Colin Moss's Driver's Stuff Flashcards
1
Q
According to IFSTA, at what pressure does the air protection valve limit air horn utilization?
A
80 PSI
2
Q
What does the S.A.E. number indicate?
A
The oil viscosity
3
Q
What is IFSTA?
A
International Fire Service Training Association
4
Q
What is the minimum tread depth for tires in the Boise Fire Deparmtnet?
A
5/32
5
Q
What do quick release valves do in the braking system?
A
They are used to send appropriate amounts of air to the brakes. They are also the link to the anti-lock braking system.
6
Q
What is the ECM?
A
The brain of the engine and pressure governor.
7
Q
What is a carrier bearing?
A
A carrier bearing supports the driveline and helps reduce vibration when it has a long span.
8
Q
How can you tell if a fuel filter is clogged or dirty?
A
By the level of the fuel in the bottom. A small amount indicates a clean filter. A large amount indicates a possible blockage.
9
Q
What pressure is recommended for checking the fire commander pressure governor?
A
150 PSI
10
Q
When is it ok to drive through water on the roadway?
A
When you can visibly see the street and verify roadway safety.
11
Q
Max speed for a BFD engine or truck?
A
70 MPH
12
Q
Max speed through a light controlled intersection?
A
Posted speed limit
13
Q
Max speed when opposing traffic?
A
Posted speed limit
14
Q
Max speed for a water tender?
A
Posted speed limit, not to exceed 60 MPH.
15
Q
Max speed when towing a trailer?
A
Posted speed limit, not to exceed 60 MPH.
16
Q
Max speed in a school zone?
A
Posted speed limit
17
Q
What hours are ITD interstate response vehicles in service and available for assistance?
A
0600-2000
18
Q
Roadway Checklist
A
Provide Proper apparatus placement
Limit Exposure
Scene Lighting
Proper PPE, including safety vest
Provide advanced warning
Shut down roadway (coordinate w/LE)
Work on side away from traffic
Limit Scene Time
19
Q
Define Soot
A
Partially burned particles of fuel that occur during normal engine operation (black smoke).
20
Q
Define ash
A
Partially burned particles of engine oil that occur during normal engine operation.
21
Q
Name and Define the two types of active regeneration.
A
Automatic- Occurs when engine load, exhaust temperature, and engine speed are within an acceptable range and the engine begins dosing fuel into the exhaust system to clean the DPF.
Parked- allows cleaning of the DPF while stationary and requires operator to initiate.
22
Q
Once DPF light illuminates, how soon should an active regeneration by initiated?
A
Within one hour
23
Q
What does a flashing DPF light and illuminated check engine light mean?
A
The regeneration must be performed before further operation. The engine will not de-rate or shut down and you likely will have to contact maintenance to force a regen and clear the check engine light.
24
Q
What does the regeneration process remove from the DPF?
A
Only soot
25
How is ash removed from the DPF?
By removing the DPF and cleaning it at specified intervals
26
What light/lights will be illuminated in the case of extreme build-up of soot and necessitate a thorough cleaning of the DPF?
Blinking DPF light
Solid check engine light
Solid stop engine light
27
To perform a parked regeneration, the engine coolant should be above what temperature?
185 degrees Fahrenheit
28
True or False? You can regen with the engine at either slow or high idle?
False. The engine must be at slow idle.
29
How long does the regen process take?
20-40 minutes
30
Describe the steps to initiate a parked regen, from engine idling, transmission in N, and parking brake on.
1) Ensure engine temp is 185
2) Cycle parking brake on and off and on again
3) Cycle transmission to D and then back to N
4) Hold DPF regen switch to the ON position for five seconds and release.
31
Once a parked regen is complete, what would it mean if the DPF, check engine, stop engine, or malfunction indicator lights were still illuminated?
A fault condition exists and should be diagnosed by maintenance
32
What occurrences will cancel a regen process?
If the brake is released, the engine is put into drive, the engine is shut off, the DPF regen-inhibit switch is pushed, or the regen button is held for 5 seconds or more.
33
What is the size of the DEF reservoir on the pierce engines?
4.5 gallons
34
What does it mean if the DEF low light is illuminated solid?
