Day 11 (3): Basic Motility and Vision Examination Flashcards

1
Q

What is Normal Retinal Correspondence?

A
  • describes the normal binocular relationship of the eyes in which TRUE anatomic foveas are linked together in the cortical area
  • images which fall roughly on the same retinal areas relative to the fovea (CORRESPONDING AREAS) are perceived as lying in the same visual direction
  • patient uses the real fovea to be able to fuse a single image
  • present when stimulation of corresponding retinal points produce SINGLE vision
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2
Q

What is Anomalous Retinal Correspondence?

A
  • an ADAPTATION mechanism IMMATURE visual systems to prevent diplopia
  • adaptation of the brain to a SMALL-angle strabismus wherein the brain uses a PSEUDOfovea on one eye superimposed with the true fovea on the other eye to fuse an image
  • eye’s attempt to regain binocularity and stereopsis
  • (+) fusion inspite of a manifest misalignment
  • present ONLY in BInocular conditions: when the fixating eye is occluded (monocular condition), the deviated eye would shift back to using its true anatomic fovea
  • present when:
  1. stimulation of corresponding retinal points produce diplopia, OR
  2. stimulation of disparate retinal points produce single vision
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3
Q

What are the two types of ARC?

A

Amblyoscope:
- Angle of Anomaly NOT ZERO
- Objective angle NOT = Subjective angle
- image superimposition DOES NOT happen at the true foveas [O not = S] thus (+) PSEUDOfovea [AoA not = 0]

Harmonious ARC
- superimposition occurs with Subjective angle at ZERO
- Angle of Anomaly = Objective angle of Deviation
- indicates that the ARC fully corresponds to the strabismus
- distance of the pseudofovea from the true fovea EQUAL angle of deviation
- images are still fusible even if the eye is deviated thus awareness of diplopia and confusion is eliminated

Unharmonious ARC
- superimposition occurs with SUBJECTIVE angle BETWEEN zero and objective angle
- Angle of anomaly < Objective angle of Deviation
- distance of the pseudofovea from the true fovea NOT EQUAL angle of deviation
- images are not fusible thus (+) diplopia or (+) suppression

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4
Q

What is Eccentric Fixation?

A
  • failure of an eye in MONOcular vision to take up fixation with the fovea, instead using an EXTRAfoveal point
  • when the fixating eye is occluded, deviated eye will still use the extrafoveal area
  • NO fusion: poor vision and diplopia
  • hardly occurs except in clinical conditions as the patient is generally not fixating with the affected eye anyway
  • present in BOTH monocular and binocular conditions

vs NH-ARC:
- present ONLY in BInocular conditions
- when fixating eye is occluded, deviated eye shifts back to the TRUE fovea

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5
Q

What is Monofixation Syndrome?

A
  • unilateral macular scotoma (central suppression)
  • INTACT peripheral fusion
  • due to small-angle deviations (< 8 PD)

Causes:
1. unilateral macular lesion
2. inability to fuse single macular images
3. anisometropia: unequal EoR
4. surgical treatment for large-angle strabismus (> 10 PD)

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6
Q

What is Angle Kappa?

A
  • angle between the VISUAL AXIS (line connecting the fixation point with the fovea) and the PUPILLARY AXIS (line that perpendicularly passes through the pupil and the center of curvature of the cornea
  • identified clinically by the NASAL displacement of the corneal light reflex from the pupil center
  • represents a misalignment of light passing through the refractive surface of the cornea and the bundle of light formed by the pupil
  • as the fovea lies slightly temporal to the point at which the pupillary axis intersects with the posterior pole of the globe, the NORMAL angle kappa is SLIGHTLY POSITIVE
  • causes PSEUDOstrabismus as a COMPENSATORY mechanism to align the visual axis to the pupillary axis

POSITIVE AK
- EXOtropic-like pseudostrabismus
- true fovea is TEMPORAL to the point at which the pupillary axis intersects with the posterior pole of the globe
- in order to align both points, the eye needs to ABDUCT (rotate TEMPORALLY) to move the fovea nasally
- CLR: found nasally

NEGATIVE AK
- ESOtropic-like pseudostrabismus
- true fovea is NASAL to the point at which the pupillary axis intersects with the posterior pole of the globe
- in order to align both points, the eye needs to ADDUCT (rotate NASALLY) to move the fovea temporally
- CLR: found temporally

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7
Q

Differentiate Phoria from Tropia.

