Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Aviation > Cross-country Flight Planning > Flashcards

Cross-country Flight Planning Flashcards

1
Q

What are three common ways to navigate?

A

Pilotage

Dead reckoning

Radio navigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are sectional charts?

A

Charts used for visual flight of slow to medium speed aircraft. Very detailed. Revised semiannually.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are VFR Terminal Area Charts (TAC)?

A

Depicts Class B airspace. Revised semiannually.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are World Aeronautical Charts (WAC)?

A

Cover land areas for medium speed aircraft at high altitudes. Revised annually.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are VFR Flyway Planning Charts?

A

Printed on reverse side of select TACs and depict flight paths recommended to avoid high traffic areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is an “isogonic line”?

A

Shown on most aeronautical charts as a broken magenta line. expresses east or west deviation of the magnetic north from true north.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is “magnetic variation”?

A

Variation is the angle between true north and magnetic north.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do you convert a true direction to a magnetic direction?

A

East is least (subtract) West is best (add)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are lines of latitude and longitude?

A

Parallel circular lines that allow us to measure distance in degrees from the equator (latitude) or the prime meridian (longitude).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is “magnetic deviation”?

A

Because of magnetic influences within the airplane, the compass needle is frequently deflected from its normal reading. Deviation is different in each aircraft and can be found on a deviation card in the airplane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name several types of radio aids to air navigation. At least three.

A

NDB (Nondirectional Radio Beacon) VOR (Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range) VORTAC (VHF Omnidirectional Range/Tactical Air Navigation) DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) RNAV (Area Navigation, includes GPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a VOR?

A

VHF radio stations that project radials in all directions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a VORTAC?

A

A VOR that provides the standard bearing information of a VOR plus distance information for aircraft equipped with DME.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Within what frequency do VORs operate?

A

VHF between 108 and 117.95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a VOR “radial”?

A

Line of magnetic bearing extending from a VOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How are VOR NAVAIDs classified?

A

Terminal Low High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What limitations apply to VOR reception distances?

A

Subject to line of sight restrictions and range varies with altitude of the receiving equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is an NDB?

A

A nondirectional beacon; sends signals across a frequency where a pilot can “track” to the station.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is ADF?

A

Automatic Direction Finder - equipment that can track an NDB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some of the advantages of ADF for navigation?

A

Low cost Low-medium frequencies not effected by line-of-sight limitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some disadvantages of ADF for navigation?

A

Low frequencies are susceptible to electrical disturbances (ie thunder storms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the normal usable service ranges for the various class NDBs?

A

Compass Locator - 15NM MH - 25NM H - 50NM HH - 75NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is “DME”?

A

Distance Measuring Equipment - provides distance and ground speed information when receiving a VORTAC facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Give a brief explanation of GPS.

A

Global positioning system is a satellite-based radio navigation system that broadcasts a signal used by receivers to determine a precise position anywhere in the world.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the three functional elements of GPS?

A

Space element - satellites Control element - ground stations ensuring accuracy User element - receiving equipment on the aircraft providing the information for the user.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the purpose of RAIM?

A

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring is a self-monitoring function in the GPS. It will alert the pilot if signals are inefficient for safe navigation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where can a pilot obtain RAIM availability information?

A

GPS RAIM availability information can be obtained from an AFSS during preflight briefings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Before conducting a flight using GPS equipment for navigation, what basic preflight checks should be made?

A

Verify that equipment is properly installed and certified. Verify that the database is current and not expired. Review GPS NOTAM/RAIM information related to planned route.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How can a pilot determine what type of operation a GPS receiver is approved for?

A

The pilot should reference the POH and other supplements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

During a preflight briefing, will the FSS briefer automatically provide a pilot with a GPS NOTAM?

A

No, the pilot must specifically ask for GPS/WSS NOTAMs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How many satellites does a GPS receiver require to compute its position?

A

3 - latitude and longitude (2D) 4 - latitude, longitude, and altitude (3D) 5 - 3D and RAIM 6 - more accurate 3D and RAIM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is WAAS?