DEF level is between 1/4 and 1/8 full
35
What does it mean if the DEF Low light is flashing?
DEF level is below 1/8
36
What does it mean if the DEF Low light is flashing and check engine light is illuminated?
DEF level is below 1/4 gallon. Engine will induce 55 mph speed limit and 25% torque de-rate.
37
What does it mean if the DEF Low light is flashing and check engine and MIL are illuminated?
DEF tank is empty. Engine will induce 55 mph speed limit and 25% torque de-rate.
38
What does it mean if the DEF Low light is flashing and check engine, stop engine, and MIL are illuminated?
DEF tank is empty and has been ignored. Engine will induce 5 mph speed limit and 25% torque de-rate.
39
True or False? Backflushing is to be performed using a pressurized water supply.
False. Backflushing is only to be performed using tank water and gravity.
40
Describe the process of charging a second line that requires a higher pressure than the first.
1) Slowly charge second line at existing pressure.
2) Increase discharge pressure while gating back the first line. Line shall be gated without exceeding 10 PSI of its original pressure.
41
In a relay operation, intake pressure should be kept in what range?
20-100 PSI
42
True or False: the EFC has a cavitation protection feature that is available only in pressure mode.
True
43
What conditions would cause the cavitation protection feature to activate on both the Fire Commander I & II and what does that do?
Fire Commander I- If PDP drops below 30 PSI for longer than 5 seconds or engine speed increased by mor than 400 RPM- engine goes to idle.
Fire Commander II- If PDP drops below 45 PSI for longer than 7 seconds or engine speed increases by more than 400 RPM- engine goes to idle.
44
Min and Max speed for deploying on spot chains? Max speed for use?
Deployment- 5-15 mph
Use- 35 MPH
45
What does a yellow stripe painted at the base of a hydrant mean?
It's a high pressure hydrant that's connected to a private fire protection system/loop that may boost pressures to 125-175 PSI
46
What does a light blue stripe or sticker on a hydrant mean?
The hydrant is eligible for use by the Fire Department, private contractors, and ACHD.
47
Where should a hydrant marker be placed on hydrants located mid-block?
At least 6 inches off the center line even with the hydrant
48
How should a hydrant within 100 feet of an intersection be marked?
At least 6 inches off the center line on both roads
49
Bushes and shrubbery shouldn't be within how many feet of a hydrant to ensure it is clearly visible?
3 feet
50
What is the most common size of automatic sprinkler head orifice?
1/2 inches
51
What is the discharge coefficient (K factor) for a typical 1/2" sprinkler head?
5.5
52
What is a class I standpipe?
Class I systems are installed for use by the fire department. They feature a 2 1/2" connection.
53
What is a Class II standpipe?
Class II systems are installed for use by building occupants. They are limited to a 1 1/2" hose.
54
What is a Class III standpipe?
Class III systems incorporate the features of both a Class I and a Class II standpipe.
55
Per NFPA 14, a PRV must be installed on a standpipe outlet when the discharge pressure exceeds what?
100 PSI
56
What is the equation for determining flow through a smooth bore nozzle?
GPM = 29.7(d²)(√NP)
57
What is the equation for determining friction loss?
FL=C(Q²)(L)
FL= Friction loss in pounds per square inch
C= friction loss co-efficient
Q= Flow rate in hundreds of gallons per minute (gpm/100)
L= Hose length in hundreds of feet (ft/100)
58
How much does 1 gallon of water weight?
8.3 lbs
59
How many gallons of water in one cubic foot?
7.5
60
What are the three factors that determine discharge pressure?
1) Volume
2) Speed at which the impeller is spinning
3) Pressure of water entering the pump
61
What is the maximum GPM you can flow when operating from tank water?
500 GPM
62
How many GPM does the Circulator/bypass valve flow?
10-20 GPM
63
What does the auxiliary cooler cool?
The engine
64
The pressure control valve must catch pressure spikes of how much, and within how much time?
Pressure spikes of 30PSI or greater in 3-10 seconds
65
When should ground ladders be cleaned and inspected?
The first Tuesday of each month/after each use
66
True of False? The "Idle" button on the EFC must be pushed before disengaging the pump. Why or why not?