A

HeteroPHORIA
- latent/unmanifested deviation
- exist in MONOcular conditions ONLY: deviation does not manifest until binocularity is disrupted
- present sometimes and may disappear

  1. Esophoria: nasal deviation (adducted)
  2. Exophoria: temporal deviation (abducted)
  3. Hyperphoria: superior deviation (elevated)
  4. Hypophoria: inferior deviation (depressed)
  5. Orthophoria: NO deviation

HeteroTROPIA
- manifest/unmasked deviation
- exist in BInocular conditions: deviation is grossly seen even without disruption of fusion
- present all the time

  1. Esotropia: nasal deviation (adducted)
  2. Exotropia: temporal deviation (abducted)
  3. Hypertropia: superior deviation (elevated)
  4. Hypotropia: inferior deviation (depressed)
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8
Q

What should be the first part of the examination of the patient?

A

OBSERVATION
- begins as soon as the patient enters the room
- especially for children who will start crying once examined closely

  1. Lid Fissures: unequal fissures, ptosis
  2. Globe position: wide intercanthal spaces, facial asymmetry
  3. Manifest deviations (Tropias)
  4. Head postures
    - (+) nystagmus: turn head OPPOSITE the side of the nystagmus where there is LEAST movement
    - (+) diplopia: turn head TOWARDS direction with the LEAST doubling of vision
    - (+) paretic eye: head turned TOWARDS paretic eye to shift focus back to true fovea
    - (+) uncorrected EoR, astigmatism
    - (+) stiff sternocleidomastoid
    - (+) hearing anomalies
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9
Q

What are the different sensory examinations done to assess strabismus?

A
  • used to check for binocular fusion: ability to fuse two images viewed with both eyes
  • done BEFORE disruption of binocularity with VA tests and cover-uncover test
  • wear proper correction to get BCVA
  1. Stereopsis test
    - Titmus Fly Test
    - Lang Stereotest
    - Frisby Stereotest
  2. Worth 4-Dot test
  3. Bagolini Striated Glasses test
  4. 4-PD Base Out Prism test
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10
Q

What is stereopsis?

A
  • DEPTH perception: HIGHEST form of binocular fusion
  • ability of the eyes to fuse images that simultaneously fall on DISPARATE retinal areas BUT within the Panum’s area, resulting in 3D perception
  • major contributor to depth perception obtained through binocular vision
  • due to horizontal/binocular disparities: each eye receives a different image due to slightly different positions on one’s head
  • perceived depth INCREASES with INCREASING disparity but TOO MUCH disparity will eventually cause loss in stereopsis leading to DIPLOPIA
  • good stereopsis indicates brain’s ability to fuse images and recognize depth

Tests for Stereopsis
- (+) gross stereopsis = good binocularity = NO need to do other sensory tests

  1. Titmus Fly test
  2. Lang Stereotest
  3. Frisby Stereotest
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11
Q

What is the Titmus Fly test?

A
  • uses polarized glasses similar to 3D glasses to see depth
  • used to assess stereopsis in children
  • pt is asked to pinch the wings of the fly while wearing the glasses

Results:
- pinch mid-air: (+) stereopsis
- pinch or finger flat on the paper: (-) stereopsis

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12
Q

What is the Lang Stereotest?

A
  • based on random dot patterns
  • polarized glasses not needed to perform test
  • assess stereopsis in as young as 6 months
  • separate images are provided to each eye
  • series of images are presented with gradually smaller disparity
  • the smaller the disparity identified, the better the stereoacuity grading
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13
Q

What is the Frisby Stereotest?

A
  • presents real depth objects viewed with natural vision
  • each plate has four random-pattern squares with a circle of pattern elements lying in depth relative to its surround
  • depth effect is due to circle and surround being printed on opposite sides of the plate
  • has 3 plates allowing for testing stereo acuity disparity as fine as 15 seconds of arc
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14
Q

What is the Worth 4-Dot Test?

A
  • done in COOPERATIVE patients and even young children
  • tests for motor fusion and to identify suppression
  • patient is shown 4 dots:
    + Upper dot: Red
    + Lower dot: White
    + Horizontal dots: Green

Set-up:
1. Left eye: Green glass
- blocks red color
- sees the two green dots and one white dot
2. Right eye: Red glass
- blocks green color
- sees the one red dot and one white dot
3. Testing distance
- NEAR: 1 feet (for peripheral fusion)
- DISTANCE: 6 meters (for central fusion)

Results:
1. 4 Dots: NRC (Orthophoric) or ARC (Strabismus)
- white dot can be green, red or pink

  1. 5 Dots: (+) Diplopia
  2. 2 Red Dots (upper and lower dot)
    - (+) Left suppression
  3. 3 Green Dots (horizontal and lower dot)
    - (+) Right suppression

Special circumstance: Monofixation Syndrome
- (+) CENTRAL suppression
- intact PERIPHERAL fusion
- manifests only at FAR testing distances (6 m)

FAR testing distance (6 m)
- testing angle is WITHIN the angle of the suppression scotoma
- 2 Red Dots: Left suppression
- 3 Green Dots: Right suppression

NEAR testing distances
- testing angle is OUTSIDE the angle of the suppression scotoma
- 4 Dots (1 Red, 2 Green, 1 Any)

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15
Q

What is the Bagolini Striated Glasses Test?

