Comp Test Flashcards

1
Q

Set of guiding moral principles that governs a person’s choice of action

A

Code of ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Personal comfort zones that help a person maintain a sense of comfort and safety

A

Boundaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Discussions that take place when both persons are at the same height minimize the

A

Power differential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is it OK to massage breast tissue?

A

Only when therapy indicated, and after gaining informed consent before massage begins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define the power differential in a practitioner/client relationship

A

Inherent power differential is present that favors the practitioner, whereas the client is in a more vulnerable position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Explain some signs of a client’s discomfort

A

Fidgeting, withdrawn, grimacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who has the advantage in the power differential between client and practitioner?

A

Practitioner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When a client personalizes either negative or positive a therapeutic relationship by unconsciously projecting characteristics of someone from a former relationship onto a therapist or practitioner

A

Transference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When a therapist or practitioner personalizes a therapeutic relationship by unconsciously projecting characteristics of someone from a former relationship onto a client

almost always detrimental

A

Countertransference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name some signs of counter transfers

A

Thinking about a client excessively between sessions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maintaining healthy professional boundaries is the best defense against

A

transference and countertransference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Any situation that combines the therapeutic relationship with a secondary relationship that extends beyond practitioner client relationship

A

Dual relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

You’re visiting the Saturday market and you bump into your client. Should you initiate contact?

A

No, only if they initiate with you

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is bartering?

A

Another form of dual relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If feelings or attraction develops on the part of the client, what should the practitioner do in response?

A

Maintain and uphold professional boundaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hostile, aggressive, casual, pleasurable, sensual, erotic, and therapeutic are

A

7 Classifications of Touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The same nerve plexus that controls the lower abdomen, buttocks and thighs, also controls the

A

Genitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

During a massage, a spontaneous erection or arousal might become

A

Uncomfortable or fearful for the practitioner, client or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why does an experience LMT make the best mentor for a new practitioner?

A

Can provide insight into many aspects of developing a successful massage business or practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Ability to set positive goals, and achieve them

A

Self motivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The study of the gross structure of the body or the study of an organism and the interrelations of its parts

A

Anatomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The study and science of the vital processes, mechanism and functions of an organ or system of organs

A

Physiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The scientific study of muscular activity and the mechanics of body movement

A

Kinesiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The study of structural and functional changes caused by disease

A

Pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Subjective evidence of disease or bodily disorder

A

Symptom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where is the stress or “fight or flight” hormone epinephrine produced?

A

Adrenal glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Five primary sensations of the body

A

Heat, cold, pain, touch, pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define systemic infection

A

Spread throughout the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What’s the potential damage when a fever over 106° is present?

A

Damage to tissue, liver, organs, brain, and can cause death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

_______ of the central nervous system that are injured by trauma or infection repair very slowly or not at all

A

Neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When the wound is healed, this span of fiberous connective tissue is called

A

Scar tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does -5 indicate on the wellness scale?

A

Severe illness combined with bad attitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A colorless, jelly-like substance that contains food elements like protein, fats, carbs, mineral salts, and water

A

Protoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Process of building up larger molecules from smaller ones

A

Anabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

During embryonic stage this forms the glands of skin, nails, nervous system, lining of the mouth, anal canal, epidermis and hair

A

Ectodermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The membrane covering the cartilage

A

Perichondrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Composed of neurons and initiates, controls and coordinates the bodies adaptations to its surroundings

A

Nervous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What kind of tissue has an abundance of fat cells? (AKA Areolar Tissue)

A

Adipose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Imaginary line the divides the body into anterior and posterior halves

A

Coronal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the two dorsal cavities?

A

Brain and spinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does the Stratum spinosum consist of?

A

Irregularly shaped cells containing melanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Egg shaped preceptors found throughout subcutaneous layers and are sensitive to vibration and pressure

A

Pacinian Corpuscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Fan like muscles connected to the base of the follicle and positioned in such a way they contract in response to cold and emotional stimuli, creating “goosebumps”

A

Arrector Pili

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

List locations of long bones

A

Legs, arms, fingers, and toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

In the axial skeleton, what forms a protective cage for the lungs, heart sternum?

A

Thoracic cage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Define Synarthrotic Joints
(give example)

A

Immovable joints

ex. skull sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Define ball and socket joints (give example)

A

Permits greatest range of motion

ex. Shoulders and hips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In older women, a fracture after a minor accident is often an indication of what?

A

Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The origin of a muscle is generally located closer or farther from the center of the body?

A

Closer to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Muscles that assist the primary muscle of an action

A

Synergy muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does dorsal mean (related to the body)

A

Behind or in back of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the pericardium?