True. If the transmission is placed in neutral to disengage the pump and the idle button has not been pushed, the EFC, if in pressure mode, will rev up the engine in an attempt to maintain pump pressure.
67
Name EFC and Transfer Valve modes for a relay engine in a relay operation.
EFC- RPM mode
Transfer valve- Volume mode
68
Name EFC and Transfer Valve modes for an attack engine in a relay operation.
EFC- Pressure Mode
Transfer Valve- Volume or Pressure mode depending on fire ground requirements
69
What's the first thing that hsould be done if a situation occurs that causes a loss of adequate water supply to pump and there is a sudden and radical increase in engine speed?
Push the Idle button
70
What engine conditions will activate the EFC's monitoring and warning system with a loud audible alarm and display on the Information Center window?
Low voltage
Low oil pressure
Overheating of the motor
71
What should you do if, upon arrival at an incident, the EFC fails to operate?
Shut down and restart the apparatus. If unsuccessful, place the transfer valve in the "pressure" position, which will put discharge pressure at about 60 PSI. This may be adequate to supply a 1 3/4' hose line for a small fire. For a more significant fire, a different apparatus should be used.
72
What are the three tenants of spotting?
Safety of responders, patients, and bystanders.
Efficiency of Operations
Existing and Predicted Conditions
73
How far should you spot for a trench rescue?
100 feet
74
What distance away from an affected area should you work to limit vibrations on a trench rescue call?
300 feet
75
Initial isolation distance for unknown gases, liquids, and solids?
Gases: 330 ft
Liquid: 150 ft
Solid: 75 ft
76
How can you deactivate any torque de-rates, speed limits, and warning lights associated with a low DEF level?
Refill the DEF tank
77
Decon Kit Contents
Large Garbage bags (for turnouts)
Large bio bags (for bloody gear)
Medical Gloves
Brush
Teri-wipes
Skin Wipes
White tape (for name)
Sharpie
78
What is barrier tape with a red and white chevron design used for?
To establish an exclusionary zone (an area or object that poses a significant or unusual risk to firefighters)
79
What are red and clear strobes used for?
Red- Mark items on the interior of importance
Clear-Mark Paths of Egress
80
Define preventative maintenance
Keeping an apparatus in a stated of readiness. This includes maintaining cleanliness, inspection, adding fluids, and exercising certain apparatus components.
81
Define repair
To restore or replace that which has become inoperable
82
Incident Priorities for all incidents
Life Safety
Incident Stabilization
Property Conservation
83
Name benchmarks to be communicated during a structure fire.
All clear primary search
All clear secondary search
Fire Control
Loss stopped
84
ARFF operations use the same strategic modes and benchmarks as what other type of incident?
Structure Fire
85
Strategic Mode types and descriptions for structure fire incidents?
Offensive Mode-Conducted inside a hazard zone with primary search and fire control as high priorities.
Defensive Mode- Conducted outside the hazard zone with exposure protection and area evacuation is high priorities.
86
Name Strategic Mode types and descriptions for dive, technical rescue, and special operations incidents?
Rescue Mode- Conducted when the possibility to save a human life exists.
Recovery Mode- Conducted without the goal of saving a human life.
87
Name Benchmarks to be communicated during a dive, technical rescue, and special operations incident.
Rescue Complete
Recovery Complete
Other benchmarks may be desired by command and communicated to dispatch, incident dependent.
88
Name MCI levels
Level 5- 5-9 Pts
Level 4- 10-24 Pts
Level 3- 25-49 Pts
Level 2- 50-99 Pts
Level 1- 100+ Pts
89
Name strategic mode types for for MCI incident?
Rescue Mode
Recovery Mode
90
Name benchmarks to be communicated during an MCI incident.
Rescue/Extrication Complete- this could have one or multiple (division specific or incident wide)
Incident Under Control
Last Red Transported
Last Patient Transported
91
True of False? To assist maintaining accountability, company officers should have their company's passport tag on their person during incidents?
False- passport tags shall remain with the apparatus
92
What should a Company Officer communicate when asked for a Roll Call?
Personnel Accountability Report (PAR) and identify their location (e.g. E1 PAR 3 on the exterior alpha side)
93
When should Roll Call be conducted?
When change is made from offensive to defensive.
When there is a sudden change to the incident.