A
  • done in COOPERATIVE, OLDER patients because they need to properly describe what they see
  • tests for retinal correspondence and to identify suppression
  • test most likely to allow the demonstration of fusion in patients who fuse intermittently
  • (+) ARC: Binocular Single Vision (BSV) BUT with a strabismus on cover test

Set-up:
1. Patient is asked to wear glasses with angulated striations:
+ Left eye: 45 degree striations (line: )
+ Right eye: 135 degree striations (line: /)
2. Testing distance: 6 meters
3. Lights ON

Questions:
Ask how many LIGHT POINTS are seen:
- TWO: Diplopia (Crossed vs Uncrossed)
- ONE: BSV or Total Suppression

–> Ask how many LINES are seen:
- ONE: TOTAL Suppression
- TWO: BSV

–> Ask if lines are COMPLETE:
- Complete: No suppression/scotoma
- Incomplete: Central (Monofixation) or Peripheral (Scotoma)

–> Do Cover Test if BSV:
- if (-) shift: Orthophoric + NRC
- if (+) shift: Strabismus + ARC

Results:
1. Complete X: BSV
- see a cross with ONE light point in the middle
- means fusion is intact
- do cover test to differentiate NRC from ARC

  1. Incomplete X
    - BSV/fusion intact since (+) X but with a gap
    - the line with the gap corresponds to the eye with the suppression or scotoma
    - remember to always confirm if the lines seen are complete or with gaps

A. Monofixation Syndrome
- central suppression + intact peripheral fusion
- gap is centrally located
- due to small deviations (< 8 PD)

B. Peripheral Scotoma
- gap is peripherally located
- due to larger deviations (> 10 PD)
- larger shift = larger scotoma = larger gap

  1. Entire line missing: (+) Total Suppression
    - /: Left suppression
    - : Right suppression
  2. CROSSED diplopia: EXOTROPIA
    - see TWO light points
    - light point of L crosses to the R while that of R crosses to the L because
    - because eye is ABDUCTED, object point falls on the TEMPORAL hemiretina
    - this is interpreted by the brain as coming from the NASAL visual field thus line appears to move more NASALLY
  3. UNCROSSED diplopia: ESOTROPIA
    - see TWO light points
    - light point of L remains to the L while that of R remains to the R
    - because eye is ADDUCTED, object point falls on the NASAL hemiretina
    - this is interpreted by the brain as coming from the TEMPORAL visual field thus line appears to move more TEMPORALLY
  4. Hypotropia:
    - object point falls on INFERIOR retina responsible for SUPERIOR visual field
    - LEFT: \ higher than /
    - RIGHT: / higher than \
  5. Hypertropia:
    - object point falls on SUPERIOR retina responsible for INFERIOR visual field
    - LEFT: \ lower than /
    - RIGHT: / lower than \
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16
Q

Differentiate ESOtropia from EXOtropia.

A

ESOtropia
- Convergent squint: eye moves nasally or inward
- instead of focusing on the fovea, light falls on the NASAL RETINA which corresponds to the TEMPORAL FIELD
- two UNCROSSED images will be seen:
+ fixating eye: central fixation point
+ esotropic eye: TEMPORALLY-displaced

EXOtropia
- Divergent squint: eye moves temporally or outward
- instead of focusing on the fovea, light falls on the TEMPORAL RETINA which corresponds to the NASAL FIELD
- two CROSSED images will be seen:
+ fixating eye: central fixation point
+ exotropic eye: NASALLY-displaced

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17
Q

What is Hering’s Law of Reciprocal Innervation?

A
  • Isolated innervations to an EOM do NOT occur nor can the muscles from one eye be innervated alone
  • to perform an eye movement (cardinal gaze), impulses are always integrated between YOLK muscles
  • yolk muscles of each eye receive EQUAL and SIMULTANEOUS innervation to perform a cardinal gaze movement

E.g. Levoversion or Left gaze
- LLR and RMR receive equal innervation to turn both eyes towards the left side

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18
Q

What is the 4-PD Base Out Test?

A

Note: Prisms bend light TOWARDS base

  • used to determine if the patient has sensory fusion or a small suppression scotoma
  • objective screening test to check for foveal suppression especially in patients with microtropia (small-angle strabismus)
  • done under BInocular conditions

Steps:
1. 4 PD prism is held BASE OUT in front of one eye while the patient fixates on a target.
2. Look for any biphasic movements on the fellow eye.