A

Double layered membrane that encloses the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The relaxation and enlargement of arterial walls

A

Vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The smallest microscopic thin- walled blood vessels are called

A

Capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Blood exits the right ventricle of the heart and travels to the

A

Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

________ is a mass of blood trapped in some tissue or cavity of the body and is the result of internal bleeding

A

Hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the function of serotonin in relation to blood clotting?

A

Platelets release serotonin, which is a vasoconstrictor that causes a vascular spasm closing the blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What part of the lymphatic system does the actual filtering?

A

Lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The thoracic duct receives lymph from

A

Legs, left arm, left side of head, neck, chest and abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What pathology is indicated when CD4 + T–cells fall below 200 per cubic millimeter of blood

A

AIDS or HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The transmission of HIV requires three simultaneous conditions. What are they?

A

High concentration of the virus, a proper environment, and a port of entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Carries nerve impulses from the brain to the effectors

A

Motor neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the Dura Mater?

A

The outermost layer of the meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The Autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous system are the two parts of the

A

Peripheral nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is unique about the sciatic nerve?

A

Longest and largest nerve in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Autonomic nervous system is responsible for

A

Regulating smooth muscles, the heart and other involuntary functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Reduced heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure, and increased digestion are all effects of __________ _______ ________ activity

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Soft tissue, such as muscle, fascia, tendon or ligament that puts pressure against a nerve causes what?

A

Nerve entrapment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What maintains the relationship between the nervous and endocrine system?

A

Pituitary and Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Where does the pituitary gland live?

A

In the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Name the three hormones produced by the thyroid

A

Thyroxine, triiodothyronine and calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are islets of Langerhans?

A

Specialized cells that produce the hormones glucagon and insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What gland is found on the top of each kidney?

A

Adrenal glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What two hormones are produced by the ovaries?

A

Estrogen and progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Highly infectious airborne disease that can spread through the body

A

Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the alimentary canal?

A

Muscular tube that goes from the lips to the anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Wave like muscular movement that propels material through the alimentary canal

A

Peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the purpose of the Villi in the small intestine?

A

Greatly increases the surface area available for absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

S shaped bend in the colon that connects to the colon that empties into the rectum

A

Sigmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Hormone produced in the kidneys that act to regulate blood pressure

81
Q

Any physical, emotional or mental condition that might cause a particular massage treatment to be unsafe or detrimental to the clients well-being

A

Contraindication

82
Q

What massage strokes will cause the skin to warm or redden slightly?

A

Friction and stroking

83
Q

What does the central nervous system consist of?

A

Brain and spinal cord

84
Q

What does the peripheral nervous system include?

A

Autonomic, cranial nerves, spinal nerves

85
Q

Both central and peripheral nervous system are part of the

A

Nervous system

86
Q

The somatic motor neurons, and the sensory neurons make up the

A

Cranial and spinal nerves

87
Q

What massage technique stimulates the peripheral nerve receptors

A

Percussion

88
Q

________ seems to modify behavior in a way that counterbalances the effects of norepinephrine

89
Q

Massage reduces the sensation of pain..how?

A

Increasing concentration of endorphins, enkephalins, and other pain reducing neurochemicals in the central nervous system and bloodstream.

90
Q

inflammation of a vein accompanied by pain and swelling

91
Q

Name four effective communication skills

A

Speaking, listening, writing and body language

92
Q

Name three ways you can personalize the connection with your client

A

Maintaining visual contact, using their name and listen attentively

93
Q

Name three ways a client might indicate they are feeling discomfort, and the massage may need to be altered

A

Fidgeting, muscle contractions and flinching

94
Q

Being with the client, waiting until a client has finished before speaking, repeating what client has said and gaining agreement from the client are the four ways you can practice

A

Active listening

95
Q

after the initial consultation, what should you begin each follow up session with?

A

A short question-and-answer period to determine any changes in conditions or course of treatment.

96
Q

Name the five policies and procedures you should discuss during your initial consultation

A

Types of services offered, session procedures, qualifications, business policies, and fees

97
Q

Define your appointment policy

State that information shared during the session and all client files are confidential, except when subpoenaed by a court of law

A

Included in business policies

98
Q

The clients health history may change, so updates are required whenever the health status has changed such as

A

New medication and diagnosis

99
Q

What is a body diagram used for?

A

Have client point out painful or stiff areas that require attention

100
Q

What is the treatment plan?

A

Outline the practitioner can follow when giving massage treatments

101
Q

What is the value of conducting a post session interview?