When a Mayday is declared and the ID or location of the member is unknown.
When command feels it is necessary.
94
Elevators shall not be used for initial operations on incidents below what floor?
Floor 7
95
Prior to elevator operations during a high rise operation, first arriving companies will:
Ensure elevators in the affected area re recalled to the appropriate floor.
Ensure the fire alarm control panel does not show an alarm in the elevator shaft, control room or vestibule.
Visually inspect the elevator shaft to confirm there is no fire, smoke, or water present in the hoist way.
96
To which floor can elevators be ridden to in a high rise incident?
Two floors below the lowest level of alarm activation.
97
What should you do if the fire helmet symbol begins to flash while in an elevator?
Exit the elevator immediately at the nearest floor and notify command.
98
PPE and equipment requirements for riding an elevator during a high rise incident?
All PPE on with mask in place
SCBA charged and ready to attach regulator
Forcible entry tools, P-can, radio, and flashlight ready
Knowlege of access to the nearest stairs from the elevator vestibule
99
Definition of Full Protective Clothing (FPC).
Structural firefighting helmet with eye protection, protective hood, turnout coat and pants, boots and gloves.
100
What is the minimum perimeter distance for a bomb response incident?
300 ft
101
To facilitated scene safety, Command will limit the number of personnel on the incident scene by ensuring that all personnel will either:
Be positioned in Base, Staging, or Rehab
Be assigned to a task, group, or division
Be available for immediate re-assignment
Be released from the incident and returned to service.
102
All personnel entering the incident perimeter shall:
Wear appropriate protective clothing
Have the company intact with crew accountability accurate and updated on their unit's MDT
Have an assignment
103
What is the goal of fire supression?
To control the fire situation through aggressive action with regard to life safety, exposures, extension, and fire control.
104
What is the first tactic for a defensive fire?
Protect exposures
105
Signs of structural collapse
Cracks and/or bulges in exterior walls
Sounds of structural movement (creaking, groaning, snapping, etc)
Smoke or water leaking through walls
Movement of floor/roof where firefighters are walking
Interior/exterior load bearing walls or columns leaning, twisting or deflecting
Anytime the fire area involves a truss system
106
Rescue area priorities
Most severely threatened
The largest number of victims
Remainder of the fire area
Exposed areas
107
What information should be communicated to command as part of a rescue size up?
Number, location, and condition of victims
Survivability of victims
Capability of resources on scene to enter the building, remove/protect victims and control fire/ventilation
108
Law enforcement response codes
Code 1- low priority, units will arrive when available
Code 2- Immediate response, no lights or sirens
Coe 3- Immediate response with lights and sirens
109
Tools company should have with them to assist in an automatic alarm investigation.
Knox box key
Forcible entry tools
P-can
TIC
110
In high-rise operations, who makes up the investigation group?
First and second in engins and the first in truck
111
What is the minimum equipment for the fourth arriving engine at a high rise incident?
High rise bundles or equipment needed per assignement
4 SCBA bottles
RIT Equipment
112
What is the minimum equipment for the first arriving truck at a high rise incident?
2 pulling tools
2 irons
2 search lines
1 hydraulic forcible entry tool
6 SBA bottles
High rise kit
113
What is the minimum equipment for the second arriving truck at a high rise incident?
2 pulling tools
2 irons
2 search lines
1 hydraulic forcible entree
6 bottles
High rise kit
1 fan with extension cord
114
Minimum equipment for additional trucks at a high rise incident?
2 pulling tools
2 irons
2 search lines
1 hydraulic forcible entree tool
6 SCBA bottles
High Rise Kit
TIC
115
Equipment requirements for an elevator rescue incident?
Gloves
Helmet and eye protection
Knox box keys
Elevator/standpipe kit and elevator tools
Flashlights
Building keys
Set of irons
Pike pole (if no elevator tool)
116
Strategic mode types for wildland/urban interface incidents?
Direct Attack- applying treatment directly to burning fuel such as wetting, smothering, chemical, or physically separating burning fuel from unburned fuel.
Indirect Attack- control line is a considerable distance away from the fire's active edge. Done in cases of fast-spreading or high-intensity fire and to utilize natural or constructed firebreaks or fuelbreaks.