A

Wide area augmentation system (WAAS) is a ground and satellite integrated navigational error correction system that provides accuracy enhancements to signals received from the GPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What limitations should you be aware of when using a panel-mounted VFR GPS or a hand-held VFR GPS system for navigation?

A

No RAIM capability Database needs to be updated to stay current Antenna location can be inconvenient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Determine the term “VFR Waypoint”.

A

Waypoints provide pilots with a point of reference in positional awareness while navigating, especially in unfamiliar areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the most common type of communication radio equipment installed in general aviation aircraft? How many channels are available?

A

Most aircraft use VHF radios. Their range is 118.0 to 136.975 MHz.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the universal VHF “Emergency” frequency?

A

121.5 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What frequencies are used for ground control?

A

Majority of ground control frequencies are 121.6 to 121.9 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is a “CTAF”?

A

Frequency designated for airport advisories of non-tower controlled airports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is “UNICOM”?

A

A nongovernment communication facility which may provide airport information at certain airports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does “ATIS” mean?

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

If operating into an airport without an operating tower, FSS, or UNICOM, what procedure should be followed?

A

Use the MULTICOM frequency 122.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is an RCO?

A

A remote communications outlet (RCO) is an unmanned communications facility remotely controlled by ATC personnel, established for the purpose of providing ground-to-ground communications between ATC and pilots located at satellite airports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How can a pilot determine what frequency is appropriate for activating their flight plan once airborne?

A

Ask the FSS briefer during preflight weather briefing Or consult the communications under flight service for the airport of departure in the Airport/Facility Directory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Why would a frequency be printed on top of a heavy-lined box? (Chart Legend)

A

This usually means that this frequency is available in addition to the standard FSS frequencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the meaning of a thin-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency? (Chart Legend)

A

A plain box without frequencies on top indicates that there are no standard FSS frequencies available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Why would a frequency be printed on top of a thin-lined blue box? (Chart Legend)

A

These frequencies are the best frequencies to use in the immediate vicinity of the NAVAID site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How can a pilot determine the availability of HIWAS when looking at a VFR Sectional chart? (Chart Legend)

A

Navaids that have HIWAS capability are depicted on the charts with an “H” in the upper right corner of the identification box.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What meaning does the letter “T” in a solid blue circle appearing in the top right corner of a NAVAID frequency box have? (Chart Legend)

A

(Alaska only) A Transcribed Weather Broadcast is available. A TWEB is a continuous recording of meteorological and aeronautical information that is broadcast on L/MF and VOR facilities for pilots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

If an inflight emergency requires immediate action by the pilot, what authority and responsibilities does he/she have?

A

a. The PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of the aircraft.
b. In an inflight emergency requiring immediate action, the PIC may deviate from any rule in Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
c. Each PIC who deviates from a Part 91 rule shall, upon the request of the Adminstrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

50
Q

What restrictions apply to pilots concerning the use of drugs and alcohol?

A

No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft:

a. within 8 hours after consumption of any alcoholic beverage,
b. while under the influence of alcohol,
c. while using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety,
d. or while having an alcoholic concentration of 0.04 percent or more in a blood or breath specimen.

51
Q

Is it permissible for a pilot to allow a person who is obviously under the influence of intoxicating liquors or drugs to be carried on board an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.17)

A

No. Except in an emergency or a medical patient under proper care.

52
Q

May portable electronic devices be operated on board an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.21)

A

Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an aircraft operating under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices onboard their aircraft.

53
Q

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.15)

A

Never, unless reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property

54
Q

Concerning a flight in the local area, is any preflight action required, and if so, what must it consist of? (14 CFR 91.103)

A

Yes, pilots must familiarize themselves with all available information concerning that flight, including runway lengths at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance data under existing conditions.

