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CPC-Physician Based Medical Coding > CPC Ch2- Medical Term and Anatomy Review Questions > Flashcards

CPC Ch2- Medical Term and Anatomy Review Questions Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Which part is considered the foundation of a word?
A. Prefix
B. Combining vowel
C. Root
D. Suffix

A

C. Root

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2
Q

Blepharoplasty is performed on which part of the body?
A. Lip
B. Eyelid
C. Stomach
D. Leg

A

B. Eyelid

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3
Q

Based on word parts, what is the definition of a salpingo-oophorectomy?
A. Creating a hole in the ovary.
B. Surgical removal of the ovary.
C. Surgical repair of the ovary and tube.
D. Surgical removal of an ovary and tube.

A

D. Surgical removal of an ovary and tube.

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4
Q

Based on word parts, what structure does paronychia refer to?
A. Hair
B. Nail
C. Sweat glands
D. Parathyroid gland

A

B. Nail

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5
Q

The prefix sub- means beneath. Based on word parts, what is the definition of subfascial?
A. Beneath the face
B. Beneath the fascia
C. Beneath the skin
D. Beneath the nail

A

B. Beneath the fascia

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6
Q

Based on word parts, what is the definition of a tracheostomy?
A. Surgical removal of a portion of the trachea
B. Creation of a hole in the trachea
C. Surgical repair of the trachea
D. Revision of the trachea

A

B. Creation of a hole in the trachea

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7
Q

Leukocytosis refers to an increase in:
A. White blood cells
B. Red blood cells
C. Blood platelets
D. Blood flow

A

A. White blood cells

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8
Q

Based on word parts, what is the definition of a glossectomy?
A. Creating a hole in the glossy part of the eye
B. Surgical removal of the tongue
C. Surgical repair of the tongue
D. Surgical removal of the tear duct in the eye

A

B. Surgical removal of the tongue

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9
Q

A choledochal cyst is a cyst originating from which structure?
A. Gallbladder
B. Liver
C. Common bile duct
D. Intestine

A

C. Common bile duct

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10
Q

A cystourethroscopy is examination of what structures?
A. Bladder and urethra
B. Gallbladder and urethra
C. Bladder and ureters
D. Kidneys and urethra

A

A. Bladder and urethra

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11
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma and basal cell carcinoma are cancers of cell tissue of the skin, lining of the blood vessels, respiratory, intestinal, urinary tracts, and other body systems. These carcinomas are found in what type of tissue?
A. Muscle tissue
B. Nerve tissue
C. Connective tissue
D. Epithelial tissue

A

D. Epithelial tissue

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12
Q

The bronchi are found in what body cavity?
A. Cranial cavity
B. Spinal cavity
C. Thoracic cavity
D. Abdominal cavity

A

C. Thoracic cavity

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13
Q

Which type of membrane is found lining the interior walls of the digestive system?
A. Mucous membrane
B. Serous membrane
C. Synovial membrane
D. Cutaneous membrane

A

A. Mucous membrane

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14
Q

Which layer of the epidermis is normally found on the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet?
A. Stratum Corneum
B. Stratum Lucidum
C. Stratum Papillare
D. Stratum Reticulare

A

B. Stratum Lucidum

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15
Q

A procedure requiring the physician to cut down to the superficial fascia is documented as cutting down into the:
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis
D. Cutaneous tissue

A

C. Hypodermis

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16
Q

What type of fracture is an incomplete fracture commonly found in children?
A. Compound fracture
B. Colles’ fracture
C. Spiral fracture
D. Greenstick fracture

A

D. Greenstick fracture

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17
Q

Which of the following belongs to the appendicular skeleton as opposed to the axial skeleton?
A. Ribs
B. Pelvic Girdle
C. Sacrum
D. Hyoid

A

B. Pelvic Girdle

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18
Q

What is an example of a long bone?
A. Metacarpals
B. Vertebrae
C. Carpals
D. Patella

