Crim 150 Final Flashcards

1
Q

due process refers to…?

A

procedural fairness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

conflict model

A

perspective that assumes that the system’s components function primarily to serve their own interests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Consensus model

A

a criminal justice perspective that assumes that the system’s components work together harmoniously to achieve the social product we call justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

concurrent sentences

A

when an offender has been convicted of multiple crimes and must serve a sentence for each offense, _________ _________ permit the offender to serve all sentences at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

consecutive sentence

A

sentences for crimes served back-to-back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When are the police required to read the Miranda warnings to a suspect?

A

before questioning the arrested suspect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

probation

A

court-ordered sentence served under supervision in the community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

general conditions

A

apply to all probationers in a given district

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

specific conditions

A

apply to specific individuals based on their case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

probation

A

avoid incarceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

revocation hearing

A

a hearing held before a legally constituted hearing body to determine whether someone has violated the terms of probation or parole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

NRP(nonrevocable parole)

A

exceptions include gang members, violent criminals, and sex offenders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

four main functions of probation and parole officers

A

intake procedures, diagnosis and needs assessment, client supervision, and presentence investigations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

split sentencing

A

requires the convicted offender to serve a period of confinement followed by a period of probation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

shock probation

A

you must apply for probation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The use of the internet, email, and other electronic communication technologies to bully another person is known as…

A

cyberstalking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

computer virus

A

a computer program designed to secretly invade systems and either modify the way in which they operate or alter the information they store

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

malware

A

malicious computer programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the dark figure of crime refer to?

A

crime that is not reported to the police

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what type of killing involves killing at least four victims at one location during one event?

A

mass murder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If you are looking for national crime statistics and want data on crimes reported to the police, which source of data should you use?

A

Uniform Crime Reporting(UCR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

serial murder

A

killing of several victims in three or more separate events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

spree killings

A

2 or more locations with almost no time break between murders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bow Street Runners

A

an early English police unit formed under the leadership of Henry Fielding, magistrate of the bow street region of London