A

Evaluating the client’s massage experience in what techniques and modalities were effective

102
Q

Putting a single line through the error and adding the new information is utilized when

A

Making corrections on handwritten records

103
Q

Name the movement that occurs in the axial skeleton

A

Lateral flexion

104
Q

Two areas of the body that pronation occurs and describe the movement

A

Radius crosses over the Ulna turning the palm down

Mid-Tarsal joint unlocks at mid stance and turns the foot inward

105
Q

Name an area of the body that opposition occurs

106
Q

Name two ankle movements

A

Plantar Flexion and Dorsiflexion

107
Q

Walking on the heels of your foot would be what ankle movement?

A

Dorsiflexion

108
Q

Lateral deviation occurs in what area of the body?

109
Q

Plane of movement that divides the body into upper and lower parts

A

Transverse plane

110
Q

When referring to the trunk of the body, which directional terms are used?

A

Cranial and Caudal

111
Q

What is the directional term when the body structure is anatomically closer to the trunk?

112
Q

Where would a posterior structure of the body be located?

A

Closer to back of body than front

113
Q

Where would a lateral structure of the body be located?

A

Further from midline of the body

114
Q

When a structure is closer to the bodies surface, it is called

A

Superficial

115
Q

Movement that bends a joint or brings bones closer together

116
Q

Moving a limb laterally away from the midline

117
Q

When the anterior surface of the thigh swings away from the midline

A

Lateral rotation of the thigh

118
Q

Movement of the head and vertebral column along the transverse plane is called

119
Q

Which movements are used in circumduction?

A

Flexion, extension, adduction, and abduction

120
Q

Using the anatomical term, where is the popliteal?

A

Situated in the area posterior to the knee

121
Q

What region of the body is the axillary located?

A

The armpit

122
Q

Section of the skeleton that includes Vertebral column and ribs

A

Axial skeleton

123
Q

What does the synovial joint contain besides synovial fluid?

A

Joint cavity

124
Q

What movement is the ball and socket joint capable of?

A

Movement in every plane

125
Q

Where is the ellipsoid joint found?

A

Radiocarpal/Wrist

126
Q

Where is the gliding joint found?

A

Carpals and Tarsals

127
Q

Articulation between the trapezium and first metacarpal of the thumb are an example of

A

A saddle joint on the hand

128
Q

Malaria is a disease caused by a

129
Q

What process limits the spread of infection and prepares an area for healing?

A

Inflammation

130
Q

An x-linked genetic anomaly usually causes

A

Muscular dystrophy

131
Q

Becker MD and Duchenne MD are the most common forms of

A

Muscular dystrophy

132
Q

What condition would you passively dorsiflex the foot and work the Achilles tendon?

A

Cramp in calf that might be caused by dehydration or over exercising

133
Q

What mineral aids in blood clotting, nerve transmission, and chemical buffering?

134
Q

What are some signs that a person may have ligament laxity and a risk of osteoarthritis?

A

If a sprain does not heal well

135
Q

Jaw pain; loss of range of motion at the jaw; popping and clicking at the jaw might be

A

TMJ disorder

136
Q

Describe how a ganglion cyst presents

A

Hard, painless lump often on the tendons of joints

137
Q

Foot pain, calluses and ankle instability are likely to be symptoms of

138
Q

Neck injuries could cause symptoms of what syndrome?

A

Carpal tunnel

139
Q

Small cumulative injuries in the annulus fibrosis leading to structural weakness

A

Degenerative disc disease

140
Q

Atherosclerosis is most likely to lead to what conditions?

A

Arterial thrombus or arterial embolism

141
Q

Bone fractures are one unique symptom that occurs in what type of blood cancer?

142
Q

The inheritance of the positive gene from one parent is the leading cause of what trait?

A

Sickle cell trait

143
Q

What type of massage could cause the adverse event of sickle cell crisis?

Damaged erythrocytes block a small artery or capillaries, preventing blood flow to the starving tissue

A

Rigorous massage

144
Q

Endothelial damage from hypertension and other factors is the most reliable first step in developing what disease?

A

Atherosclerosis

145
Q

Client is 42 and has lost 25 pounds in the last three months but is still 50 pounds overweight. He has had two heart attacks and a coronary bypass surgery. What is your best strategy?

A

Work within his capacity for adaptation, make accommodations for his medication’s

146
Q

What is the best option for working with a client with Raynaud’s disease?

A

Work with them normally

Offer a paraffin bath to promote vasodilation if you have the facilities

147
Q

Varicosities that are permanently dilated capillaries or venules clearly visible on the skin and occur on a very small scale

A

Talangiectasias

148
Q

Multiple electrical impulses cause the atria to contract rapidly and weakly, which is the main contributing factor of what

149
Q

When air rushes in to fill a vacuum created by thoracic muscles, it best describes

A

Inhalation

150
Q

Genetic anomalies and/or exposure to pollutants cause irreversible damage to alveoli best describes which disease

151
Q

What are radiation, cigarette smoke and asbestos well established in causing?