117
Benchmarks during wildland/urban interface incident
Fire Containment- the status of a control line around the fire and any associated spot fires. May be expressed in a percentage, but benchmark is achieved at 100%
Fire Control- completion of a control line around the fire, any spot fires, and any interior islands to be saved. Hot spots that are immediate threats are cooled down and lines can reasonably be expected to hold under foreseeable conditions.
118
Minimum pump capacity and water tank size for fire pumper according to NFPA 1901.
Pump Capacity: 750 GPM
Water Tank Size: 300 gallons
119
How much play can an apparatus steering wheel have?
No more than 10 degrees on each side. On a 20 inch diameter steering wheel, the play may be about 2 inches in either direction.
120
Below what engine air pressure will a warning light and buzzer activate?
60 PSI
121
Define Load Management System
All electrical monitoring system that will shed electrical load in a predetermined order if the chassis voltage begins to drop below a predetermined level.
122
Define Overload
Operation of equipment or a conductor in excess of its rated ampacity; continuous overload may result in overheating that damages the equipment.
123
Define Load Sequencer
Device in a electrical system that turns lights on at specified intervals, so that the start-up load for all of the devices does not occur at the same time.
124
Define Load Monitor
Device that "watches" an electrical system for added loads that may threaten to overload the system.
125
Define Load Shedding
When a overload condition occurs, the load monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment to prevent the overload.
126
At what pressure will the air brake pop out on its own?
20-40 PSI
127
How long should a hot engine idle before shutting down?
3-5 minutes
128
How much further can it take fora vehicle to stop on snow and ice?
3-15 times further
129
At what speed does an emergency vehicle begin to outrun the effective range of its audible warning device?
50 MPH
130
When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, how far behind the first vehicle should the second vehicle travel?
300-500 feet
131
Define braking distance
The distance travelled from the time the brake is applied until the vehicle stops
132
Define total stopping distance
Sum of the driver reaction distance and the braking distance
133
Define reaction distance
Distance a vehicle travels while a driver is transferring a foot from the accelerator to the rake pedal after perceiving the need for stopping.
134
Define Hot Zone
Potentially hazardous area immediately surrounding the incident site; requires appropriate PPE and other safety precautions for entry. Typically limited to technician level personnel.
135
Define Warm Zone
Area between the hot and cold zones that usually contains the decontamination corridor; typically requires a lesser degree of PPE than the hot zone.
136
Define Cold Zone
Safe area outside of the warm zone where equipment and personnel are not expected to become contaminated and special PPE is not required; the command post and other support functions are typically located in this zone.
137
How much does water expand when converted to steam?
1700 times its original volume, depending on temperature
138
How much does one cubic foot of water weigh
62.4 lbs
139
For every one foot of water elevation increased, how much head pressure is gained?
0.434 PSI
140
What type of priming pump is on Boise Fire Department engines?
Positive displacement pump-rotary vane
141
What is an eductor?
Portable proportioning device that injects a liquid such as foam concentrate, into the water flowing through a hose line or pipe.
142
What is the best position for an aerial device?
One in which the extended and rotated aerial device is perpendicular to the object
143
Where should the aerial device tip be placed if designed to be used in the unsupported position?
The tip should be place above the target spot to prevent the ladder from contacting the building as people climb or descend.
144
When removing trapped victims from a roof, where should the aerial ladder tip be placed?
The tip should be placed so that at least 6 feet extends above the edge of the roof.
145
What is the typical span of control in ICS?
3-7, with 5 considered optimum
146
Whose regulations require all personnel at roadway incidents wear high-visibility vests?
US Department of Transportation (DOT)
147
What are the six instances when you may not exceed the posted speed limit?
On the interstate
While opposing
Driving a water tender
Driving a vehicle with a trailer
Driving through a school zone
Driving through a light controlled intersection
148
What steps should you take once you've identified that you're working with an electrical/hybrid vehicle at an accident scene?
1) Announce to everyone at the accident scene that you're working with an electric/hybrid vehicle.
2) Chock the wheels
3) Apply the parking brake
4) Turn the ignition off
5) Control the 12 volt battery (may not be under hood)\
6) Look for leaking battery packs and monitor the high voltage battery packs for heat build-up
149
Rapid mitigation measures for structure protection during a wildland urban interface incident.
