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cqreview Flashcards

1
Q

“Do the pilots have a fight bag suitable for carrying and stowing the EFB during
flight? (FOM Ch. 4, Para 16.A.4.)”

A

Yes - little pouch.

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2
Q

“Check each crewmember’s device and verify minimum battery charge. Did
crews begin the flight duty period with at least an 80% battery charge on the
EFB? (FOM Ch. 4, Para 16.B.3.)”

A

Yes - 80% charge.

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3
Q

“When is the EFB required to be secured in the securing device? (FOM Ch.
4, Para 16.A.7. and 16.D.5.)”

A

“critical phase of flight”

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4
Q

“Inspect the EFB. Is the EFB in good working condition (not damaged and no
screen/glass cracks)? (FOM Ch. 4, Para 16.B.1)”

A

update!

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5
Q

“Check each crewmember’s device. Are Company Manuals and Jeppesen
FliteDeck Pro up to date (no update notifications)? (FOM Ch. 4, Para 16.B.6.)”

A

update!

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6
Q

“Ask the flight crew what battery power is required for the second leg of the
LOE. Do they know how to determine the appropriate battery power required for
dispatch? (FOM Ch. 4, Para 16.C.1.e.)”

A

Chapter 5 is now the Flight Operations Chapter — CRJ 2700pph, CR7 3600pph, CR9 4000pph

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7
Q

“Have the crew show you how to put the EFB in Airplane Mode. Ask them when
it is required to be in Airplane Mode. (FOM Ch. 4, Para 16.C.3)”

A

“for all flight operations”

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8
Q

FO, what is the MTOW for all variants?

A

53,000 lbs. / 75,000 lbs. (74,999 lbs. DL/AS) / 84,500 lbs.

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9
Q

CA, what is the maximum landing weight for all variants?

A

47,000 lbs. / 67,000 lbs. / 75,100 lbs.

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10
Q

FO, what is the maximum operations altitude for all variants?

A

FL370

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11
Q

CA, what is the minimum target speed at cruise for all variants?

A

VMD

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12
Q

FO, what is VLO EXT for all CRJ variants?

A

220 now for 200… KIAS (SW) / 220 KIAS / 220 KIAS

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13
Q

CA, what is VLO RET for all CRJ variants?

A

200 KIAS

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14
Q

FO, what is the minimum speed with flight spoilers extended for all variants?

A

Approach Speed + 20 (SW) / Approach Speed + 10 / Approach Speed + 10

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15
Q

CA, what is the minimum runway width allowed for all variants?

A

100 ft.

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16
Q

FO, what is the maximum fuel imbalance for takeoff for all variants?

A

800 lbs. / 300 lbs. / 300 lbs.

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17
Q

“CA, for proper engine cool down, how many minutes must the engine be at or
near idle thrust, prior to shutdown?”

A

2 mins.

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18
Q

CA and FO – AFCS

A

CRJ200: 600’ AGL takeoff, 400’ AGL nonp (50’ below MDA…), 80’ AGL (50’ above terrain)

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19
Q

FO – Continuous Ignition

A 
"CONT WIN TTR
CONTaminated ramp
WINdy day >10kts -200
Thunderstorm vicinity
Turbulence moderate
Rain moderate (precip)"
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20
Q

CA – Oxygen Pressure Requirements

A

“See SOPM Preflight - OXYGEN PRESSURE REQUIREMENTS

(1650 psi INTERNATIONAL…)”

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21
Q

FO, how many memory items identified?

A

“Memory items are indicated by a box outlining the checklist procedure on the
QRC.”

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22
Q

“CA, during landing, what is the memory item for LOSS OF BRAKING on the
CRJ 200?”

A

“WHEEL BRAKES — RELEASE MOMENTARILY
ANTI-SKID — OFF
WHEEL BRAKES — RE-APPLY, AS REQ’D”

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23
Q

FO, what is the memory item for DOUBLE ENGINE FAILURE on the CRJ 200?

A

“IGNITION, CONT - ON

AIRSPEED - Not less than 240KIAS”

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24
Q

CA, what is the memory item for DOUBLE ENGINE FAILURE on the CRJ 700?

A 
"IGNITION, CONT - ON
If engines continue to run down (N2 < 40%)
THRUST LEVERS (BOTH) - SHUTOFF
ADG MANUAL DEPLOY HANDLE - PULL
When ADG power is established:
STAB TRIM CH 2 - CONFIRM ENGAGED
TARGET AIRSPEED - ESTABLISH
Above FL340 = 0.7 Mach
Below FL340 = 240 KIAS
Maintain Airspeed Until Ready to Restart Engines"
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25
Q

FO, what is the memory item for STAB TRIM RUNAWAY on the CRJ 200?