55
Q

Preflight action as required by regulation for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport shall include a review of what specific information? (14 CFR 91.103)

A

For a flight under IFR or not in the vicinity of an airport:

a. Weather reports and forecasts
b. Fuel requirements
c. Alternates available
d. Any known traffic delays advised to the PIC by ATC
e. Runway lengths of intended use
f. Takoff and landing distance data

56
Q

Which persons on board an aircraft are required to use seatbelts and when? (14 CFR 91.107)

A

Everyone onboard with the except of anyone who has not reached their second birthday may be held by and adult or a parachutist may use the floor as a seat.

57
Q

What responsibilty does the pilot-in-command have concerning passengers and their use of seatbelts? (14 CFR 91.107)

A

The PIC must ensure that all onboard has been briefed in the use of their seat belt/shoulder harness and will not allow the movement of the aircraft until all seatbelts/shoulder harnesses have been secured.

58
Q

When are the flight crewmembers required to keep their seatbelts and shoulder harnesses fastened? (14 CFR 91.105)

A

During takeoff and landing, and while en route, unless it interferes with other required duties.

59
Q

If operating an aircraft in close proximity to another, such as formation flight, what regulations apply? ( 14 CFR 91.111)

A

a. No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard
b. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangment with the PIC of each aircraft in the formation
c. No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight

60
Q

What is the order of right-of-way as applied to the different categories of aircraft? (14 CFR 91.113)

Hint: BGAAR (BIG “R”)

A

Balloons

Gliders

Airships

Airplanes

Rotorcraft

Note: All aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft have right of way over all engine-driven aircraft.

61
Q

When would an aircraft have right-of-way over all other aircraft? (14 CFR 91.113)

A

Any aircraft in distress has right-of-way over all other aircraft.

62
Q

State the required action for each of the aircraft confrontations (same category), below.

Converging

Approaching head-on

Overtaking

(14 CFR 91.113)

A

Converging - Aircraft on the right has right-of-way

Approaching - both aircraft shall alter course to the right

Overtaking - aircraft being over taken has right-of-way; pilot of overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right

63
Q

What right-of-way rules apply when two or more aircraft are approaching an airport with the purpose of landing? (14 CFR 91.113)

A

Aircraft on final approach to land or while landing have right-of-way over all aircraft operating in the air or on the ground, but will not abuse this against aircraft who have landed and are still on the runway.

When two aircraft are approaching an airport with the intention of landing, the aircraft with the lower altitude has right of way. The aircraft, however will not abuse this right to overtake an aircraft on final approach.

64
Q

Unless otherwised authorized or required by ATC, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 MSL? (14 CFR 91.117)

A

250 knots (288 mph)

65
Q

What is the minimum safe altitude that an aircraft may be operated over a congested area of city? (14 CFR 91.119)

A

The aircraft must remain above 1000ft of the highest obstacle within a 2000ft horizontal radius.

Note: Except when necessary for takeoff or landing

66
Q

In areas other than congested areas, what minimum safe altitudes shall be used? (14 CFR 91.119)

A

500 ft above the surface except over water or sparsely populated areas. In such cases the aircraft must not be operated closer than 500 ft to any person, vehicle, vessel, or structure.

Note: Except when necessary to takeoff or land.

67
Q

Define minimum safe altitude. (14 CFR 91.119)

A

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

68
Q

What is the lowest altitude an aircraft may be operated over an area designated as a U.S. wildlife refuge, park or Forest Service Area? (AIM 7-4-6)

A

All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2000 ft above the surface.

69
Q

When flying below 18,000ft MSL, cruising altitude must be maintained by reference to an altimeter set using what procedure? (14 CFR 91.121)

A

Cruising altitude must be maintained by a current reported barometric pressure from a station along the route and within 100 miles of the aircraft.

If barometric pressure exceeds 31.00” Hg consult the Aeronautical Information Manual.

70
Q

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, what procedure should be used? (14 CFR 91.121)

A

Use the same procedure as in the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio: the elevation of the departure airport before departure should be used.

