DCIT 65 | Pre-Finals | Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

an area in which IT workers may be tempted to violate laws and policies

A

software piracy

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2
Q

in a corporate setting is sometimes directly traceable to IT staff members

A

software piracy

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3
Q

are trade groups that represent the world’s largest software and hardware manufacturers

A

Software & Information Industry Association (SIIA) and the BSA | The Software Alliance (BSA)

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4
Q

promotes the common interests of the software and digital content industry

A

Software & Information Industry Association (SIIA)

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5
Q

informs the industry and the broader public by serving as a resource on trends, technologies, policies, and related issues that affect member firms and demonstrate the contribution of the industry to the broader economy

A

Software & Information Industry Association (SIIA)

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6
Q

funded both through dues based on member companies’ software revenue and through settlements from companies that commit piracy

A

The Software Alliance (BSA)

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7
Q

its membership includes about two dozen global members such as Adobe, Apple, Dell, IBM, Intuit, Microsoft, Oracle, and SAS Institute

A

The Software Alliance (BSA)

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8
Q

an information, generally unknown to the public, that a company has taken strong measures to keep confidential. It represents something of economic value that has required effort or cost to develop and that has some degree of uniqueness or novelty

A

trade secret

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9
Q

it can include the design of new software code, hardware designs, business plans, the design of a user interface to a computer program, and manufacturing processes.

A

trade secret

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10
Q

is an effort by an employee to attract attention to a negligent, illegal, unethical, abusive, or dangerous act by a company that threatens the public interest

A

whistle-blowing

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11
Q

they often have special information based on their expertise or position within the offending organization

A

whistle-blowers

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12
Q

is the crime of obtaining goods, services, or property through deception or trickery

A

fraud

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13
Q

the misstatement or incomplete statement of a material fact

A

misrepresentation

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14
Q

occurs when one party fails to meet the terms of a contract

A

breach of contract

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15
Q

occurs when a party fails to perform certain express or implied obligations, which impairs or destroys the essence of the contract

A

material breach of contract

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16
Q

frequent causes of problems in IT projects include the following:

A

scope creep
poor communication
delivery of an obsolete solution
legacy systems

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17
Q

Changes to the scope of the project or the system requirements can result in cost overruns, missed deadlines, and a project that fails to meet end-user expectations

A

scope creep

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18
Q

Miscommunication or a lack of communication between customer and vendor can lead to a system whose performance does not meet expectations

A

poor communication

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19
Q

The vendor delivers a system that meets customer requirements, but a competitor comes out with a system that offers more advanced and useful features

A

delivery of an obsolete solution

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20
Q

If a customer fails to reveal information about legacy systems or databases that must connect with the new hardware or software at the start of a project, implementation can become extremely difficult.

A

legacy systems

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21
Q

act of providing money, property, or favors to someone in business or government in order to obtain a business advantage

A

bribery

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22
Q

process established by an organization’s board of directors, managers, and IT systems people to provide reasonable assurance for the effectiveness and efficiency of operations, the reliability of financial reporting, and compliance with applicable laws and regulations

A

internal control

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23
Q

an organization’s internal control resources include all the

A

people
policies
processes
procedures
systems

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24
Q

guidelines and standards by which the organization must abide

A

policies

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25
Q

drive processes and procedures

A

policies

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26
Q

a collection of tasks designed to accomplish a stated objective

A

processes

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27
Q

defines the exact instructions for completing each task in a process

A

procedure

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28
Q

responsible for ensuring that an adequate system of internal control is set up, documented with written procedures, and implemented

A

management

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29
Q

responsible for assessing whether the internal controls have been implemented correctly and are functioning as designed; they report its findings to management

A

internal audit organization

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30
Q

made in secret, as they are neither legally nor morally acceptable

A

bribes

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31
Q

made indirectly through a third party

A

bribes

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32
Q

encourage an obligation for the recipient to act favorably toward the donor

A

bribes

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33
Q

made openly and publicly, as a gesture of friendship or goodwill

A

gifts

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34
Q

made directly from donor to recipient

A

gifts

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35
Q

come with no expectation of a future favor for the donor

A

gifts

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36
Q

most frequent areas of résumé falsehood or exaggeration

A

overstated skill set
job title
academic degrees earned
embroidered responsibility
awards

