clinical pharmacology and neurosciences Flashcards

1
Q

What is the CATIE study?

A

Study was a nationwide clinical trial that compared the effectiveness of older (first available in the 1950s) and newer (available since the 1990s) antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia.

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2
Q

what happened in phase 1 of CATIE study

A

Phase 1: Phase I compared old and new antipsychotics.
Four of the newer medications to one another, and to an older medication

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3
Q

which four newer and which older antipsychotic were used in which phase of CATIE study

A

Phase 1

olanzapine
quetiapine
risperidone
ziprasidone

or to the older, ‘typical’ medication:

perphenazine

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4
Q

what did the CATIE study phase 1 show?

A

high rates of discontinuation due to intolerable side-effects or failure to adequately control symptoms.

olanzapine, was slightly better than the other drugs but also was associated with significant weight-gain as a side-effect. Patients assigned to olanzapine had the longest successful treatment time, and the fewest hospitalizations as a result of exacerbation of schizophrenia.

Surprisingly, the older, less expensive medication (perphenazine) used in the study generally performed as well as the four newer medications.

Contrary to expectations, movement side effects (rigidity, stiff movements, tremor, and muscle restlessness) primarily associated with the older medications were not seen more frequently with perphenazine than with the newer drugs.

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5
Q

what did PHASE 2 of CATIE trial aim to look at?
what were the study arms?

A

Phase II

To provide guidance on which antipsychotic to try next if the first failed (either due to ineffectiveness or intolerability).

Participants who discontinued their first antipsychotic medication because of :
1. inadequate management of symptoms —> efficacy (clozapine) pathway

  1. intolerable side effects–> tolerability (ziprasidone) pathway.
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6
Q

which medication was found to be effective in phase 2 of catie trial/

A

Clozapine was remarkably effective and was substantially better than all the other atypical medications.

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7
Q

what else did the catie study look at?

A

risk of metabolic syndrome

Central obesity: waist circumference 102 cm or 40 inches (male), 88 cm or 36 inches(female)
Dyslipidaemia: TG 1.7 mmol/L (150 mg/dl)
Dyslipidaemia: HDL-C < 40 mg/dL (male), < 50 mg/dL (female)
Blood pressure 130/85 mmHg
Fasting plasma glucose 6.1 mmol/L (110 mg/dl)

MS at baseline in the CATIE group was 40.9%

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8
Q

How are anti-psychotics categorised

A

typical (first generation)
atypical types (second generation)

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8
Q

which other receptor does atypical work on and which medications

A

5-HT1a agonism (some such as clozapine, quetiapine, ziprasidone)

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9
Q

which are typical and atypical?

A

Typical antipsychotics Atypical antipsychotics
Chlorpromazine Clozapine
Flupenthixol Risperidone
Zuclopenthixol Olanzapine
Perphenazine Quetiapine
Trifluoperazine Ziprasidone
Sulpiride Amisulpride
Haloperidol Aripiprazole

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9
Q

how to antipsyhotic works?

A

reduce dopaminergic neurotransmission.

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9
Q

mechanism of typical anti-psychotics

A

defined by the ability to block dopamine (D2) receptors.

They also have in, varying degrees, M1, Alpha-1 and H1 receptor blockade.

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9
Q

mechanism of atypical antipsychotics

A

D2 and 5-HT2a antagonism
Rapid D2 dissociation

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10
Q

how else can anti-psychotics be classified

A

by structure

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11
Q

which medication is Phenothiazines (Aliphatic side chain) associated with

A

Phenothiazines (Aliphatic side chain) Chlorpromazine

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12
Q

which medication is Phenothiazines (Piperidine side chain) associated with

A

Thioridazine, pipothiazine

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13
Q

which medication is Phenothiazines (Piperizine side chain) associated with

A

Trifluoperazine, fluphenazine

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14
Q

Flupenthixol, zuclupenthixol -which structure is associated with these medications

A

Thioxanthenes

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14
Q

what structure is haloperidol associated with

A

Butyrophenones

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15
Q

Pimozide - which structure is associated with this medication

A

Diphenylbutylpiperidines

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16
Q

which structure is associated with this medication

quietapine
sulpiride/amirsulpride
aripiprazole

A

Dibenzothiazepines Quetiapine
Substituted benzamides Sulpiride, amisulpride
Arylpiperidylindole (quinolone) Aripiprazole

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17
Q

which structure is associated with this medication
Clozapine
Risperidone
olanzapine

A

Dibenzodiazepines Clozapine
Benzoxasoles Risperidone
Thienobenzodiazepines Olanzapine

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18
Q

what classification is cloazapine
what is it a deriative off

A

atypical antipsychotic
used when antipsyhotics trialled and failed
classified as a tricyclic dibenzodiazepine derivative.