How does it work?
- a BASE OUT prism displaces the light entering the eye TOWARDS the base or TEMPORALLY at the temporal retina
- to compensate, the eye needs to ADDUCT or move inwards to move the fovea temporally where the light falls
- Hering’s Law: adduction of ipsilateral eye via MR causes abduction of the contralateral eye via LR to maintain proper gaze position
- if the fellow eye is normal, it will display biphasic movements:

Phase 1: Abduction due to Hering’s Law
- causes fovea to move nasally thus entering light will fall on the TEMPORAL retina

Phase 2: Corrective adduction
- to fixate properly, fellow eye needs to adduct back to normal position to use its fovea
- failure of this phase will cause diplopia

What happens in ARC?
- true fovea of the fixating eye already corresponds with a pseudofovea in the deviated eye
- even when a prism is in front of the normal eye, (+) BSV but will NOT display corrective adduction and will remain deviated

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19
Q

What is the purpose of obtaining visual acuity in strabismus cases?

A

Purpose:
1. Determine baseline vision
2. Gauge improvement, stability or worsening of vision after ophthalmic intervention

  • Done once all necessary sensory tests are performed because this will involve disrupting the pt’s binocularity
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20
Q

How is visual acuity defined in the different patient age groups?

A

Cooperative and Verbal or Literate
- measures the ability to resolve details
- discern a target of ever decreasing size from a given distance

Uncooperative, Pre-Verbal or Illiterate
- assesses the sensory and motor responses to a stimulus at varied distances and locations
- motor responses are used to gauge a sensory function
- problem: absence of a response could be due to a problem in the efferent (oculomotor) pathway and not in the afferent (optic nerve) pathway

2 Types:
1. Indirect Vision Assessment
- used in toddlers or infants with whom vision comparison between the 2 eyes is more important than getting the quantitative VA of each eye

  1. Resolution Acuity Tests
    - measurable and quantifiable tests for older but pre-verbal or pre-literate children
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21
Q

What are the different tests used in the INDIRECT assessment of visual acuity?

A
  1. Dazzle
    - stimulus: bright light
    - response: blinking
    - present if > 30 weeks AOG
  2. Threat
    - stimulus: threatening gesture
    - response: blinking
    - present in > 5 months old
  3. Fixates and Follows
    - stimulus: moving faces or toys with good details
    - response: maintains fixation and follows as object is moved
  4. CSM
    - Central: corneal light reflex centrally-located
    - Steady: NO nystagmus
    - Maintained: maintains fixation and follows as object is moved
22
Q

What are Resolution Acuity tests?

A
  • MEASURABLE and QUANTIFIABLE tests for older but pre-verbal or pre-literate children
  1. Optokinetic Nystagmus Response test
  2. Visual Evoked Potential
  3. Teller Acuity Cards test
  4. Cardiff Cards test
  5. Sheridan Gardiner test
  6. LEA Chart
  7. Tumbling E
23
Q

How is Optokinetic Nystagmus Response test done?

A
  • drum containing black and white stripes of varying widths is shown at near distance
  • drum is rotated and the patient attempts to follow the stripes by moving both eyes up to pick up new stripes as the old ones disappear
  • grading of VA depends on the width of the shown stripes
  • the THINNER the stripes that can be followed by the patient, the HIGHER the VA
24
Q

What are Visual Evoked Potentials?

A
  • electrical brain responses triggered by presentation of a visual stimulus
  • electrodes are strapped to the pt’s occiput while visual stimuli is presented to the patient at near using a TV
  • the electrodes will capture the electric signals evoked from the brain as display it in a graph
25
Q

What are Teller Acuity Cards?

A
  • works similarly to the Optokinetic Nystagmus Response test but uses cards displaying vertical stripes of variable widths
  • if the pattern is recognized, pt will fixate and move the eyes to the left or the right toward the area where the stripes are
  • the exam is ended once the pt no longer fixates, moves the eyes and loses attention because this means the pattern is not recognized anymore
  • grading of VA depends on the width of the shown stripes
  • the THINNER the stripes that can be followed by the patient, the HIGHER the VA
26
Q

What is Amblyopia?

A
  • a developmental disorder of cortical origin
  • characterized by crowding and poor VA EVEN in the CENTRAL vision
27
Q

What is the crowding phenomenon?

A
  • perceptual phenomenon where the recognition of objects presented far from the fovea (periphery) is impaired by the presence of other neighboring objects (flankers)
  • predominantly a characteristic of peripheral vision BUT is present in the entire visual field
  • surrounding items impair identification of objects located in the peripheral field BUT should minimally affect central vision
28
Q

What are Cardiff cards?

