Departure And Arrival Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of departure procedures

A

•Preplanned IFR procedures that provide
•Primarily, obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the en route segment of a IFR flight
•Increased efficiency and decrease communications when departing from busier airports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Development of departure procedures

A

•If an obstacle penetrates what’s called the 40:1 obstacle identification surface, the FAA chooses whether to:
•Establish a steeper than normal climb gradient (200 feet per nautical mile (FPNM));
•Establish a steeper than normal climb gradient with an alternative that increases takeoff minima to allow the pilot to visually remain clear of the obstacle(s);
•Design and publish a specific departure route; or
•A combination or all the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Departure procedure criteria

A

•Unless specified otherwise, required obstacle clearance for all departures, including diverse, is based on:
•The pilot crossing the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet above the departure end of runway elevation
•The pilot climbing to 400 feet above the departure end of runway elevation before making the initial turn, and
•The pilot maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200 FPNM unless required to level off by a crossing restriction, until the minimum IFR altitude
•The assumption of normal aircraft performance, and that all engines are operating
•Read and comply with all notes/ATC instructions regarding the departure procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Obstacle departure procedure (ODP)

A

•ODPs provide obstruction clearance via the least onerous route from the terminal area to the appropriate enroute structure
•ODPs are recommended for obstruction clearance and may be flown without an ATC clearance unless an alternate departure procedure (SID/Radar Vectors) has been specifically assigned by ATC
•ODPs may be a great choice for VFR departures, especially at night, as obstacle clearance is never provided when not under positive control (Class G departures, etc)
•If flown under VFR, advise ATC, if in controlled airspace, to remain predictable
•ODPs are printed textually or graphically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Visual climb over airport (VCOA)

A

•A Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA) procedure is a departure option for an IFR aircraft, operating in visual meteorological conditions equal to or greater than the specified visibility and ceiling, to visually conduct climbing turns over the airport to the published “at or above” altitude
•At this point, the pilot may proceed in instrument meteorological conditions to the first enroute fix using a diverse departure, or to proceed via a published routing to a fix from where the aircraft may join the IFR enroute structure, while maintaining a climb gradient of at least 200 feet per nautical mile
•VCOA procedures are developed to avoid obstacles greater than 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Standard instrument departure (SID)

A

•Standard Instrument Departures are air traffic control (ATC) procedures printed for pilot/controller use in graphic form to provide obstruction clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate enroute structure
•SIDs are primarily designed for system enhancement and to reduce pilot/controller workload but also support noise abatement procedures
•ATC clearance must be received prior to flying a SID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Diverse vector area (DVA)

A

•A Diverse Vector Area (DVA) is an area in which ATC may provide random radar vectors during an uninterrupted climb from the departure runway until above the MVA/MIA, established in accordance with the TERPS criteria for diverse departures
•The DVA provides obstacle and terrain avoidance in lieu of taking off from the runway under IFR using an ODP or SID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Departure restrictions

A

•Clearance Void Times:
•Given at non-towered airports when the pilot calls for a clearance.
•Must be off by clearance void time or the clearance is void.
•Note: Make sure you are ready to go or advise that you need time for runup and checklists.
•Hold for Release:
•The pilot may not depart utilizing that IFR clearance until a release time or additional instructions are issued by ATC.
•Think end of runway, waiting for traffic that just departed on an IFR flight.
•Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Departure procedures limitations

A

•These procedures are subject to change via the Notice to Air Missions system which must always be checked as part of pre-flight
•Primarily issued to provide guaranteed obstacle clearance, secondary to increase efficiency and reduce communications
•Responsibility to avoid obstacles rests on the pilot
•If the pilot does not possess a DP or does not wish to use one (due to gradient, equipment required, or other reason), he/she is expected to advise ATC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Purpose of a standard terminal arrival procedure

A

•A Standard Arrival Procedure (STAR)
•Purpose: take traffic from the enroute structure to the Terminal structure in an orderly and efficient manner
•While simplifying clearances and reducing pilot/controller workload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Description of a STAR

A

•They usually consist of flying various VOR radials to specific fixes and then completing the final portion of the procedure by radar vectoring in the immediate terminal area.
•STARs can also be RNAV and use the GPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

STAR regulations

A

•If the destination is a location for which STARs have been published, a pilot may be issued a clearance containing a STAR whenever ATC deems it appropriate. To accept the clearance, a pilot must possess the approved chart.
•It is the pilot’s responsibility to either accept or refuse an issued STAR. If a STAR will not or cannot be used, advise ATC by placing “NO STAR” in the remarks section of the filed flight plan or by advising ATC.
•If a STAR is accepted in a clearance, compliance is mandatory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Airspeed regulations

A

•For separation purposes, ATC will frequently ask you to maintain an assigned airspeed.
•Airspeed will be assigned in 10 knot increments
•Maintain specified IAS within 10 knots
•Advise ATC if unable to comply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Profile descent

A

•Expected to descend at a minimum of 500’/min
•To accurately calculate profile descents, you’ll need to do some math in your head.
•Try to make it easy on yourself
•If given the option to “descend at pilot’s discretion”, an approximation may be used:
•3/6 rule
•Altitude to lose/300 = distance (how far out to start descent)
•6 x ground speed = descent rate
•Allows turbojet aircraft a rapid descent from cruise altitude to the approach with minimal time at low altitudes.
•Fuel and time savings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Descent planning

A

•After clearance start descent promptly.
•Maintain an optimum descent rate:
•Optimum rate until within 1000 ft of altitude then, 700-500 fpm.
•Advise ATC if unable to maintain a descent rate of at least 500 fpm
•Radar service is automatically terminated when landing is completed on an IFR flight plan at a towered airport OR when frequency is changed to CTAF and “radar service is terminated”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly