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Immunology > compiled from notes > Flashcards

compiled from notes Flashcards

1
Q

stages of infection

A

entry into body
replication + spread
disease
exit from body (infect others)

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2
Q

barriers to infection (3)

A
  1. mechanical
  2. chemical
  3. microbiological
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3
Q

are b and t cells innate immune cells?

A

no

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4
Q

granulocytes can go to become _____ but there are also ______ _______

A

macrophages
resident macrophages

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5
Q

monocytes are in the _____, and can enter tissues and then differentiate into ____

A

blood
macrophages

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6
Q

macrophage functions (3)

A

phagocytosis
activation of bacterial mechanisms
antigen presentation

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7
Q

neutrophils are most common phagocytes t or f

A

t

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8
Q

neutrophils are ___ lived

A

short

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9
Q

phagocytes can be in the form of :
tissue ______
_____ in blood
_____ (PMN) in blood

A

macrophages
monocytes
pholymorphonuclear neutrophils

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10
Q

pathogens are recognized by ____

A

phagocytes (recognize pathogen components - e.g. cell wall)

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11
Q

on a damaged cell, the target for phagocytes are what

A

newly exposed sugars

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12
Q

mannose receptor is when ____ type _____ binds _____

A

c
lectin-R
mannose (carbs)

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13
Q

complement receptor is what ___, ___, and ___

A

CR3, 4
LPS

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14
Q

lipid receptor directs _____ function/_____

A

immune
metabolism

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15
Q

scavenger receptor binds ______ so is for bacteria and _____

A

LD lipoproteins
yeast

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16
Q

dectin-1 (beta glucan) receptor is ___ type ______ (like mannose receptor), which binds ____ structures and so is used as an anti-_____ response

A

C
lectin-R
beta-glucan
fungal

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17
Q

toll-like receptors are _____, and they recognize ___ and _____

A

PRR
PAMPS
DAMPS

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18
Q

PAMPS and DAMPS are either ___ or ___ dimer pairs

A

hetero
homo

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19
Q

what things initiate platform called the inflammasome?

A

NLRs, NLRP, NLRP3, NLRC4

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20
Q

what does the inflammasome do?

A

enables signalling molecules to come together to initiate type of programmed cell death
and secrete active cytokines (IL1BETA and IL18)

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21
Q

what are the immediate products of mast cells (3)

A

histamine
heparin
enzymes - tryptase and chymase

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22
Q

what are the delayed product of mast cells

A

prostaglandins
leukotrienes
cytokines

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23
Q

IL6 (_ IL1beta + TNFalpha) can do what

A

stimulate liver hepatocytes to make acute phase proteins

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24
Q

interferons act ____crine-ly

A

auto

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25
Q

interferons are an ____ cytokine

A

inflammatory

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26
Q

what do interferons do? (3)

A

inhibit viral replication
bind to cells expressing interferon receptors
activate macrophages + NKC

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27
Q

what do NK cells do? (1)

A

release lytic granules that kill some virus-infected cells

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28
Q

what are the 4 innate cells?

A
  • eosinophils
  • basophils
  • innate lymphoid
  • dendritic
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29
Q

what do eosinophils do?

A

immune cell recruitment

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30
Q

what do basophils do?

A

supports generation of adaptive immunity

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31
Q

what do innate lymphoids do?

A

support gut immune response

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32
Q

what do dendritic cells do?

A

direct adaptive immunity

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33
Q

what are the steps to phagocytosis?

A
  1. attachment via PRR
  2. ingestion
  3. killing - in phagocytic vacuole which has enzymes in it
  4. degredation
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34
Q

what are cytokines?

A

hormone-like molecules of immune (+other) systems

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35
Q

what are the families of cytokines?

A

interleukins
interferons
chemokines

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36
Q

what do chemokines do?

A

tells cells where to go in body

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37
Q

what does RAGE do?

A

recognizes products of damage

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38
Q

what are some other PRR families? (3)

A

RLR
CLR
NLR

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39
Q

what is RLR 1

A

intracellular receptors

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40
Q

what is CLR

A

c-type lectin receptors

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41
Q

what is NLR

A

nucleotide binding domain (most are intracellular)

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42
Q

what is paracrine signalling

A

secretion by cells into immediate extracellular environment

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43
Q

what is endocrine signalling

A

hormones secreted by special cells into bloodstream

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44
Q

what is autocrine signalling

A

cells secreting signallign molecules that bind to receptors on its own surface

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45
Q

which are the two most common type of signalling

A

paracrine
autocrine

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46
Q

complement is one of the sources of ____

A

opsonin

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47
Q

what is complement? a collection of ____ proteins in ____ that circulate in ___ form

A

soluble
plasma
inactive

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48
Q

the classical pathway is initiated by _____ or ____

A

antibody
CRP

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49
Q

the alternative pathway is initiated by ______

A

C3b

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50
Q

the lectin pathway is initiated by ____

A

MBL (mannose binding lectin / protein)

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51
Q

what does opsonin do?