71
Q

When may a pilot intentionally deviate from an ATC clearance or instruction? (14 CFR 91.123)

A

No pilot may deviate from an ATC clearance unless:

a. an amended clearance has been obtained
b. an emergency exists
c. or in response to a traffic and collision avoidance system resolution advisory

72
Q

As PIC, what action, if any, is required of you if you deviate from an ATC instruction and priority is given? (14 CFR 91.123)

A

Two actions are required:

a. Notify ATC immediately
b. Submit a detailed report to the manager of that ATC facility within 48 hours, if requested by the ATC (on-the-ground responsibility)

73
Q

In the event of radio failure, what does a steady green light signal for on the ground and in the air? (14 CFR 91.125)

A

Ground: Cleared for takeoff

Air: Cleared for landing

74
Q

In the event of radio failure, what does a flashing green light signal for on the ground and in the air? (14 CFR 91.125)

A

Ground: Cleared for taxi

Air: Return for landing

75
Q

In the event of radio failure, what does a steady red light signal for on the ground and in the air? (14 CFR 91.125)

A

Ground: Stop

Air: Yield, Continue Circling

76
Q

In the event of radio failure, what does a flashing red light signal for on the ground and in the air? (14 CFR 91.125)

A

Ground: Taxi clear of runway

Air: Unsafe, Do not land

77
Q

In the event of radio failure, what does a flashing white light signal for on the ground and in the air? (14 CFR 91.125)

A

Ground: Return to start

Air: Not used

78
Q

In the event of radio failure, what does an alternating red/green light signal on the ground and in the air? (14 CFR 91.125)

A

Ground: Exercise extreme caution

Air: Exercise extreme caution

79
Q

If the aircraft radio fails in flight under VFR while operating into a tower controlled airport, what conditions must be met before landing may be made for that airport? (14 CFR 91.126, 91.127, 91.129)

A

a. Weather conditions must be at or above VFR minimums
b. Visual contact with the tower is maintained
c. A clearance to land is received

80
Q

What procedures should be used when attempting communications with a tower with the aircraft receiver is inoperative? (AIM 4-2-13)

A

a. Remain outside or above class D surface area
b. Determine direction and flow of traffic
c. Advise tower of aircraft type, position, altitude, and intention to land. Request to be controlled by light signals
d. At 3 to 5 miles, advise tower of position and join traffic pattern
e. Watch tower for light gun signals

81
Q

What procedures should be used when attempting communications with a tower when the aircraft transmitter is inoperative? (AIM 4-2-13)

A

a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area
b. Determine direction and flow of traffic
c. Monitor frequency for landing or traffic information
d. Join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals
e. Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing or navigational lights

82
Q

What procedures should be taken when attempting communications with a tower when both the aircraft transmitter and receiver are inoperative? (AIM 4-2-13)

A

a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area
b. Determine direction and flow of traffic
c. Join traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals
d. Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing or navigational lights

83
Q

What general rules apply concerning traffic pattern operations at non-tower airports within Class E or G airspace? (14 CFR 91.126, 91.127)

A

If landing, all aircraft will make pattern turns to the left unless there are light signals or visual signs indicating turns should be made to the right.

If departing, compy with any traffic patterns established for that airport in Part 93.

84
Q

When operating in Class D airspace, what procedure should be used when approaching to land on a runway with a Visual Approach Slope Indicator? (14 CFR 91.129)

A

Aircraft shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

85
Q

What is the fuel requirement for VFR flight at night? (14 CFR 91.151)

A

Must have fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, at night, fly after that for at least 45 minutes.

86
Q

What is the fuel requirement for VFR flight during the day? (14 CFR 91.151)

A

Pilot must able to fly to first point of intended landing and the ability to fly after that for at least 30 minutes

87
Q

When operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight at an altitude of more than 3,000ft above the surface, what rules apply concerning specific altitudes flown? (14 CFR 91.159)

A

Magnetic heading of 0 to 179 degrees - odd-thousand foot MSL plus 500ft

Magnetic heading of 180 to 359 degrees - even-thousand foot MSL plus 500ft

Note if at 3,000 or below, there is no specific altitude

88
Q

What instruments and equipment are required for VFR day flight? (14 CFR 91.205)