A
  • works similarly to the Teller Acuity cards but displays figures drawn in white with black outline in a gray background to provide contrast
  • if the pattern is recognized, pt will fixate and move the eyes up or down toward the area of the card where the figure is
  • exam is ended once the pt no longer fixates, moves the eyes and loses attention because this means the pattern is not recognized
  • grading of VA depends on the thickness of the white outline of the figure
  • the THINNER the white outline of the figure recognized, the HIGHER the VA
  • AVOIDS crowding phenomenon; thus, those with amblyopia tend to do better
29
Q

What is the Sheridan Gardiner and the LEA chart?

A
  • these two tests require a cooperative pt who can follow instructions
  • the patient is presented with a board containing letters or shapes of gradually decreasing size and their matching cutouts
  • the patient is then asked to match the pointed figure in the board with the cutouts provided
  • grading of VA depends on the size of the
    recognized figures
  • the SMALLER the figure the patient is able to match, the HIGHER the VA

Sheridan Gardiner test
- uses letters

LEA Chart
- uses shapes

30
Q

What is the Tumbling E test?

A
  • require a cooperative pt who can follow instructions
  • the patient is presented with a board containing the letter E with varying orientations and gradually decreasing size
  • the patient is then asked to match the orientation of the pointed “E” with the cut-out provided
  • grading of VA depends on the size of the
    recognized E
  • the SMALLER the “E” the patient is able to match, the HIGHER the VA
31
Q

What are the different test charts used to obtain the VA in cooperative and verbal or literate patients?

A
  • measures the ability to resolve details
  • discern a target of ever decreasing size from a given distance
  • the patients stands or sits at a distance of 20 feet or 6 meters and starts reading the letters beginning from the largest at the top upto the smallest possible letter that can be discerned
  1. Snellen Chart
  2. Bailey Lovie Chart
  3. ETDRS Chart
32
Q

What are the different motor tests done on pts with strabismus?

A
  1. Bruckner Test
  2. Corneal Light Reflex Tests
  3. Cover Tests
33
Q

What is the Bruckner test?

A
  • simplest and least sensitive motor test
  • the examiner looks through a DO positioned 1 meter from the patient and shines a light on the bridge of the nose as the patient looks straight
  • the COLOR, BRIGHTNESS and CENTRATION of the red reflex is compared between the two eyes
  • also useful in identifying media opacities and estimating errors of refraction

Results:
1. Emmetropic and Orthotropic
- equally red, bright and centered

  1. Refractive Errors
    - crescents of different brightness
    - Hyperopia: superior centered crescent
    - Myopia: inferior centered crescent
    - Astigmatism: decentered crescent
  2. Strabismus
    - the RPE in the peripheral fundus is less pigmented thus less light is absorbed and more is reflected back = BRIGHTER
    - fixating eye: DULLER and darker reflex
    - deviated eye: BRIGHTER but lighter reflex
34
Q

What are the Corneal Light Reflex tests?

A
  • involves looking at the centration or decentration of the reflection of light shone on the cornea with respect to the position of the globe
  • normal: light reflex should be in the same position in both eyes
  1. Hirschberg Test
  2. Krimsky Test
  3. Modified Krimsky Test
35
Q

What is the Hirschberg Test?

A
  • estimation of manifest deviation by observing the degree of decentration of the light reflex from the center of the cornea
  • reference point: pupils
  • unit of measurement: degrees

Classification:
1. ESOtropia: TEMPORAL to pupil
2. EXOtropia: NASAL to pupil
3. HYPERtropia: INFERIOR to pupil
4. HYPOtropia: SUPERIOR to pupil

Estimation of degree of deviation:
1. Center of pupil: Normal/Undeviated
2. Pupil margin: 15 degrees
3. Middle of iris: 30 degrees
4. Limbus: 45 degrees

36
Q

How are prisms used to accurately measure the amount of eye deviation?

A

Prisms
- bends light (and image) towards the BASE
- power is measured in PRISM DIOPTERS
- 2 PD = 1 degree deviation
- Prism direction: prism apex TOWARDS the direction of deviation
+ ESOtropia: base OUT
+ EXOtropia: base IN
+ HYPERtropia: base DOWN
+ HYPOtropia: base UP
- comes in 2 forms:

  1. Plastic
    - back surface of the prism is placed along the FRONTAL plane or flat to the face of the pt
    - back surface perpendicular to long axis of ORBIT
    - closely approximates the minimum deviation position
  2. Glass
    - prism is placed in the PRENTICE position
    - back surface of the prism is placed perpendicular to the long axis of the GLOBE
    - light enters the prism at an angle of 90° to the first surface, so that the beam does not refract at that surface

E.g.
Esotropia neutralized using a 60 PD prism is deviated 30 degrees from the center

Types:
1. Prims Bar Cover Test
- gold standard
- requires cooperative patients with good fixation
- requires good visual acuity

  1. Krimsky Test
    - done in uncooperative and poorly fixating patients (children)
    - prism placed in FIXATING eye
  2. Modified Krimsky Test
    - done in uncooperative and poorly fixating patients (children)
    - prism placed in DEVIATED eye
37
Q

What is the Krimsky Test?