A

A. Metacarpals

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19
Q

What type of joint is most common in the human body?
A. Fibrous
B. Cartilaginous
C. Synovial
D. Stiff

A

C. Synovial

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20
Q

What is the root meaning joint?
A. Arthr/o
B. Chondr/o
C. Synov/i
D. Oste/o

A

A. Arthr/o

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21
Q

The heart receives deoxygenated blood in the right atrium via which vessel(s)?
A. Right pulmonary artery
B. Left pulmonary veins
C. Inferior and Superior Vena Cava
D. Aorta

A

C. Inferior and Superior Vena Cava

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22
Q

The heart circulates blood through the lungs and is sent back into the left atrium of the heart via which vessel(s)?
A. Left pulmonary artery
B. Left and right pulmonary veins
C. Vena cava
D. Aorta

A

B. Left and right pulmonary veins

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23
Q

What is the term for inflammation of the heart and vessels?
A. Carditis
B. Pericarditis
C. Angiocarditis
D. Angina

A

C. Angiocarditis

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24
Q

What is the inner layer of the heart?
A. Pericardium
B. Epicardium
C. Myocardium
D. Endocardium

A

D. Endocardium

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25
Q

What causes cyanosis?
A. Oxygen overload
B. Oxygen deficiency
C. Liver excretion
D. Drinking blue liquids

A

B. Oxygen deficiency

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26
Q

How does the lymphatic system work to ensure lymph fluid travels one way to the heart?
A. Travels through blood
B. Using a pumping system
C. With a system of one-way valves
D. Gravity

A

C. With a system of one-way valves

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27
Q

What type of cell is housed by the lymphatic system to help the body’s defense system?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Phagocytes
C. Endothelial
D. Epithelial

A

B. Phagocytes

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28
Q

What procedure is performed when the spleen is removed?
A. Splenoplasty
B. Splenorrhaphy
C. Splenoportography
D. Splenectomy

A

D. Splenectomy

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29
Q

The lymphatic ducts empty their contents into what structure?
A. Aorta
B. Subclavian veins
C. Pulmonary veins
D. Femoral artery

A

B. Subclavian veins

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30
Q

What is the medical term for inflammation of lymphatic vessels due to bacterial infection?
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Lymphangitis
C. Lymphedema
D. Lymphoma

A

B. Lymphangitis

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31
Q

Subcarinal means beneath the carina. Where is the carina located?
A. At the connection of the larynx and trachea
B. At the entrance of the bronchi into the lungs
C. Where the bronchi split into bronchioles
D. At the bifurcation of the trachea into two bronchi

A

D. At the bifurcation of the trachea into two bronchi

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32
Q

Which structure is responsible for moistening, warming, and filtering inspired air?
A. Esophagus
B. Nose
C. Lungs
D. Alveoli

A

B. Nose

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33
Q

What is a thoracotomy?
A. Removal of a lobe of the lung
B. Incision into the chest wall
C. Inserting a tube into the chest
D. Removing the chest wall

A

B. Incision into the chest wall

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34
Q

Where is gas exchanged and moved from the respiratory system into the circulatory system?
A. Veins and arteries
B. Lungs and bronchi
C. Alveoli and capillaries
D. Pharynx and larynx

A

C. Alveoli and capillaries

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35
Q

Which suffix means breathing?
A. -capnia
B. -pnea
C. -oxea
D. -phonia

A

B. -pnea

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36
Q

What is the term for the first portion of the small intestine?
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Cecum

A

A. Duodenum

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37
Q

Where is bile produced?
A. Gallbladder
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Urinary bladder

A

C. Liver

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38
Q

Which part of the large intestine is between the hepatic flexure and the splenic flexure?
A. Ascending colon
B. Transverse colon
C. Descending colon
D. Sigmoid colon

A

B. Transverse colon

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39
Q

Which medical term refers to the cheek?
A. Buccal
B. Sublingual
C. Uvula
D. Palate

A

A. Buccal

40
Q

Food moves through the digestive tract by what means?
A. Mastication
B. Gravity
C. Uvuloptosis
D. Peristalsis

A

D. Peristalsis

41
Q

Which anatomical structure in the urinary system differs in position and length between male and female, but serves the same function with regard to urine, and is often treated the same?
A. Ureter
B. Urethra
C. Bladder
D. Kidneys

A

B. Urethra

42
Q

What is the primary function of the urinary system?
A. Excretion of metabolic wastes, and fluid and electrolyte balance
B. Produce bile to aid in digestion of fats
C. Produce bile via emulsification of lipids
D. Excretion of enzymes and hormones

A

A. Excretion of metabolic wastes, and fluid and electrolyte balance

43
Q

Which structure is an internal organ of the male genital system?
A. Epididymis
B. Testes
C. Cowper’s glands
D. Skene’s glands

A

C. Cowper’s glands

44
Q

What is the medical term for a congenital defect in which the urethra opens on the dorsum of the penis?
A. Orchitis
B. Epispadias
C. Cryptorchidism
D. Hypospadias

A

B. Epispadias

45
Q

Where are the Bartholin’s glands found?
A. In the pubic symphysis
B. Below the prostate
C. In the peritoneal cavity
D. Either side of the introitus in the female

A

D. Either side of the introitus in the female

46
Q

The brain and spinal cord are part of which system?
A. Somatic Nervous System
B. Autonomic Nervous System
C. Central Nervous System
D. Peripheral Nervous System

A

C. Central Nervous System

47
Q

Which layer is the middle layer of the eyeball?
A. Iris
B. Choroid
C. Retina
D. Sclera

A

B. Choroid

48
Q

What prevents the eyeball from collapsing?
A. Crystalline lens
B. Aqueous humor
C. Optic nerve
D. Vitreous humor

A

D. Vitreous humor

49
Q

Which structure of the ear is considered the inner ear?
A. Tympanic cavity
B. Labyrinth
C. Dendrites
D. Cerebrum

A

B. Labyrinth

50
Q

What term is used for pus draining from the ear?
A. Labyrinthitis
B. Otopyorrhea
C. Tinnitus
D. Vertigo

A

B. Otopyorrhea

51
Q

Which gland secretes thyroid hormone and calcitonin?
A. Adrenal glands
B. Parathyroid gland
C. Pituitary gland
D. Thyroid gland

A

D. Thyroid gland

52
Q

Which structure is not a true endocrine structure?
A. Adrenal glands
B. Carotid body
C. Pituitary gland
D. Thyroid gland

A

B. Carotid body

53
Q

Which gland is larger in early life than in puberty?
A. Adrenal glands
B. Parathyroid glands
C. Thymus gland
D. Thyroid gland

A

C. Thymus gland

54
Q

Which gland is also known as the hypophysis cerebri?
A. Adrenal glands
B. Pituitary gland
C. Parathyroid glands
D. Thymus gland

A

B. Pituitary gland

55
Q

Which gland has two separate structures called the medulla and the cortex?
A. Adrenal glands
B. Pituitary gland
C. Carotid body
D. Parotid gland

A

A. Adrenal glands

56
Q

Anemia and polycythemia are disorders related to which blood cell?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Leukocytes
C. Lymphocytes
D. Monocytes

A

A. Erythrocytes

57
Q

Which leukocyte protects the body from viral infections?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Eosinophils

A

B. Lymphocytes

58
Q

Which leukocyte is the body’s second line of defense against infection?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Eosinophils

A

C. Monocytes

59
Q

Which leukocyte does the body use to protect against allergic reactions and parasites?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Eosinophils

A

D. Eosinophils

60
Q

What is the disease of excessive mononuclear leukocytes in the blood?
A. Leukopoiesis
B. Leukopenia
C. Mononucleosis
D. Myelocytic leukemia

A
61
Q

Diagnosis: Calcification left basal ganglia.

Where are the basal ganglia located?
A. Neck
B. Cerebrum at the base of brain
C. Spinal Column
D. Occipital Lobe

A

B. Cerebrum at the base of brain

62
Q

Diagnosis: Vesicoureteral reflux.