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37
Q

refers to a person who uses a hardware or software product; the term distinguishes end users from the IT workers who develop, install, service, and support the product

A

IT user

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38
Q

one who possesses the skill, good judgment, and work habits expected from a person who has the training and experience to do a job well

A

professional

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39
Q

states the principles and core values that are essential to the work of a particular occupational group

A

professional code of ethics

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40
Q

ACM means?

A

Association for Computing Machinery (ACM)

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41
Q

SANS means?

A

SysAdmin, Audit, Network, Security (SANS) Institute

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42
Q

IEEE-CS means?

A

Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers Computer Society (IEEE-CS)

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43
Q

AITP means?

A

Association of Information Technology Professionals (AITP)

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44
Q

indicates that a professional possesses a particular set of skills, knowledge, or abilities, in the opinion of the certifying organization

A

certification

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45
Q

Apple Certified Technical Coordinator

A

MAC OS X

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46
Q

Cisco Certified Design Associate

A

Cisco Hardware

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47
Q

Cisco Certified Network Professionals

A

Cisco Networking

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48
Q

Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert

A

Cisco Networking

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49
Q

Microsoft Certified Professional

A

Microsoft Products

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50
Q

Citrix Certified Administrator (CCA)

A

Citrix Products

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51
Q

Oracle Database 12c: Certified Expert Performance Management and Tuning

A

Oracle Database

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52
Q

Salesforce.com Certified Administrator

A

Salesforce Software

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53
Q

government-issued permission to engage in an activity or to operate a business

A

government license

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54
Q

software engineers shall adhere to the following eight principles:

A

public
client and employer
product
judgement
management
profession
colleagues
self

55
Q

defined as not doing something that a reasonable person would do or doing something that a reasonable person would not do.

A

negligence

56
Q

the failure to act as a reasonable person would act

A

breach of the duty of care

57
Q

Professionals who breach the duty of care are liable for injuries that their negligence causes. This liability is commonly referred to as

A

profession malpractice

58
Q

a corporate setting can sometimes be directly traceable to IT professionals—they might allow it to happen, or they might actively engage in it.

A

software piracy

59
Q

Some employees use their computers to surf popular websites that have nothing to do with their jobs, participate in chat rooms, view pornographic sites, and play computer games

A

Inappropriate Use of Computing Resources

60
Q

Every organization stores vast amounts of information that can be classified as either private or confidential.

A

Inappropriate Sharing of Information

61
Q

Common Ethical Issues for IT Users

A

Software Piracy
Inappropriate Use of Computing Resources
Inappropriate Sharing of Information

62
Q

a document that stipulates restrictions and practices that a user must agree to in order to use organizational computing and network resources

A

acceptable use policy (AUP)

63
Q

AUP’s five key elements

A

purpose of the AUP
scope
policy
compliance
sanctions

64
Q

their responsibilities include managing the processes, tools, and policies necessary to prevent, detect, document, and counter threats to digital and nondigital information, whether it is in transit, being processed, or at rest in storage

A

Information security (infosec) group

65
Q

hardware or software (or a combination of both) that serves as the first line of defense between an organization’s network and the Internet; a firewall also limits access to the company’s network based on the organization’s Internet-usage policy

66
Q

means to be in accordance with established policies, guidelines, specifications, or legislation

A

compliance

67
Q

a set of computer programs made up of a sequence of short commands called instructions that tell the computer what to do

68
Q

a sequence of short commands __ that tell the computer what to do

A

instructions

69
Q

software is in two forms:

A

ROM (read-only memory)
RAM (random access memory)

70
Q

computer’s more permanent memory

A

ROM (read-only memory)

71
Q

loaded on demand at runtime in less permanent but more volatile memory

A

RAM (random access memory)