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
new police
a police force formed in 1829 under the command of Sir Robert Peel. It became the model for modern-day police forces throughout the Western world. Also called the Metropolitan Police Force
26
Kansas City Experiment
the first large-scale scientific study of law enforcement practices. Sponsored by the Police Foundation, it focused on the practice of preventative patrol changes did not impact rates
27
directed patrol
a police management strategy designed to increase the productivity of patrol officers through the scientific analysis and evaluation of patrol techniques
28
example of directed patrol
running traffic enforcement
29
evidence-based policing
the use of the best available research on the outcomes of police work to implement guidelines and evaluate agencies, units, and officers
30
crime prevention
the anticipation, recognition, and appraisal of a crime risk and the initiation of action to eliminate or reduce it
31
criminal intelligence
information compiled, analyzed, or disseminated in an effort to anticipate, prevent, or monitor criminal activity
32
the centralized model of state policing:
combines criminal investigations with patrol of state highways
33
span of control
the personnel a supervisor is in charge of
34
chain of command
the unbroken line of authority that extends through all levels of an organization, from the highest to the lowest
35
fusion center
a multiagency law enforcement facility designed to enhance cooperative efforts through a coordinated process for collecting, sharing, and analyzing information in order to develop actionable intelligence
36
broken windows theory
based on the notion that urban decay in a neighborhood signals that the laws are not being enforced
37
The ______ ______ involved radical reorganization of police agencies
Reform Era
38
Police professionalism during the reform era was equated with ...
technological advances and improved administration
39
legalistic
letter of the law(the way a trooper will stop you for being 1mph over the limit)
40
Arizona v. Gant
41
Tennessee v. Garner
42
Chimel v. California
43
Terry v. Ohio
44
Riley v. California
45
Miranda v. Arizona
46
1st amend.
47
2nd amend.
48
4th amend.
49
5th amend.
50
14th amend.
51
Weeks v. U.S.
52
Mapp v. Ohio
53
good faith exception
regarding the exclusionary rule, it allows evidence seized in good faith to be used in court, even if the search was later ruled illegal
54
plain-view doctrine
officers may seize evidence in plain view without a warrant if they are in a place where they have a legal right to be(cannot create plain view situation by moving things)
55
fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
illegally seized evidence cannot be used in a trial
56
probable cause
a set of facts and circumstances that would induce a reasonably intelligent and prudent person to believe that a specific person has committed a specified crime
57
reasonable suspicion
the level of suspicion that would justify an officer in making further inquiry or in conducting further investigation
58
totality of circumstances
59
exclusionary rule
incriminating information must be seized according to constitutional specifications of due process or it will not be allowed as evidence in a criminal trial
60
police culture and subculture
a particular set of values, beliefs, and acceptable forms of behavior characteristics of police
61
cynicism, authoritarianism, and suspicion
characteristics of police subculture
62
what are the two sources of police personality
pre-existing characteristics driving people to policing, and socialization into police subculture
63
_______ policing is associated with production as measured in arrests and tickets written
legalistic
64
excessive force
using force than is required in the circumstances
65
excessive use of force
the phenomenon of force being used unacceptably, often on a department-wide basis
66
illegal use of force
situations in which police use of force violates a law
67
the U.S. district courts are the ________ for the federal court system
trial courts
68
the power of judicial review allows the U.S. supreme court to ________
review lower-level court decisions and state and federal statutes
69
exculpatory evidence
information having a tendency to clear a person of guilt or blame
70
appellate jurisdiction
the lawful authority of a court to review a decision made by a lower court
71
appeal
a request that a higher court review actions of a lower court
72
what are appeals to the U.S. supreme court based on?
claimed violations of the defendant's rights
73
community court
low level court that focuses on quality-of-life crimes, diverts offenders from prosecution and incarceration
74
problem solving courts
low level specialized courts focusing on relatively minor offences, handling special populations or addressing special issues
75
frivolous appeals
little substance, usually disposed of quickly
76
ritualistic appeals
probability of reversal is negligible
77
nonconsensual appeals
highest probability of reversal
78
what type of court is drug court?
a problem solving court
79
federal court system
three-tiered structure of federal courts, comprised of U.S. district courts, U.S. courts of appeal, and the U.S. supreme court
80
jurisdiction
the territory, subject matter, or people over which a court may exercise lawful authority
81
what is a subpoena
a formal order calling someone to appear in court
82
expert witnesses
have special knowledge and skills recognized by the court as relevant to the determination of guilt or innocence, are allowed to express opinions or draw conclusions in their testimony
83
lay witnesses
non experts who are there to provide facts and cannot state their opinion
84
pretrial release
release of accused person from custody on his/her promise to appear in court when required
85
release on recognizance
pretrial release on defendant's written promise to appear in court when required
86
property bond
substitute other items of value in place of cash
87
deposit bond
form that lets you post a percentage
88
conditional release
imposes requirements on the defendant (similar to probation and parole)
89
third party custody
defendant assigned to custody of individual or agency that promises to ensure defendant's appearance in court
90
unsecured bonds
credit contract, no monetary deposit required
91
signature bonds
release based on defendant's written promise to appear
92
circumstantial evidence
indirect evidence that required the judge or jury to make inferences and to draw conclusions(witness hears gunshots, sees someone with a gun right after)
93
exculpatory evidence
information having a tendency to clear a person of guilt or blame
94
perjury
intentionally making statements a witness knows is untrue
95
dispute resolution centers
informal hearing places designed to mediate interpersonal disputes without resorting to formal criminal trial court (central feature of the restorative justice movement)
96
deterrence
the example or threat of punishment to convince people that criminal activity is not worthwhile
97
five goals of sentencing
retribution, incapacitation, deterrence, rehabilitation, and restoration
98
general deterrence
seeks to prevent others from committing crimes similar to the one for which a particular offender is being sentenced by making an example of the person sentenced
99
specific deterrence
seeks to prevent a specific offender from engaging in repeat criminality
100
consecutive sentencing
each sentence is served one after the other(two 50 year sentences makes 100 years)
101
concurrent sentencing
each sentence is served side by side with another(two 50 year sentences makes 50 years)
102
which sentencing model tends to involve the greatest amount of judicial discretion
indeterminate sentencing
103
sentencing
the imposition of a penalty on a person convicted of a crime