A
  • prisms of increasing power are placed on the FIXATING eye until corneal light reflex is centered on the deviated eye
  • measures deviation at near: pt fixates on the examiner or a NEAR target
  • used in uncooperative or poorly fixating pts

How does it work?
E.g. ESOtropia = base OUT
1. Without prism in front of the fixating eye, light falls on the fovea.
2. Placing a prism, refracts light towards its base or the temporal hemiretina.
3. Fixating eye will attempt to ADDUCT to rotate the fovea TEMPORALLY and meet the incoming light rays; however, since it is fixating at a near object, no eye movement is observed.
4. In accordance to the Hering’s Law of Equal Innervation, the increased innervation of the RMR in an attempt to adduct the fixating eye should be met with a corresponding increased innervation of the LLR to simulate a left gaze, thereby slowly correcting the esotropia in the other eye.
5. With increasing power of the placed prism, light becomes directed more temporally, increasing the innervation on the RMR and LLR, eventually correcting the deviation and centering the light reflex on the deviated eye.

38
Q

What is the Modified Krimsky Test?

A
  • prisms of increasing power are placed on the DEVIATED eye until the corneal light reflex is centered on the pupil of the deviated eye
  • amount of deviation is equal to the power of the prism required to center the corneal light reflex divided by 2 (2 PD = 1 degree deviation)
  • preferred method for deviations due to muscle palsies (no eye movement necessary)
39
Q

What are Cover tests?

A
  • best and most accurate method in detecting strabismus
  • gold standard for the objective method for determining the presence, type, and magnitude of strabismus
  • can unmask deviations even in those with good control once binocularity is disrupted

Prerequisites:
1. Cooperative patient
2. Can maintain good and sustained fixation

Accommodative Target
1. Distance fixation: 20 feet/6 meters away
- 2 - 3 lines above the BCVA
- toys at a distance

  1. Near fixation: 14 inches/33 cm away
    - face or nose
    - toys at near
    - Jaeger chart

Set-up:
1. Pt seated and in a forced 1 degree or straight head position
2. Should fixate at DISTANCE on an accommodative target
3. Wearing best correction available

Types:
1. Unilateral Cover test: tropia
2. Simultaneous Prism Cover test: measure tropia
3. Cover-Uncover test: phoria
4. Alternate Cover test: full deviation
5. Alternate Prism Cover test: measure full deviation

40
Q

What is the Unilateral Cover test?

A
  • determine if a heteroTROPIA is present
  • attention is focused on the UNOCCLUDED eye once the occlusion is removed
  • occlusion of eyes is kept brief (2 - 3 seconds only) so as not to disrupt binocular fusion which can make the deviation appear larger by superimposing a phoria on top of the tropia

Steps:
1. First eye is covered for 1 - 2 seconds.
2. Uncovered eye is observed for any shifts in fixation.
3. Occlusion is removed and any refixation is noted under binocular conditions.
4. This process of covering and uncovering the same eye is repeated 2-3 times to verify your observation before moving over to perform the test in the fellow eye.
5. Similar steps are repeated on the opposite eye making sure to wait a few seconds from the previous eye so as not to suspend fusion and prevent phoria to manifest.

Results
- No shift in fixation:
1. Orthotropic: confirm with occlusion of opposite eye and no shift in fixation seen in BOTH eyes even with bracketing (2 - 4 PD)
2. Heterotropic: but the covered eye is the deviated eye and the uncovered eye is the fixating eye
- Eye refixates medially: EXOtropia
- Eye refixates temporally: ESOtropia
- Eye refixates superiorly: HYPOtropia
- Eye refixates inferiorly: HYPERtropia

41
Q

What is the Simultaneous Prism Cover test?

A
  • determine the Angle of Deviation once a TROPIA is diagnosed after a Unilateral Cover test
  • preferred test in small-angle tropias or deviations associated with Monofixation syndrome
  • binocularity is not disrupted to avoid manifesting an underlying phoria
  1. Occlude the fixating or undeviated eye
  2. A prism of varying power that is oriented in the appropriate direction for the deviation is placed over the DEVIATED eye:
    - ESOtropia: base OUT
    - EXOtropia: base IN
    - HYPERtropia: base DOWN
    - HYPOtropia: base UP

End-point: Neutralization at _______ PD
- NO refixation shift seen in the deviated eye

42
Q

What is the Cover-Uncover test?