72
Q

creates or develops a set of programs to meet the specifications of a user, if there is a contract, or of a specific problem if it is a general software

A

software producer or developer

73
Q

they are either individuals working alone or companies such as Microsoft, which employs hundreds of software engineers including analysts and programmers

A

developers

74
Q

they obtain the finished software from the developer to satisfy a need, basing their decision on developer claims

A

software buyers or customers

75
Q

consists of a series of random tests on the software during the development stage

A

development testing

76
Q

involves static formal mathematical techniques such as proof of correctness and dynamic techniques such as testing to show consistency between the code and the basic initial specifications

A

verification and validation (V&V)

77
Q

Standards

A

reliability
security
safety
quality
quality of service

78
Q

the probability that such a software does not encounter an input sequence that leads to failure

A

reliability of software

79
Q

a computer system software is __ if it protects its programs and data—in other words, if it does not contain trapdoors through which unauthorized intruders can access the system

80
Q

a state or a condition of passing through many forms or stages

A

polymorphism

81
Q

A software system is __ if a condition is created whereby there is a likelihood of an accident, a hazard, or a risk

82
Q

a technique that tries to improve software quality through a software development process known as the software quality function development (SQFD)

A

total quality management (TQM)

83
Q

represents a movement from the traditional techniques of TQM to the software development environment by focusing on improving the development process through upgrades in the requirement solicitation phase

A

software quality function development (SQFD)

84
Q

means providing consistent, predictable service delivery that will satisfy customer application requirements

A

quality of service (QoS)

85
Q

human factors

A

Memory lapses and attentional failures
rush to finish
malice
complacency

86
Q

For example, someone was supposed to have removed or added a line of code, tested, or verified but did not because of simple forgetfulness

A

Memory lapses and attentional failures

87
Q

The result of pressure, most often from management, to get the product on the market either to cut development costs or to meet a client deadline, can cause problems.

A

Rush to finish

88
Q

it has traditionally been used for vendetta, personal gain (especially monetary), and just irresponsible amusement.

89
Q

When either an individual or a software producer has significant experience in software development, it is easy to overlook certain testing and other error control measures in those parts of software that were tested previously in a similar or related product

A

complacency

90
Q

Nature of Software: Complexity

A

complexity
difficult testing
ease of programming

91
Q

a state or set of conditions of a system or an object that, together with other conditions in the environment of the system, or object, will lead inevitably to an accident

92
Q

hazard has two components:

A

severity and likelihood of occurrence

93
Q

a hazard level together with the likelihood of an accident to occur and the severity of the potential consequences

94
Q

it can also be defined in simpler terms as the potential or possibility of suffering harm or loss—danger, in short

95
Q

a process to estimate the impact of risk. It is an approach for system managers to measure the system’s assets and vulnerabilities, assessing the threat and monitoring security

A

risk management

96
Q

This involves identifying the software’s security vulnerabilities and may consist of a variety of techniques including question and answer, qualitative assessment, or methodology and calculation

A

assessment

97
Q

simple equation for calculating risk

A

Risk = Assets x Threats x Vulnerabilities

98
Q

involves outlining the policies for security management

99
Q

may seek to match the security needs of the system with all available security tools

A

good implementation

100
Q

helps to determine the necessary changes and new security applications to the system

A

monitoring

101
Q

a general attitude and approach to safety consisting of overconfidence, complacency, placing low priority on safety, and accepting flawed resolutions of conflicting goals

102
Q

in the maiden days of the “__,” risk and vulnerability of both the computer user and data were not a problem

A

Wonder Machine

103
Q

a computer-controlled electronic-accelerator radiation-therapy system developed by Atomic Energy of Canada, Ltd. (AECL). Between 1985 and 1987, the system was involved in a number of accidents, some resulting in deaths because of radiation overdose

A

Therac–25

104
Q

machine works by creating a high-energy beam of electrons targeted to the cancerous tumor, leaving the healthy tissue surrounding the tumor unaffected

A

Therac–25

105
Q

The Union Carbide industrial accident in Bhopal, India, illustrates many of the elements of this safety culture. In December 1984, an accidental release of methyl isocyanate killed between 2,000 and 3,000 people and injured tens of thousands of others, many of them permanently. The accident was later blamed on human error

A

The Indian Bhopal Chemical Accident

106
Q

Accident in northern Ukraine, then a republic of the USSR, was the worst nuclear accident that has ever occurred. For a number of days after the accident, the Soviet government kept the world guessing at what was happening.