What is this a reflux of?
A. Muscle
B. Gallbladder
C. Swollen bladder into the vagina
D. Urine backflow from bladder into ureters

A

D. Urine backflow from bladder into ureters

63
Q

Documentation: The posterior vaginal fornix and outer cervical os were prepped with a cleansing solution.

In this statement, what does “os” stand for?
A. Ostium (opening)
B. Oyster Shell shape
C. Left eye
D. Outside

A

A. Ostium (opening)

64
Q

Hysterosalpingogram report: “Right cornual contour abnormality.”

Where is the cornu (plural cornua) found anatomically for this case?
A. A structure resembling a crown.
B. The transparent anterior portion of the sclera.
C. Where the fallopian tubes connect to the fundus.
D. Right part of eye.

A

C. Where the fallopian tubes connect to the fundus.

65
Q

Surgical procedure: Myringotomy

What anatomic location is being operated on?
A. Ear
B. Ring finger (4th digit)
C. Muscle
D. Spinal Cord

A

A. Ear

66
Q

Documentation: There was no cleft of the uvula or submucosal palate by visual and palpable exam.

What is being examined?
A. Lips
B. vagina
C. Oral cavity
D. Middle layer of the eyeball

A

C. Oral Cavity

67
Q

Documentation: Recession of left inferior rectus muscle, 5 mm.

What anatomic location is being operated on?
A. Abdomen
B. Eye
C. Rectum
D. Muscle of the Quadricep

A

B. Eye

68
Q

Diagnosis: Kyphosis

What anatomic location does this diagnosis most often refer to?
A. Stomach
B. Vagina
C. Kidney
D. Thoracic Spine

A

D. Thoracic Spine

69
Q

Documentation: Suprapatellar recess showed no evidence of loose bodies or joint pathology.

What anatomic location does this refer to?
A. Knee (above the patella)
B. Foot
C. Liver
D. Tongue

A

A. Knee (above the patella)

70
Q

Colles’ fracture

What anatomic location does this refer to?
A. Colon
B. Urethra
C. Wrist
D. Bone

A

C. Wrist

71
Q

Muscle is attached to bone by what method?
A. Tendons, aponeurosis and directly to bone
B. Ligaments, aponeurosis, and directly to bone
C. Tendons, ligaments, and directly to bone
D. Tendons and cartilage

A

A. Tendons, aponeurosis and directly to bone

72
Q

What distinguishes a sentinel node from other lymph nodes?
A. A sentinel node is swollen or diseased
B. A sentinel node contains both afferent and efferent lymph vessels
C. A sentinel node is the first lymph node in a group of nodes to be reached by metastasizing cancer cells
D. A sentinel node stores white blood cells

A

C. A sentinel node is the first lymph node in a group of nodes to be reached by metastasizing cancer cells

73
Q

The structure of the male anatomy carrying sperm out of the epididymis is called:
A. Seminal vesicles
B. Tunica vaginalis
C. Vas deferens
D. Testicles

A

C. Vas deferens

74
Q

Which of the following are auditory ossicles?
A. Incus and pinna
B. Tragus and malleus
C. Stapes and incus
D. Stapes and mastoid

A

C. Stapes and incus

75
Q

Which bone(s) have trochanters?
A. Humerus
B. Tibia
C. Femur
D. Both A and C

A

C. Femur

76
Q

Which one of the following is TRUE about the tympanic membrane?
A. It sits within the inner ear
B. It separates the middle ear from the inner ear
C. It sits within the middle ear
D. It separates the external ear from the middle ear

A

D. It separates the external ear from the middle ear

77
Q

What is vernix caseosa?
A. A spontaneous abortion
B. A white cheese like substance covering the fetus and newborn.
C. The fine, downy hair covering the fetus
D. When the mother first feels the fetus move

A

B. A white cheese like substance covering the fetus and newborn.

78
Q

Which one of the following best describes psoriasis?
A. An allergic reaction characterized by wheals and generally accompanied by pruritus.
B. An inflammatory condition characterized by redness pustular and vesicular lesions, crusts, and scales.
C. A contagious infection of skin generally caused by staphylococcus bacterium.
D. A chronic condition characterized by red, dry, elevated lesions, covered by silvery scales.