Hint: TOMATO FFLAAMES

A

Tachometer for each engine

Oil pressure gauge for each engine

Manifold pressure gauge

Altimeter

Temperature gauge (liquid cooled engine)

Oil temperature gauge (air cooled engine)

Fuel gauge

Flotation gear (if over water)

Landing gear position indicator

Airspeed Indicator

Anticollision light system

Magnetic direction indicator

Emergency locator transmitter

Safety belts

89
Q

What instruments and equipment are required for VFR flight at night? (14 CFR 91.205)

Hint: FLAPS

A

In addition to all equipment for VFR day flight:

Fuses - at least 1 spare set or 3 of each kind

Landing light

Anticollision light system

Position lights

Source of electricity

90
Q

What is an ELT? (AIM 6-2-5)

A

Emergency Locator Transmitter - radio transmitter attached to aircraft structure that will transmit on emergency frequencies. Has own power supply and designed to activate without any human input after an accident.

91
Q

Is an emergency locator transmitter required on all aircraft? (14 CFR 91.207)

A

Yes, unless:

a. aircraft engaged with training with all flight conducted with 50 miles of starting airport
b. Aircraft enaged in design and testing
c. New aircraft engaged with manufacture, preparation, and delivery
d. Aircraft engaged in agricultural operations

92
Q

When must the batteries in an emergency locator transmitter be replaced or recharged? (14 CFR 91.207)

A

a. When the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour
b. When 50 percent of their usable life has expired

93
Q

What are the regulations concerning use of supplemental oxygen on board an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.211)

A

12,500 - 14,000 MSL: if more than 30 minutes, oxygen is needed for the minimum flight crew, and needs to be used.

above 14,000 MSL: if at all, entire crew must be provided and use oxygen.

above 15,000 MSL: each occupant is provided oxygen.

94
Q

According to regulations, where is aerobatic flight of an aircraft not permitted? (14 CFR 91.303)

A

a. Over any congested area or a city, town, or settlement
b. Over an open area assembly of persons
c. Within lateral boundaries of Class B through Class E airspace designated over an airport
d. Within 4 miles of the centerling of a Federal airway
e. Below an altitude of 1,500ft above the surface
f. When visibility is less than 3 miles

95
Q

Define aerobatic flight. (14 CFR 91.303)

A

An intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’s attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight.

96
Q

When are parachutes required on board an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.307)

A

Each occupant requires a parachute if the pilot intends to:

a. have a bank angle at or exceeding 60 degrees relative to the horizon; or
b. nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees relative to the horizon

This does not apply to:

a. flight tests for pilot certification or rating; or
b. spins and other flight maneuvers required by the regulations for any certificate or rating when given by a CFI or ATP instructing in accordance with 14 CFR 61.67

97
Q

What is Class A airspace? (AIM 3-2-2)

A

Airspace from 18,000 ft MSL up to and including FL600, including airspace overlying the waters 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 continental states and Alaska

98
Q

Can a flight under VFR be conducted within Class A airspace? (14 CFR 91.135)

A

No, unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must fly under IFR.

99
Q

What is the minimum pilot certification for operations conducted within Class A airspace? (14 CFR 91.135)

A

Pilot must at least be a private pilot with an instrument rating.

100
Q

What minimum equipment is required for flight operations within Class A airspace? (14 CFR 91.135)

A

a. Two-way radio communication
b. Mode C altitude encoding transponder
c. Equiped for IFR flight

101
Q

How is Class A airspace depicted on navigational charts? (AIM 3-2-2)

A

Class A airspace is not specifically charted

102
Q

What is the definition of Class B airspace? (AIM 3-2-3)

A

Airspace from the surface to 10,000 ft MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports concerning IFR operations.

Layered like a wedding cake, each layer upward covers a greater area.

103
Q

What minimum pilot certification is required to operate an aircraft within Class B airspace? (14 CFR 91.131)

A

a. Pilot is required to have at least a private pilot certificate
b. or a recreational pilot meeting the requirements of 14 CFR 61.101
c. or a sport pilot certificate and met requirements of 14 CFR 61.325
d. or a student pilot and met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.94 or 61.95

Certain Class B airports only allow pilots operate aircraft unless they hold at least a private pilot certificate.