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19
Q

where is clozapine more active

A

in limbic system rather than striatal

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20
Q

which receptors does clozapine work on?

A

Clozapine is a D1 (dopamine 1), D2, 5-HT2A, alpha1-adrenoceptor, and muscarinic-receptor antagonist.

It has a particularly high affinity for the D4 receptor and exerts only a weak blockade of D2 receptors.

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21
Q

clozapine impact on prolactin

A

nil to little

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22
Q

Receptors affected by clozapine

A

Receptors affected by clozapine
Dopaminergic
Histaminergic
Serotonergic
Adrenergic
Cholinergic

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23
Q

what metabolises clozapine

A

cYP1A2.

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24
Q

what can impact clozapine levels

A

acco smoke contains polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
induce CYP1A2

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25
Q

what is an inhibitor of this cytochrome
what affect does it have on clozapine level

A

CYP1A2
coffeee
caffeine (as inhibitor) of cyp1a2

this leads to increased cloazpine level

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26
Q

list the inducers and inhibitors of this cytchrome
and the impact it has on clozapine level

A

Drug Effect on plasma clozapine levels
SSRI’s Increased
Erythromycin Increased
Caffeine Increased
Carbamazepine Decreased
Phenytoin Decreased
Tobacco Decreased

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27
Q

another important cytochrome with clozapine

A

CYP2D6.

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28
Q

medical word for hypersalivation

A

(silarrhoea).
1/3 of patients develop this

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29
Q

s/e of clozapine

A

Drowsiness/ sedation
Constipation
Salivation
Weight gain
Dizziness
Insomnia
Nausea
Vomiting
Dyspepsia

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29
Q

active metabolites of clozapine

A

e main ‘active’ metabolites (note: some sources regard the metabolites as inactive) are:

N-desmethylclozapine (norclozapine)
clozapine N-oxide

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30
Q

complications of clozapine

A

Agranulocytosis
Myocarditis, pericarditis / pericardial effusion, cardiomyopathy
Seizures
Severe orthostatic hypotension with or without syncope
Increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia related psychosis
Colitis
Pancreatitis
Thrombocytopenia
Thromboembolism
Insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus (Approx 33 percent developed diabetes mellitus over a ten year period (Henderson, 2005))

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31
Q

what is used to help manage excess salivain clozapine patients

A

Amisulpride (supported by placebo controlled RCT)
Atropine (rarely used)
Hyoscine hydrobromide (widely used but no published data)
Amitriptyline
Propantheline (two Chinese RCTs, one positive)
Benzhexol (small open study suggests useful)

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32
Q

caution with clozapine

A

prostatic hypertrophy
susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma
adult over 60 years

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33
Q

what shoudl be noted in patints with seizures on clozapine

A

Seizures:

When using clozapine, valproate should be considered if

Using high doses
Plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l
Patient experiences seizures

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34
Q

facts about myocarditis with clozapine

A

Myocarditis is rarely seen in clozapine use but carries with it a high mortality.

1 in 500 rate,

early in the course of clozapine treatment. detected within 16 days (median) of initiating clozapine in a study of 116 cases (Hass, 2007).

Approximately 80 percent of cases of clozapine-induced myocarditis occur within four weeks of drug initiation
90 percent occur within eight weeks.

Post-mortem examination - damaged myocytes and eosinophilic infiltration suggesting a type I Ig E-mediated acute hypersensitivity reaction.

Subsequent use of clozapine in cases with clear clozapine-induced myocarditis leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases when the drug is restarted.