A

sticks to pathogens + flags them and makes them ‘tastier’ for macrophages

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52
Q

acute phase proteins ____ immune response

A

amplify

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53
Q

haptoglobin does what

A

binds iron

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54
Q

complement c3 is cleaved to make

A

c3a and c3b

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55
Q

serum-amyloid _____ fever + _____ activation

A

inhibits
platelet

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56
Q

c-reactive protein binds ____, _____ and can trigger _____

A

phosphoryl choline
opsonin
complement

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57
Q

the innate response is ___, with ____ methods of attack. it is not always ____.

A

immediate
varied
specific

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58
Q

the adaptive response is ___ and specific. it also has _____ through _______

A

targeted
memory
B + T lymphocytes

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59
Q

b cells attack ___ cells

A

outside

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60
Q

b cells originate and differentiate in _____

A

bone marrow

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61
Q

t cells attack ____ cells

A

inside

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62
Q

t cells originate in ____

A

bone marrow

63
Q

where do t cells differentiate?

A

thymus

64
Q

both b and t cells have _____ on their surface that can recognize _____

A

receptors
foreign molecules

65
Q

what is the main function of an antibody

A

to bind foreign antigens

66
Q

antibody/antigen interactions are determined by ________ of the _____

A

hypervariable regions
antibody

67
Q

the hypervariable regions form the ________

A

complementary determining region

68
Q

antigen binding site = _______ in shape to ______

A

comlpementary
antigenic epitope

69
Q

antibodies usually bind to _______

A

conformational epitopes

70
Q

conformational epitopes are formed by _______

A

protein folding

71
Q

the forces in antigen-antibody binding are

A

non-covalent (not strong)

72
Q

the affinity of antigen binding is what

A

the strength of binding between an epitope + antigen/antibody binding site

73
Q

the avidity of antibody binding is what

A

overall strength of an antibody-antigen complex (if antibody is using both binding sites, overall strength is more)

74
Q

are antibodies produced all the time?

A

no

75
Q

the humoral immune response is mediated by _____

A

antibodies

76
Q

antibodies have many effector functions, such as (4)

A
  • neutralization
  • opsonization
  • activation of complement
  • antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity
77
Q

what is neutralization

A

prevents pathogen or protein from binding to target
prevents the entering of a cell + replicating

78
Q

vaccines elicit what kind of response

A

neutralization

79
Q

what is opsonization

A

pathogen tagged by antibodies is phagocytosed by macrophages or neutrophil

80
Q

in opsonization, the ___ domain binds to ___ receptor to trigger ______

A

Fc
Fc
phagocytosis

81
Q

MALT (_________) is associated with ______ which is for _____ secretions and ____ surfaces

A

mucosal associated lymphoid tissue
IgA
external
membrane

82
Q

what do b cell receptors do? (3)

A
  • determines fate of antigen encountered b cells
  • modulate gene expression, adhesion or survival
  • differentiate into plasma b cell
83
Q

papain cuts at _____ bonds that link ____ chains

A

disulfide
heavy

84
Q

antibody structure = _____dimers
2 identical ___ chains
2 identical ____ chains

A

hetero
light
heavy

85
Q

what are fab fragments

A

fragment antigen binding

86
Q

the remaining domain after papain cleaves antibody doesn’t bind ___ but ____ - so called Fc (=____ ____)

A

antigen
crystalizes
fragment crystalizeable

87
Q

parts of antigens that are recognized by antibody are called ____ ____

A

antigenic epitopes

88
Q

the antigen binding site is at the __ terminal

A

N

89
Q

the effector domain in an antigen is at the __ terminal

A

C

90
Q

acquired antibody response =

A

after exposure to pathogen

91
Q

specific antibody response =

A

for specific pathogen

92
Q

memory antibody response =

A

2nd response = bigger and faster

93
Q

innate response is … (3)

A

immediate
not-specific for any one pathogen
no memory 2nd memory same as first

94
Q

ADCC is when cells with ___ can bind ___ and kill target cells by releasing ___ and ____

A

FCR (e.g. NK cell or macrophage)
antibody
perforin
granzymes

95
Q

antibodies attached to surface of pathogen activate the ___ ___ of complement system, which leads to … (2)

A

first protein
1. pore formation and lyse bacterium directly
2. induce phagocytosis

96
Q

IgM and IgA do what

A

form polymers

97
Q

in the Fc portion, what is there

A

CH3, CH2, CH1

98
Q

CD4 ‘____’ t cells

A

helper

99
Q

CD8 ‘____’ t cells

A

cytotoxic

100
Q

TCR’s dont recognize ___ directly unlike BCRs

A

antigens

101
Q

in TCR, the Valpha and Vbeta domains contain _____ resulting in different ____ on different T cells, which are specific for different ____ ____