104
Q

What is the minimum equipment required from operations of an aircraft within Class B airspace? (14 CFR 91.131)

A

a. Two-way radio communication
b. Mode C altitude encoding transponder
c. If IFR, an operable VOR or TACAN receiver or a suitable RNAV system

105
Q

Before operating an aircraft into Class B airspace, what basic requirement must be met? (14 CFR 91.131)

A

Arriving aircraft must receive an ATC clearance before operating in Class B airspace

106
Q

What minimum weather conditions are required when conducting VFR flight operations within Class B airspace? (14 CFR 91.155)

A

VFR flight operations must be conducted clear of clouds with 3 miles of visiblity while in Class B airspace

107
Q

How is Class B airspace depicted on navigational charts? (14 AIM 3-2-3)

A

Class B is depicted on Sectionals, IFR En Route Low Altitude, and Terminal Area Charts. Solid shaded blue line depicts the lateral boundaries and numbers depict the altitude boundaries (100/25, 100/SFC, etc.)

108
Q

What basic ATC services are provided to all aircraft operating within Class B airspace? (AIM 3-2-3)

A

VFR pilots will be provided seperation and sequencing from other aircraft while operating within Class B airspace.

109
Q

It becomes apparent that wake turbulence may be encountered while ATC is providing sequencing and seperation services in Class B airspace. Whose responsibilty is it to avoid this turbulence? (AIM 3-2-3)

A

The pilot-in-command

110
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed when operating inside Class B airspace, under 10,000 ft MSL and within a Class D surface area? (14 CFR 91.117)

A

Unless otherwise authorized by ATC aircraft operating at or below 2,500 within 4 miles of a Class C or D airspace may have an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots.

If within Class B airspace and under 10,000 ft no aircraft may operate more than 250 knots indicated

111
Q

When operating beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, or in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, what maximum speed is authorized? (14 CFR 91.117)

A

200 knots

112
Q

What is Class C airspace? (AIM 3-2-4)

A

Airspace from surface to 4,000ft AGL surrounding airports that have a control tower, serviced by a radar approach, and a certain number of IFR or passenger enplanements

113
Q

What are the basic dimensions of Class C airspace? (AIM 3-2-4)

A

Each is individually different but usually has a 5 NM center radius that extends from the surface to 4,000 ft AGL.

Also has a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends 1,200 - 4,000 ft AGL

114
Q

What are the minimum pilot certification is required to operate an aircraft within Class C airspace? (AIM 3-2-4)

A

A student pilot certificate

115
Q

What minimum equipment is required to operate an aircraft within Class C airspace? (14 CFR 91.130, 91.215)

A

a. Two-way radio communication
b. Automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment with Mode C capability

116
Q

When operating a aircraft through Class C airspace or to an airport within Class C airspace, what basic requirement must be met? (14 CFR 91.130)

A

Each aircraft must establish two way radio communication and maintain that communication while in the Class C airspace.

117
Q

Two-way radio communications must be established prior to entering Class C airspace. Define what is meant by “established” in this context. (AIM 3-2-4)

A

If controller responds with “(Aircraft call sign), standby” then communication has been established and the requirement has been met. If controller responds without stating the aircraft call sign then communication has not been established and the requirement has not been met.

118
Q

When departing a satellite airport without an operative control tower located within Class C airspace, what requirement must be met? (14 CFR 91.130)

A

Two-way communication must be established with the ATC facilities having jurisdiction of that Class C airspace as soon as possibile after departing.

119
Q

What minimum weather conditions are required when conducting VFR flight operations within Class C airspace? ( 14 CFR 91.155)

A

a. 3 statue mile visibilty
b. Cloud clearance of 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, and 2,000 horizontal

120
Q

How is Class C airspace depicted on navigational charts? (AIM 3-2-4)

A

Solid magenta line

Aviation (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions