment is needed for emergency procedures?

A

Emergency Equipment

35
Q

What is essential to have on hand during emergency procedures?

A

Emergency Medications

36
Q

What is a tracheostomy set used for?

A

Emergency airway

A tracheostomy set is essential in emergency situations to secure an airway.

37
Q

What are common emergency medications?

A
  • Epinephrine
  • Muscle Relaxant
  • Bronchodilator
  • Steroids

Epinephrine is frequently highlighted in board exams.

38
Q

What is the NPO requirement for procedures?

A

4-6 hours

NPO stands for ‘nil per os’, meaning nothing by mouth.

39
Q

What is the NPO requirement for surgery?

A

Minimum of 8 hours

This is to ensure an empty stomach before anesthesia.

40
Q

What should be assessed after a procedure?

A

Respiratory status

Monitoring respiratory status is crucial for patient safety.

41
Q

What is the positioning for uncomplicated cases?

A

Semi-fowler’s position

This position helps in reducing laryngeal edema.

42
Q

What is the positioning for complicated cases?

A

Side lying position

This position is important for patients at risk of aspiration.

43
Q

What are the complications associated with airway management?

A
  • Bleeding: bright red sputum, frequent swallowing
  • Laryngospasm: most fatal; complete obstruction of airway

These complications require immediate medical intervention.

44
Q

What is thoracentesis used for?

A

Removal of pleural fluid

This procedure alleviates pressure on the lungs.

45
Q

What is the best position for thoracentesis?

A

Orthopneic position

This position allows for maximum lung expansion.

46
Q

What does ‘A’ signify in patient transfer ability during thoracentesis?

A

Can transfer from bed to chair, can sit

Mild signs and symptoms are observed in this category.

47
Q

What does ‘B’ signify in patient transfer ability during thoracentesis?

A

Patient is not able to transfer but can sit

This category presents mild to moderate signs and symptoms.

48
Q

What does ‘C’ signify in patient transfer ability during thoracentesis?

A

Patient is not able to transfer and sit

This situation indicates moderate to severe signs and symptoms.

49
Q

What is the recommended positioning after thoracentesis?

A

Unaffected side for lung expansion

This positioning helps in promoting lung recovery.

50
Q

What is the head of bed angle recommended after thoracentesis?

A

30-45 degrees

This angle assists in optimal lung expansion post-procedure.