Features include:-

Fever
Chest pain
Tachycardia
Dyspnoea
Flu-like symptoms
Elevated eosinophil count
Elevated cardiac enzyme levels

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35
Q

biomarkers for myocarditis

A

Biomarkers, including creatine kinase (CK), lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), myoglobin, and troponin, may all be raised in patients with myocarditis. Troponin T and I are the most specific as they are unique to the myocardium (troponin C is synthesised in skeletal muscle). That said, they are not raised in every case and so often a range of markers are assessed.

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36
Q

monitoring clozapine

A

Clozapine requires differential white blood cell monitoring weekly for 18 weeks, then fortnightly for up to one year, and then monthly as part of the clozapine patient monitoring service.

prolactin at 6 months but unlikely to eb raised - be more vigilants for symptoms

lood lipids and weight should be measured at baseline, at 3 months (weight should be measured at frequent intervals during the first 3 months), and then yearly with antipsychotics. Patients taking clozapine require more frequent monitoring of these parameters: every 3 months for the first year, then yearly.

Fasting blood glucose should be measured at baseline, at 4–6 months, and then yearly. Patients taking clozapine should have fasting blood glucose tested at baseline, after one months’ treatment, then every 4–6 months.

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36
Q

he gold standard for diagnosis of myocarditis is

A

an endomyocardial biopsy,

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37
Q

suggested mechanisms of weight gain with clozapine

A

suggested mechanisms (Dayabandara, 2017) include (presumably mediated through stimulation of appetite):

5HT2a and 5-HT2c antagonism
D2 and D3 antagonism
H1 and M3 antagonism
Hyperprolactinemnia
Increased serum leptin (leading to leptin desensitisation)
Ghrelin

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38
Q

which antipsychotics are at high moderate weight gain risk

A

Clozapine High
Olanzapine High
Chlorpromazine Moderate
Quetiapine Moderate
Risperidone Moderate
Paliperidone Moderate

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39
Q

if no improvement with lifestyle changes, which antipsyhotics have good support with switching

A

aripiprazole
ziprasidone
lurasidone

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40
Q

what is good augmentation for clozapine induced weight

A

Liraglutide

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41
Q

which anti-pschotic is associated with death

A

Thioridazine has pronounced effects on K+ channels and materially prolongs the QTc interval, it is most associated with sudden death.

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42
Q

which antipsychotics have highest risk of diabetes
what should be considered in prediabetics

A

Clozapine and olanzapine are associated with the highest risk.

Amisulpride, aripiprazole, and ziprasidone are recommended by the Maudsley for patients with a history or predisposition for diabetes.

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43
Q

which antipsychotics showed EEG changes

A

Clozapine 47.1%
Olanzapine 38.5%
Risperidone 28.0%
Typical antipsychotics 14.5%
Quetiapine 0.0%

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44
Q

what is the steady state with relation to antipsychotics

A

point at which the amount of drug administered each day is exactly counterbalanced by the amount eliminated.

s. Steady-state is when the administration of a drug and the clearance are balanced, creating a plasma concentration that is unchanged over time

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45
Q

what are the half life of the following antipsychotics

Antipsychotic

Amisulpride
Aripiprazole
Quetiapine
Olanzapine
Clozapine
Risperidone
Ziprasidone

A

Aripiprazole 75 hours
Olanzapine 30 hours
Risperidone 20 hours
Clozapine 12 hours
Amisulpride 12 hours
Ziprasidone 7 hours
Quetiapine 6 hours

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46
Q

what are the times to steady state for the list of anti psychotics

A

aripiprazole 2 weeks
olanzapine 1 week
the rest 2-3 days

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47
Q

which anti psychotics cause postural hypotension

A

Risperidone
Clozapine
Olanzapine
Paliperidone
Quetiapine
Ziprasidone

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48
Q

which anti psychotic should be considered if postural hypotension

A

Amisulpride
Aripiprazole
Haloperidol
Sulpiride
Trifluoperazine

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49
Q

which psychiatric drugs interact with contraceptives

A

St John’s Wort
Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Topiramate
Barbiturates

reduced contraceptive effect

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50
Q

porphyria symptoms

A

Abdominal pain
Mental state changes
Constipation
Vomiting
Muscle weakness
red brown urine
seizure
anxiety
hypertension
palpitations

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51
Q

what are porphyrias

A

orphyrias are a group of uncommon disorders that are caused when there are problems with the production of chemicals called porphyrins in the body. Porphyrins are the chemical building blocks of haem, which form haemoglobin, the component of red blood cells that allows oxygen to be carried around the body. An increase in the amount of a specific porphyrin or a porphyrin precursor results in symptoms of porphyria

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52
Q

which medications can precipitate prophyria

A

Barbiturates
Benzodiazepines
Sulpiride
Certain mood stabilizers

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53
Q

what are the three phases of steroid use

A

cycling 4-12 week usage and stopping to minimise side effects
stacking more than one at a time, for muscle growth and strength
pyramiding increase dose to peak then wean

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54
Q

what class of drugs are steriods

A

class C

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55
Q

what psychiatry conditions are associated with steroid use

A

mania
anxiety
depression
pscyhosis
mood instability

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56
Q

s/e of steroids

A

skin -oil skin, acne, male pattern baldness, jaundice
muscle hypertrophy
cardio -raised bp, hr, LDL, MI
Hepatic - cholesterol, malignant liver,
sleep apnoea

abnormal sperm count, menstruation changes, shrink breast tissue, hypogonadism, deep voice, BPH, Testicular atrophy

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57
Q

what is the active metabolite impramine for which antidepressants

A

lofamriane
impramine

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58
Q

trazado has an active metabolite named as

A

MEPP

59
Q
A
60
Q

who termed antidepressant

A

Lune

61
Q

which antidepressant most effective by buccal route

A

fluoxetine

62
Q

which medication give IM has mood evkvating effects

A

flupentixol

63
Q

what is the concern with citalopram in overdose

A

torasades de pointes

64
Q

which anti depressant is best for diabetes

A

SSRI

64
Q

worst antidepressant for discontinuation symptoms

A

paraxotine
venlafaxine

65
Q

best antidepressant for narcolepsy

A

clopramine

66
Q

best for bulimia

A

fluoxotine

67
Q

best antidepressant for phobias

A

clopramine

68
Q

best antidepressant also used for nocturnal enuresis

A

amitruplline
impramine

69
Q

which depo is good for preventing relapse

A

zuclopenthixol
but high risk of s/e

70
Q
A
71
Q

which are the three atypical antipsychotics

A

OLANZAPINE
ARIPIPRAZOLE
RISPERDONE

72
Q

lowest dose for haloperidol

A

25mg

73
Q

lowest dose for zuclopenthixol

A

100mg

74
Q

what is post injection syndrome

A

when antipsychotic is injected into the BV directly
person will feel sleepy, confused, anxiety, dizziness

75
Q

lowest dose for flupentixcol

A

20mg

76
Q

what are the main EPSE

A

dystonia
tardive dyskenesia
akathasia
pseudoparkinsonism

77
Q

facts about dystonia

A

multiple types
rf: male, neuroleptic naive
10% of patients
usually within mins or hours

78
Q

what can be given to counteract dystonia

A

botox
anticholingerics

79
Q

which EPSE is most resistant to treat
what is it

A

akathisia

intense sensation of unease or an inner restlessness that usually involves the lower extremities.

80
Q

where do EPSE act on

A

D2 receptors in basal ganglia

81
Q

triad for Parkinsonism

A

rigidity -cogwheel
bradykinesia
fine tremor -pin rolling

82
Q

how common is akathisia

A

25%

83
Q

what can be used to counteract akathisia

A

cyprohepadine
benzo
clomidne
propanolol
mirtazpine

84
Q

whats risk factor for tardive dyskinesia

A

elderly
female
Early EPSE

85
Q

what can be used to manage tardive dyskinesia

A

stop any anticholingeric
gingko. biloba
Tetrabenazine

86
Q

name some anticholingerics

A

procyclidine
benztropine
orephradine

87
Q

which antipsychotic has the longest half life

A

aripiprazol 75 hours

2 weeks

88
Q

which depo is good at prevent relapses

A

zuclopehtnixol
but has s/e lots

89
Q

what is used to monitor sexual dysfunction?