A

“CONTROL WHEEL - Assume manual control and override runaway
BOTH STAB TRIM DISC - PRESS, HOLD, and RELEASE
AIRPLANE CONTROL - Transfer to pilot (LH) side
STAB CH1 and CH2 HSTCU C/Bs - OPEN 2F5 and 4A1”

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26
Q

FO, what is the memory item for an INTERRUPTED START on the CRJ 200?

A

“Affected Thrust Lever - SHUTOFF
Ignition - OFF
Dry Motor - Until ITT reduced below 120C respecting starter time limit”

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27
Q

“CA, what is the procedure for a REJECTED TAKEOFF? Is this considered a
memory item?”

A 
"Simultaneously:
THRUST LEVERS --- IDLE
WHEEL BRAKES --- MAXIMUM until safe stop
THRUST REVERSERS --- MAXIMUM
Not a memory item by SOPM defiinition - procedure…."
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28
Q

FO, should turbulence be expected at cruise for this flight?

A

No

29
Q

CA, what elements are required to be on the release?

A

“DIMWIT!!!
‘- Departure airport, intermediate stops, destination airports, and alternate
airports
- Identification number of the aircraft
- Minimum Fuel Supply, and
- Weather reports, forecasts or combination thereof, for the destination,
intermediate, and alternate airports that are the latest available at the time
the release is accepted by the PIC and dispatcher. The release may include
any additional weather reports or forecasts the PIC or dispatcher considers
necessary or desirable.
- Statement of the type of operation (IFR / VFR)
- Trip or flight number”

30
Q

“FO, MINTO is a required element on the Dispatch Release, and is verified on
the “Before Takeoff Check”. What is MINTO, and how is it calculated?”

A

“5,240 lbs. (CRJ 700 – 7,135 lbs.) BURNOFF+RESERVE+HOLD+ALT (most
distant).”

31
Q

“CA, what is the release fuel for this flight and how much could it be decreased
without the concurrence of the dispatcher?”

A

“6,000 lbs. (CRJ 700 – 8,200 lbs.) Fuel can be decreased up to 200 lbs. without
concurrence of the dispatcher.”

32
Q

“FO, how much could the release fuel be increased without coordination with the
dispatcher?”

A

None. Any fuel increase must be coordinated with the dispatcher.

33
Q

CA, why is an alternate airport required to be listed for this flight?

A

Forecast weather report for ETA. (1/2/3 rule)

34
Q

FO, when is a takeoff alternate required to be listed for a flight?

A

“When the weather minimums at the airport of takeoff are below the landing
minimums for that airport as shown in the Ops Specs.”

35
Q

“CA, if a diversion to MKE was required, what altitude would you climb to on
the divert?”

A

9,000 MSL (CRJ 700 – 13,000 MSL)

36
Q

FO, what is the MFPTW?

A

49,270 lbs. (CRJ 700 – 69,877 lbs.)

37
Q

CA, what time would you need an amended release for this flight?

A

Departure time + 2 hours

38
Q

CA and FO – New or Amended Release

A

“1. PIC or Dispatcher opinion

  1. Change airplane
  2. Delay of more than 2 hours
  3. Return to airport / unscheduled landing
  4. Information changes
  5. Deferrals”
39
Q

CA and FO – Unplanned Diversion

A

Use flip cards, UNPLANNDED DIVERSION CHART - determine how much fuel you’ll use getting there

40
Q

CA and FO – Diversion Fuel Calculation (i.e., BINGO Fuel)

A

Don’t want to land with less than 2000 in 200…

41
Q

FO, when does the fuselage need to be ant-iced with Type IV fluid?

A

“When operating in CANADA and anti-ice fluid has been applied to the wings
and tail.”

42
Q

CA, what is the clean aircraft concept?

A

“It means an aircraft must not takeoff when frost, ice, or snow is adhering to the
wings, control surfaces, engine inlets, and other critical surfaces of the aircraft.”

43
Q

FO, when must a Cold Weather Preflight inspection be performed?

A

“1. The OAT is 5°C or less, or
2. The wing fuel temperature is 0°C or less, or
3. Atmospheric conditions conducive to icing exist, or
4. The aircraft has remained overnight and may have frozen contaminates due to
exposure to frost or precipitation, which could involve the entire airframe, or
5. On any through flight where residual ice from the inbound flight may have
accumulated on airframe surfaces or components, or
6. Cold soak ice is suspected in the fuel tank area.”

44
Q

CA, what is the procedure for conducting a Cold Weather Preflight Inspection?

A 
"Visually inspect the critical surfaces and components for frozen contaminants.
In addition, inspect the wing area by running hand along the leading edge and
upper surface (or other location approved by the PIC) to detect surface features."
45
Q

FO, why can’t the flaps be set for takeoff prior to deicing/anti-icing?