A

hypervariable regions
CDRs
antigen epitopes

102
Q

CP3 is not involved in _____ ___, but interacts with TCR to mediate ____ ____

A

antigen recognition
intracellular signalling

103
Q

an antigen has to be processed and presented by ____ via ____

A

APC
MHC

104
Q

what is MCH

A

collection of genes arrayed with long continuous stretch of DNA

105
Q

MHC molecules bind ___ _____ and present to ___ cells

A

antigenic peptides
t cells

106
Q

MHC’s are polygenic, meaning

A

they contain several different MHC class I and class II genes

107
Q

MHC’s are polymorphic, meaning

A

multiple variants of each gene within population

108
Q

MHC class 1 and 2 are involved in ____ to ___ cells

A

antigen presenting
t

109
Q

MHC class 3 doesn’t code for ____

A

MHC genes

110
Q

MHC class II encode ___ and __ chains

A

alpha and beta

111
Q

MHC class II is encoded by ___ ___ ___ regions

A

DP, DQ, DR

112
Q

MCH class III are components of complement _____ factor heat shock proteins

A

tumour necrossi

113
Q

MHC-1 has a long ___ chain

A

alpha

114
Q

in MHC 2, there is restricted ____, both chains have ____ and ____ domains

A

expression
cytoplasmic
transmembrane

115
Q

MHC genes are ____ expressed in you

A

codominantly

116
Q

MHC class I + II form complexes with ____ ligands

A

peptide

117
Q

MHC class 1 is involved in the presentation of ___ antigens

A

intracellular

118
Q

MHC class 2 are involved in presentation of _____ antigens

A

extracellular

119
Q

when an endogenous antigen is presented to class I MHC, the process is :
antigen degraded in ____, and then the antigen ___ transported by ___ to ____

A

proteosome
peptides
TAP
RER

120
Q

one the antigen is in the MHC, _____ binds to both antigen peptide and ____

A

TCR
MHC

121
Q

TCR specificity is determined by (2)

A

antigen peptide
MHC

122
Q

MHC class 1 presents antigen to CD__ t cells

A

8

123
Q

MHC class 2 presents antigen to CD__ t cells

A

4

124
Q

CD4 - t cells interact with ____

A

macrophages

125
Q

what are the primary lymphoid tissues

A

where B and T cells develop
thymus, bone marrow

126
Q

primary lymphoid tissues are ___ independent

A

Ag

127
Q

what are secondary lymphoid tissues

A

where lymphocytes migrate to
lymph nodes, spleen, MALT

128
Q

afferent lymphatic vessels ____ lymph nodes

A

drain

129
Q

lymph leaves through _____ lymphatic vessels

A

efferent

130
Q

migration is ___ driven

A

selectin

131
Q

in migration, __ selectin is induced on vessels in response to _____

A

P
leukotrine

132
Q

____ and ___ induce 2nd selectin (___ selectin)

A

TNF
LPS
E

133
Q

the E-selectin recognizes the ________ on immune cells, and the process of _____ begins

A

lewis x structures
rolling

134
Q

in the firm attachment bit of migration, ____ and ____ are involved

A

ICAM-1
ICAM-2

135
Q

ICAM-1 is an

A

intracellular adhesion molecule

136
Q

ICAM-1 and 2 bind to ___ and ___ on leukocytes, stopping rolling

A

LFA-1
CR3

137
Q

the third step of migration is _____

A

extravasation

138
Q

extravasion is what

A

leukocyte crossing endothelial wall

139
Q

_____ (PECAM) interactions also facilitate extravasion on ____ and ____ cells

A

CD31
leukocyte
endothelial

140
Q

cells move ___ the chemokine gradient

A

up

141
Q

naive t and b cells get ___ into lymph node

A

venules

142
Q

____ and ___ are produced at the infection site

A

CXCL8 and CCL2

143
Q

CXCL8 is released by _____ and attracts ____

A

macrophages
neutrophils

144
Q

CCL2 is produced by _____ cells and ____ cells, and attracts _____

A

endothelial
stromal
monocytes

145
Q

CXCL8 (IL8) is produced by ______ and _____ cells and mobilizes ____ cells

A

epithelial
macrophages
naive t cells

146
Q

the spleen has no _____ lymphatics

A

afferent

147
Q

the spleen filters ____ from the blood

A

antigen

148
Q

high endothelial venules let ____ leave bloodstream and enter _____

A

lymphocytes
lymph node

149
Q

B cells follow ____ path

A

chemokine

150
Q

L-selectin, which is an ____ interacts with _____, which is an ______

A

adhesion molecule
CD34
endothelial ligand

151
Q

antibodies are made by cells of _____ lineage

A

b lymphocyte

152
Q

antibodies are produced by ____ cells that differentiate from ___________

A

plasma
antigen specific b cells

153
Q
A

Immunology (8 decks)

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