152
Q

When working on a client when and where do you use soap and warm water?

A

On your hands before touching a client

153
Q

Five common modes of disease transmission

A

Ingestion, inhalation, direct contact with mucus membranes, skin contact, and invasion broken skin

154
Q

Minute unicellular microorganisms exhibiting both plant and animal characteristics

155
Q

A parasitic submicroscopic particle that infects and resides in cells of biological organisms

156
Q

Organisms that thrive in warm, moist environments.

Found mostly in humans on the skin and mucous membranes

157
Q

Name types of fungal infections

A

Candidas, athletes foot, ringworm, and vaginal yeast infection

158
Q

Examples of parasites that affect humans

A

Ticks, fleas and mites

159
Q

Head lice is considered a

160
Q

What machine could be used for sterilization?

A

Autoclaves (high pressure steam equipment)

161
Q

When is the surface considered properly cleaned?

A

When the number of contaminants have been greatly reduced

162
Q

What should contain an EPA registration number in a massage setting?

A

On any disinfectant

163
Q

How long should it take to wash and brush the nails on both hands?

A

60 seconds

164
Q

According to the standard precautions for massage practitioners, when should you put on gloves?

A

When there is potential exposure to blood, non-intact skin or other bodily fluids

165
Q

When an exposure incident occurs, what should you do before cleansing the wound with antiseptic?

166
Q

A fresh bleach solution should be mixed every ______ or when the solution has been __________

A

24 hours, contaminated

167
Q

Full sheet draping uses ONE ___________________ to cover the table and wrap the client

A

Full-size flat sheet

168
Q

How does the use of Terry cloth wraps differ from men and women?

A

Cover breast tissue on women, around the waist for men

169
Q

Where do you instruct your client to place the opening of the wrap/towel/sheet?

A

At their side

170
Q

Name the three positions a client would lie on the massage table?

A

Prone, Supine, Side-lying

171
Q

How do you position/bolster a client to take pressure off the cervical spine while prone?

A

Place a bolster under their chest

172
Q

When your client is in the prone position, a bolster under the ankles prevents what?

A

Hyperextension of the knees/ankles

173
Q

What’s a common alternative to a table massage for a client that cannot lie down?

A

Chair massage

174
Q

After _________________________________, remember to keep in contact with the client‘s body throughout the procedure

A

Draping and applying lubricant to the part of the body to be massaged

175
Q

How many times should your client have to change positions?

A

Only once or twice

176
Q

When working on an area or performing a stroke what is the general rule?

A

Superficial to deep back to superficial

General to specific back to general

177
Q

When applying lubricant to your hands, why do you rub your hands together?

A

To warm the lubricant to your body temperature

178
Q

According to the order of treatment, what part of the body should you end your massage with?

179
Q

General arm massage: what is the steps before and after kneading the arm from shoulder to wrist?

A

Before: apply gliding to both the anterior and posterior aspect of the arm

After: apply gliding from the wrist to the shoulder

180
Q

A repeated hand over hand gliding movement

A

Shingles stroke

181
Q

Step two of procedure for general massage for the back of body

A

Beginning on the low back

182
Q

What accommodations would you make while performing a face massage on a client wearing contact lenses

A

Avoid the eyes

183
Q

Is it OK to use lubricant on a client scalp?

184
Q

To complete a full body massage where should you place your hands while the client is prone?

A

Sacrum and base of neck

185
Q

Circular friction is applied when massaging a clients

186
Q

Is the business theme that is derived from the owners dreams and ideals

187
Q

Summarize the three criteria the IRS uses to differentiate between an independent contractor and an employee

A

Behavioral control, financial control, relationship with the business

188
Q

Is an individual business owner, responsible for all expenses, obligations, liabilities, and assets

A

Sole proprietorship

189
Q

Name some things that would be considered professional fees

A

Attorney, accountant, graphic artist, web designer, and business coach

190
Q

If a business has a strong word of mouth reputation, it can be located

A

In an out of the way prestigious location

191
Q

What is an employers identification number (EIN)?

A

The federal tax identification number issued to businesses and is used on all tax related forms

192
Q

Is it OK for your receptionist to share client information?

193
Q

How long do you keep all financial records?

A

At least 7 years

194
Q

What is an income ledger?

A

Summary of all cash receipts, or invoices

195
Q

What is a P&L (profit & loss) statement?

A

Summary of the income and expenses for a particular period such as monthly, quarterly, or annually.

196
Q

What information should you include on your business card?

A

Name, business address, phone number, email, and/or website

197
Q

How many business cards should you give to an individual at any time?

A

Two or three so they can pass one along to someone else

198
Q

What should you consider when selecting a business location?

A

Population, transportation facilities, quite enough to induce relaxation, space required, zoning ordinance, and parking