A
  • to determine if a heteroPHORIA is present
  • presents only when binocular fusion is disrupted
  • performed similarly to the Unilateral Cover test but instead, attention is focused on the OCCLUDED eye once the occlusion is removed

(+) Phoria:
- UNcovered eye does not show refixation shift
- COVERED eye shows refixation shift once occlusion is removed and binocularity is restored
- results:
+ Eye refixates medially: EXOtropia
+ Eye refixates temporally: ESOtropia
+ Eye refixates superiorly: HYPOtropia
+ Eye refixates inferiorly: HYPERtropia

43
Q

What is the Alternate Cover test?

A
  • allows the FULL deviation (tropia + phoria) to manifest by disrupting binocularity
  • performed after Unilateral Cover test as this is the MOST DISSOCIATIVE of the cover tests
  • involves occluding one eye for several seconds to disrupt fusion then shifting the occluder to the other eye and rapidly alternating back and forth WITHOUT allowing resumption of binocular fusion by keeping one eye always occluded
  • occlude each eye long enough that pt has time to fixate with uncovered eye as occluder is shifted back and forth especially in amblyopia
  • attention is focused on the OCCLUDED eye once the occlusion is removed
  • both horizontal or vertical deviations may be present at the same time

Results:
- Eye refixates medially: EXOtropia
- Eye refixates temporally: ESOtropia
- Eye refixates superiorly: HYPOtropia
- Eye refixates inferiorly: HYPERtropia

44
Q

What is the Alternate Prism Cover test?

A
  • most accurate way to measure the FULL Angle of Deviation (tropia + phoria) once determined to be present by an Alternate Cover test
  • horizontal and vertical prisms can be stacked over the same eye BUT two prisms oriented in the SAME DIRECTION CANNOT be used.
  • can be performed in all 9 cardinal gazes and head tilt if necessary
  • preferred to be done at DISTANCE (6 meters/20 feet) because some deviations manifest better at distance vision
  1. Occlude the fixating or undeviated eye
  2. A prism of varying power that is oriented in the appropriate direction for the deviation is placed over the DEVIATED eye:
    - ESOdeviation: base OUT
    - EXOdeviation: base IN
    - HYPERdeviation: base DOWN
    - HYPOdeviation: base UP
  3. Perform the Alternate Cover test.

End-point: Neutralization at _______ PD
- NO refixation shift seen in both eyes

45
Q

What are the causes of variability in measurements obtained with the cover tests?

A
  1. Poor control of accommodation
  2. Variable working distance bet. follow-ups
  3. Fusion not disrupted in between tests
  4. Inconsistent head positioning
    - important especially in pattern strabismus because measurement of strabismus differs with gaze direction
  5. Uncooperative or VA is uncorrected and cannot fixate properly.
46
Q

What are the different cardinal gaze directions?

A

DUCTION: monocular (one eye occluded)
1. Adducted: towards midline (nasally)
2. Abducted: away from midline (temporally)
3. Elevation: upwards
4. Depression: downwards
5. Intorsion: internal rotation
6. Extorsion: external rotation

VERSION: binocular
1. Levoversion: left gaze
2. Dextroversion: right gaze
3. Supraversion: upward gaze
4. Infraversion: downward gaze
5. Levocycloversion: rotation to the left
6. Dextrocycloversion: rotation to the right

VERGENCE: movement towards opposite direction
1. Convergence: both looking nasally
2. Divergence: both looking temporally

47
Q

How is the motility examination done?

A
  • determines the presence of an abnormality in the EOM involved in the eye movement
  • the 9 cardinal gazes are elicited with each gaze corresponding to an isolated action of a specific EOM

Step 1: Primary Gaze
- manifest eye deviations
- gross abnormalities (ptosis, lid fissure anomalies, lesions)

Step 2: Horizontal Gazes (Left, Right)
- involves horizontal rectus muscles
- underaction or overaction
- lid changes with eye deviation

Step 3: Vertical Gazes (Up, Down)
- involves BOTH vertical rectus and oblique muscles
- underaction or overaction
- alphabet patterns (A or V)

Step 4: Oblique Gazes
- involves EITHER vertical rectus or oblique muscles depending on gaze direction and eye
- IO: draw an imaginary line from 6 o’ clock limbus of one eye to the other to see if aligned
- SO: draw an imaginary line from 12 o’ clock limbus of one eye to the other to see if aligned

48
Q

What are Pattern Strabismus?

A

Alphabet Patterns
- due to difference in magnitude of a horizontal deviation between UPgaze and DOWNgaze
- most common cause: oblique muscle dysfunction
- most common types:
1. V-Pattern - most common
2. A-Pattern - 2nd common
3. Y-Pattern
4. X-Pattern
5. Lambda-Pattern

Causes:
- oblique muscle dysfunction: most common
+ V-pattern: IO overaction
+ A-pattern: SO overaction
- V-pattern: in craniofacial syndrome patients due to abnormal orbital pulley system
- X-pattern: in Duane syndrome patients due to horizontal muscle restriction

To determine pattern:
- look at the eye position in primary gaze, upgaze and downgaze
- associated with overshooting of the involved muscle

49
Q

What is V-Pattern Strabismus?