A

The Chernobyl Nuclear Power Accident

107
Q

a game of wits played between the buyer and the seller

A

asset purchasing

108
Q

an official commitment that prevails between a service provider and a client. Particular aspects of the service— quality, availability, and responsibilities—are agreed between the service provider and the service user

A

service-level agreement (SLA)

109
Q

An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services they use

A

Customer-based SLA

110
Q

An agreement for all customers using the services being delivered by the service provider

A

Service-based SLA

111
Q

The SLA is split into the different levels, each addressing different set of customers for the same services, in the same SLA

A

Multilevel SLA

112
Q

Covering all the generic service-level management (often abbreviated as SLM) issues appropriate to every customer throughout the organization

A

Corporate-level SLA

113
Q

covering all SLM issues relevant to the particular customer group, regardless of the services being used

A

Customer-level SLA

114
Q

covering all SLM issue relevant to the specific services, in relation to this specific customer group

A

Service-level SLA

115
Q

Clearly defined promises reduce the chances of disappointing a customer

A

Customer commitments

116
Q

a meeting of the minds on issues such as the price bargained or agreed upon, the amount paid or promised to be paid, and any agreement enforceable by law

A

Mutual consent

117
Q

are guarantees that the product or service will live up to its reasonable expectations

A

warranties

118
Q

an affirmation of a fact, a promise, or a description of goods, a sample, or a model made by the seller to the buyer relating to the goods and as a basis for payment negotiations

A

express warranties

119
Q

are enforced by law according to established and accepted public policy

A

implied warranties

120
Q

If a software product injures a user other than the buyer, the user may sue the producer for benefits due to injuries or loss of income resulting from the product. They are not common because they are rarely found valid in courts.

A

Third-Party Beneficiary Contracts

121
Q

Producers try to control their liability losses by putting limits on warranties via __. Producers preempt lawsuits from buyers by telling buyers in writing on the contracts the limits of what is guaranteed

A

disclaimers

122
Q

means the buyer beware

A

caveat emptor

123
Q

a wrong committed upon a person or property in the absence of a contract. it may include negligence, malpractice, strict liability, and misrepresentation. it falls into two categories: intentional and unintentional

124
Q

can be used by the buyer to obtain benefits from the producer if there is provable evidence that the product lacked a certain degree of care, skill, and competence in the workmanship

A

negligence

125
Q

a type of negligence. It is also applicable in cases involving services

A

malpractice

126
Q

a tort involving products

A

strict liability

127
Q

may be intentionally done by the sales representative to induce the buyer to buy the product or it may be just a genuine mistake

A

misrepresentation

128
Q

you need to prove that the vendor was aware the facts given were not true or that the vendor would have known the true facts but opted not to inform the buyer accordingly

A

fraudulent misrepresentation

129
Q

intentional misrepresentation is called?

A

fraudulent misrepresentation

130
Q

Presentation of the software product by a person more familiar with the product to others with competent knowledge of that product so they can critique the product and offer informed suggestions

A

Formal review

131
Q

Involves checking the known specific errors from past products and establishing additional facilities that may be missing in the product to bring the product up to acceptable standards

A

inspection

132
Q

Requires code inspection line-by-line by a team of reviewers to detect potential errors

A

walk-through

133
Q

technique developed by Knight and Mayers. it is an enhanced method combining the previous three methods by putting emphasis on the limitations of those methods

A

phased inspection

134
Q

they need to protect themselves against piracy, illegal copying, and fraudulent lawsuits

A

software producers