1) Remove small combustibles immediately next to the structure
2) Close windows and doors, including garage (leave unlocked).
3) Clean area around fuel tank and shut off tank
4) Charge garden hoses
5) Apply CAF, foam, or get retardant if availalbe
150
Minimum decibel rating for an emergency vehicle's audible signal per Idaho law:
100 decibels at a distance of 10 feet
151
Minimum warning light visibility distance for an emergency vehicle per Idaho law.
1000 feet in a 360 degree arc
152
What is the atmospheric pressure at sea level?
14.7 PSI
153
What is Critical Velocity?
The point at which the entire stream is agitated by resistance, creating turbulence to a degree that pressure is unable to overcome it.
154
At what PSI, lift height, and intake hose length can fire apparatus delivered 100% of their rated capacity?
150 PSI
10' of lift
20' of intake hose
155
Options, in order, to control electrical power at and emergency scene.
Shut down power from outside main breaker panel
Shut down power from interior electrical breaker
Wait for Idaho Power to secure power
Pull the meter only as a last resort and only if firefighter or civilian lives are immediately threatened and all other options are unsuccessful
156
Which channel will EMS calls at the airport and ARFF incidents be assigned?
Channel 16
157
What frequency will be used to communicate with Tower during ARFF incidents?
Ground frequency 121.7
158
What does an alternating red and green light gun signal mean for airport vehicles?
Exercise extreme caution
159
What are the five major common factors of fire behavior on fatal and near-fatal wildland fires?
1) They occur on relatively small fires or deceptively quiet areas of large fires.
2) They occur in relatively light fuels, such as grass, herbaceous fuels, and light brush
3) They occur when there is an unexpected shift in wind direction or in wind speed.
4) They occur when the fire responds to topographic conditions and run uphill
5) They occur during the critical burning period between 1400-1700
160
Separation distance needed for an adequate safety zone for flat terrain and no wind?
Four times the maximum continuous flame height. This distance should be the radius from the center of the safety zone to the nearest fuels.
161
When assigned RIT, companies shall perform continuous size up to include:
1) Determining/verifying building construction and occupancy type
2) Locating and evaluating ingress and egress points
3) Evaluating interior and exterior conditions
4) Interior crew assignments and locations
162
At what temperature will the High Exhaust System Temperature (HEST) light stop flashing and stay solid and indicating that the regeneration process is beginning?
977 degrees Fahrenheit
163
Acronym for firefighter self-rescue
ESCAPE
Emergency Reverse
Secondary Egress
Call Command
Activate Pass Alarm
Poke a hole
Easy Breathing
164
Boise Fire personnel do not conduct ________ operations.
Backfiring
165
________ operations is the intentional burning of fuels inside the control lines to strengthen the line.
Burn out
166
Formula for determine back pressure
BP= (NP + FL + EL)/200
Can't exceed 70%
167
Fireground formula for determining back pressure
FL + EL less than 40
168
Building construction classifications
Type I- FIre resistive
Type II- Non-Combustible
Type III- Ordinary
Type IV- Heavy Timber
Type V- Wood Frame
169
Three types of coordinated ventilation that may be performed on the fireground.
Ventilation for Extinguishment- should be performed when interior crews are in position and ready to make fire attack.
Ventilation for Search- should be performed once area to be searched has been isolated.
Ventilation- should be performed after knockdown with hose lines still in place.
170
What are the 5 principles of ventilation?
1) All ventilation must be coordinated
2) Ventilation supports fire control and primary search
3) Ventilation without suppression will increase fire intensity
4) Opening a door or window must be thought of as ventilation
5) Coordinated ventilation with water application creates survivable space by lifting heat, smoke, and steam.
171
Number one safety concern when reading a pitched roof for roof operations
Bad decking
172
Above what wind speed is it generally no longer recommended to cut on the windward side of any pitched roof?
10 MPH
173
Acronym used to determine the location of a vertical ventilation opening.
SKIRTS
Sounding
Known fire location
Interior Crews
Roof division
Thermal imager
Smoke indicator holes
174
5 indicators of interior conditions that can be observed by reading smoke
Location
Volume
Velocity
Density
Color