A

V-Pattern [VIO or OEAD]
- most common alphabet pattern
- due to IO overaction:
+ OverElevation in ADduction (OEAD)
+ ABducting force greatest in UPgaze
- difference in measured deviation: >/= 15 PD
- most commonly associated with infantile esotropia
- may be seen in bilateral SO palsy

Presentation:
1. V-pattern ESOtropia: more common
- orthophoric in upgaze
- small-angle esotropia in primary gaze
- large-angle esotropia in downgaze

  1. V-pattern EXOtropia
    - large-angle exotropia in upgaze
    - small-angle exotropia in primary gaze
    - orthophoric in downgaze
50
Q

What is A-Pattern Strabismus?

A

A-Pattern [SOA or ODAD]
- due to SO overaction:
+ OverDepression in ADduction (ODAD)
+ ABducting force greatest in DOWNgaze
- difference in measured deviation: >/= 10 PD
- more commonly seen in exotropia
- more common the V-pattern in:
1. Trisomy 21
2. Spina Bifida (Myelomeningocoele)

Presentation:
1. A-pattern EXOtropia: more common
- orthophoric in upgaze
- small-angle exotropia in primary gaze
- large-angle exotropia in downgaze

  1. A-pattern ESOtropia
    - large-angle esotropia in upgaze
    - small-angle esotropia in primary gaze
    - orthophoric in downgaze
51
Q

What is the Parks-Bielschowsky Test?

A

Parks-Bielschowsky/Parks-Helveston/
3-Step Test
- used to identify which muscle is paretic in cyclovertical deviations
- more commonly used in diagnosing SO palsies but may also be used to diagnose the less common IO palsies and vertical rectus palsies
- designed for the diagnosis of a SINGLE paretic vertical muscle
- becomes unreliable when multiple muscles are involved and in restrictive strabismus
- may also help in diagnosing if vertical strabismus is due to true SR palsy or due to inhibitional palsy of the contralateral antagonist

Step 1:
Which eye is vertically deviated in PRIMARY gaze?
- Hypertropia:
1. weakness of ipsilateral depressors
2. weakness of contralateral elevators
- Hypotropia:
1. weakness of ipsilateral elevators
2. weakness of contralateral depressors

Step 2:
Does the vertical deviation increase in L or R gaze?
- field of action: direction in which the muscle’s primary action is greatest
- attempt to isolate prime movers in the specific gaze:
1. weakness of yolk muscle depressors towards the directed gaze
2. weakness of yolk muscle elevators towards the directed gaze

Step 3:
Does the vertical deviation increase in L or R head tilt?
- deviation INCREASES when head is tilted TOWARDS the side of the paretic muscle
- when head is tilted, eyes normally cyclotort to the OPPOSITE direction to maintain gaze in response to signals from the otolith system
1. L tilt: L incyclotorts + R excyclotorts
2. R tilt: L excyclotorts + R incyclotorts
- cyclotorting muscles in each eye should normally cancel each other’s vertical movement
- however, in the case of a paretic muscle, the unopposed action of the other muscle causes exaggeration of the vertical deviation

Step 4: Quantify the torsional component
Subjective Red-Glass or Double Maddox Rod
- used to assess presence of acquired torsional diplopia and measure degree of cyclotorsion
+ may not present with any manifest vertical deviations
- uses striated red lenses composed of prisms aligned to convert a light point into a line 90 degrees away from the striations and mounted on a frame
- disadvantage: subjective and examiner-dependent
- steps:
1. striations on the lenses are initially oriented vertically at 90 degrees as a light is shone in front of the patient
2. both lines will be perceived by the pt horizontally or along the 180 degree meridian
3. the examiner or the patient turns the knob until the two lines are PARALLEL at the 180 degree meridian
4. magnitude and direction of the cyclotropia is determined based on the displacement of the marker on the rod from the 90-degree mark
- results:
1. Orthophoric: (+) one horizontal line
2. Hypertropic: (+) horizontal line BELOW light source
3. Hypotropic: (+) horizontal line ABOVE light source
4. Cyclotropia: line is slanted with the lower end TOWARDS the direction of cyclotorsion
5. > 10 degree excyclotorsion: suggestive of BILATERAL CN 4 palsy

52
Q

How can the fundus examination assess torsional component of eye deviations?

A
  • estimates amount of deviation using the anatomic position of the ON in relation to the fovea as a reference point
  • done using an IO but in an upright position thus image seen is INVERTED

Results:
1. Normal/No torsional component: horizontal line passes from the fovea and the superior 1/3 of the ON
2. Excyclotorsion: fovea ABOVE the ON
3. Incyclotorsion: fovea BELOW the ON