A

It decreases the allowable HOT with the flaps/slats set for takeoff.

46
Q

“CA, when are the flaps to be extended for takeoff and how do you initiate the
procedure of setting flaps?”

A

“Approaching the departure runway call for, “FLAPS (___), BEFORE TAKEOFF
CHECK.””

47
Q

“FO, why must both engines be operating for the flight control check to work,
after deicing/anti-icing?”

A

IDG Logic will not be met if Single-Engine and Flaps UP.

48
Q

“CA, after deicing/anti-icing, why must selecting Packs ON be delayed three
minutes after APU start?”

A

“To allow time for any deice/anti-ice fluid that has entered the APU inlet/duct to
burn off; thereby, preventing smoke and/or burning glycol fluid smell.”

49
Q

“FO, where is the Freezing Precipitation Table located? Is it acceptable to land
with –FZRA actually occurring?”

A

Ground Deice Program Manual SP 2800 and/or Deice Flip Cards. Yes.

50
Q

CA, what is LOUT?

A

“Lowest Operational Use Temperature. It is the lowest temperature the fluid
manufacturer has determined will provided acceptable protection.”

51
Q

CA and FO – Holdover Times

A

HOT is an estimate of the time the fluid is effective in preventing formation of frozen contaminates on the treated surface. HOT begins with the final application of the fluid commences. It expires when it loses its effectiveness.

52
Q

CA – Snow Fall Intensity

A

In absence of official weather report of intensity, can esimate intensity using visibility table.

53
Q

FO – Pretakeoff Contamination Check

A

700/900/175 Only - HOT EXCEEDED or HEAVY SNOW - within 5 minutes prior to takeoff!

54
Q

CA – Pretakeoff Check

A

Performed just prior to takeoff within HOT

55
Q

FO, what is the maximum weight for a reduced thrust takeoff on Runway 06?

A

48,590 lbs. (CRJ 700 – 71,550 lbs.)

56
Q

“CA, what is the weight penalty for a 5 KT tailwind for a reduced thrust takeoff
on Runway 06?”

A

1,385 lbs. (CRJ 700 – 1,510 lbs.)

57
Q

“FO, what is the Single-Engine Departure Procedure for the proposed runway
of departure?”

A

DT H303

58
Q

“CA, on takeoff, what are the weather requirements to commence a turn below
1,000’AFE?”

A

“1,000’ Ceiling and 3SM visibility (unless a Special Departure Procedure or the
assigned instrument departure procedure specifically requires a turn before
reaching 1,000’AFE).”

59
Q

“FO, referencing the Takeoff Report for NORMAL thrust, what does 5511 A 40
(CRJ 700 – 7874 A 33) mean for the proposed runway of departure?”

A

“5511 (7874) – Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight
A (A) – Limit Code (Airframe)
40 (33) – Max V1”

60
Q

“CA, using that same takeoff data, why does the “Maximum Runway Takeoff
Weight” exceed the aircraft limitations for Maximum Takeoff Weight of 53,000
lbs. (CRJ 700 – 75,000 lbs.)?”

A

“Performance restrictions (e.g., Tailwind, Bleeds Open, Rolling, CDL limits) are
taken from the MRTW.”

61
Q

“FO, what is the Minimum Landing Distance, based on the proposed weights and
environmental conditions at the ETA?”

A

3,896 ft. (CRJ 700 – 4,082 ft.)

62
Q

“CA, what weather conditions constitute LOW VIS, with reference to Landing
Data?”

A

¾ SM or RVR 4000

63
Q

“FO, using the Proposed Runway for landing, what is the Maximum Landing
Weight?”

A

47,000 lbs. (CRJ 700 – 67,000 lbs.)

64
Q

“CA, using the Proposed Runway for landing, if the winds were 10025 KT, could
the FO land?”

A

No

65
Q

CA and FO – Reduced Thrust

A 
"WHAATC8
Windshear
Heavy
Anti-ice
Anti-skid inop
Tailwind >5 kts
Contaminated
8 Flaps -200"
66
Q

FO – Complex-Special SE Departure Procedures

A

You need to refer to your Jepp plates.

67
Q

CA – Simple-Special SE Departure Procedures

A

Should be in the release.

68
Q

FO – Method 1

A

Method 1 requires the airplane to takeoff at a weight that will ensure if an engine fails anywhere from V1 to destination, it will clear all obstacles within 5sm of the intended route by at least 1000’ and 1500’ above destination airport.

69
Q

CA – Method 2

A

Method 2 (driftdown) specifies a min cruise altitude that permits the airplance to descend, after an engine failure, at an angle that will provide clearance of all obstructions 5sm either side of intdended route by 2000’ during descent until reaching the diversion airport and maintain 1500’ above diversion airport.

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