A

D. A chronic condition characterized by red, dry, elevated lesions, covered by silvery scales.

79
Q

Lacrimal glands are responsible for which of the following?
A. Production of zonules
B. Production of tears
C. Production of vitreous
D. Production of mydriatic agents

A

B. Production of tears

80
Q

The term pneumomediastinum describes what condition?
A. Inflammation of the mediastinum
B. Puncture of the alveoli of the lungs
C. The presence of air in the mediastinum
D. Presence of a cyst or tumor in the mediastinum

A

C. The presence of air in the mediastinum

81
Q

Which chamber of the heart is considered the one working the hardest?
A. Left ventricle
B. Left atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Right atrium

A

A. Left ventricle

82
Q

What is a myocardial infarction?
A. Lack of oxygen to the heart tissue, resulting in tissue death
B. Overgrowth of muscle tissue, affecting the heart’s ability to pump
C. Malfunction in one of the valves in the heart, disrupting blood flow
D. Abnormal heart beats causing pain, nausea and discomfort

A

A. Lack of oxygen to the heart tissue, resulting in tissue death

83
Q

A part of the male genital system sitting below the urinary bladder and surrounding the urethra is called the:
A. Prostate
B. Testis
C. Epididymis
D. Scrotum

A

A. Prostate

84
Q

Arthritis is an inflammation of what?
A. Muscle
B. Tendon
C. Joint
D. Nerve

A

C. Joint

85
Q

A deficiency of cells in the blood is defined as:
A. Bacteremia
B. Cytopenia
C. Erythremia
D. Phagocytosis

A

C. Cytopenia

86
Q

A procedure widening a narrowed vessel or obstructed blood vessel is called a(n):
A. Valvotomy
B. Angiography
C. Angioplasty
D. Thrombectomy

A

C. Angioplasty

87
Q

The operative overlapping of tissue to repair a defect in the diaphragm is called:
A. Immobilization
B. Immersion
C. Immunodiffusion
D. Imbrication

A

D. Imbrication

88
Q

Where would a subungual hematoma be located?
A. Under the toenail/fingernail
B. Scalp
C. Bottom of the foot
D. Mouth – under the tongue

A

A. Under the toenail/fingernail

89
Q

Which procedure visualizes the contents of the mediastinum?
A. Median rhinoscopy
B. Medialization
C. Mediastinotomy
D. Mediastinoscopy

A

D. Mediastinoscopy

90
Q

A medical treatment used to remove the waste products in the blood is:
A. Hemapheresis
B. Hemodialysis
C. Hemochromatosis
D. Hemophilia

A

B. Hemodialysis

91
Q

The radiology term fluoroscopy is a(n):
A. Use of high-frequency sound waves to image anatomic structures
B. Technique using magnetism, radio waves and a computer to produce images
C. X-ray procedure allowing the visualization of internal organs in motion
D. Scan using an X-ray beam rotating around the patient

A

C. X-ray procedure allowing the visualization of internal organs in motion

92
Q

The word describing the presence of blood in the pleural cavity is:
A. Hemothorax
B. Pleural effusion
C. Hemoptysis
D. Hydrothorax

A

A. Hemothorax

93
Q

The meaning of the root blephar/o is:
A. Eyelid
B. Uvea
C. Sclera
D. Choroid

A

A. Eyelid

94
Q

A condition where the thyroid is overactive is called:
A. Panhypopituitarism
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Ketosis
D. Thyroiditis

A

B. Thyrotoxicosis

95
Q

Cytopathology is the study of:
A. Tissue
B. Organs
C. Cells
D. Blood

A

C. Cells

CPC-Physician Based Medical Coding (48 decks)

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