A

arizona sexual experience scale

90
Q

what is pharmacodyanmics

A

impact of drug on the body

biological
MoA
interactions
receptor binding

91
Q

what is pharmokinetics

A

body on drug
Absorption
distribution
Metabolism
elimination

92
Q

highest rate of priapism

A

trazaone
chlorapromazine

93
Q

**

what are anabolic steriods

A

synethic derivatives of testosterone
they have androgenic properties -masculising
anabolic -tissue building

94
Q

which type of steriods are anabolic mostly and what is the reason for this

A

to reduce adrengic impact
such as nandrolone
oxandrolone

aim is for tissue building

95
Q

wwhat are the functions seen with testosterone

A

muscle repair amd metabolism
sexual cognition function
bone/lipid metabolism
erythropeosis

96
Q

who discovered forced swim test snd why

A

porsolt
preclinical research looking at depression in rats
found those who had antidepressants had more motivation when placed in water

97
Q

Which antidepressants can be given IV

A

citalopram
mirtazpine
amitripylline
clomipramine

98
Q

what can be given IM with a mood elevating affect

A

flupenthixol

99
Q

active metabolite of trazdone

A

MCPP

100
Q

active metabolite for venlafaxine

A

o-desmethyl-venlafaxine

101
Q

which antidepressant can cause cardiac issue in overdose
what is the consequence of thisn

A

citalopram
torsades des pointes

102
Q

which two antidepressants have the worst s/e with stopping

A

paroxtine
venlafaxine

103
Q

which depo is good at preventing relapses but whats the issue with it

A

zuclothopenthixol
increased side effects

104
Q

what is the good thing about fluthixpentol,

A

can be used in higher doses

105
Q

minimium effective doses for antipsychotics

halopderiol
zculopehthixol
flupenthixol
pipothazine
fluphenzine

A

halopderiol - 25mg
zculopehthixol 100mg
flupenthixol 20mg
pipothazine 25mg
fluphenzine 12.5mg

106
Q

whare are the antidopaminergic s/e

A

gyanecomastica
galactthorea
reduced sperm count
reduced libidio
ataxia
dizziness , TD, akathasia

107
Q

what are the anti histamien s/e

A

sedation drwosy
weight gain

108
Q

what are anti adregenic s/e

A

postural hypotension
ejaculation failure

109
Q

anti cholingeric s/e include

A

dry mouth
blurred vision
constipation
urinayr retention
etc

110
Q

worst antipsychotic for weight gain
worst for EPSE

A

EPSE - haloperidol
weight gain - olazapine, sedation and diabetes

clozapine also weight gain, sedation wg, diabetes

111
Q

which three antipsychotics dont affect sexual dysufctnion

A

aripiprazole
lurasidone
aseniapine

112
Q

what are barbituates

A

faciitates GABA-A
and prolonngs opening of chloride chanells

113
Q

how does baritbuates differ from benzo

A

benzo increases frequency of chanells

114
Q

how do u remember the difference between barbituates and benzo

A

BARBIDURATION
FRENZODIAZPINE

115
Q

WHAT ARe the two phases of obtaining a biogenic amine from an AA

A

phase 1: oxidation p450 reduction, hydrlosis

phase 2: hydrophilic group added and toxic intermidate is formed then needs to be transferred

116
Q

name some things in phase II

A

glucuronidation (most common)
methylation
acetylation
sulfation
conguation with gluthathione
conjucton with amino acids

117
Q

what occurs in phase III

A

ATP binding caseette

activation transport for elimination

118
Q

which is the most common method for phase ii

A

glucourindation

119
Q

what is carbamazepine used for

A

1st line for parital seixures
bipolar and neuropathic pain

120
Q

who should carbamazepine be ci IN

A

previous bone marrow suppression
MAOI usage combination

121
Q

what is charles bonnet syndrome

A

they have visual hallycinations and auditory

rf : AGE, female, isolated, visual impaiared

associated with mascular degeneration

122
Q

what are the new IV anti demenetia medications mechanism

A

IV adicanumab
DISEASE MODIFYING MEDICATIOn in traits
with by degrate the plques by using losomones and phagycotysosis

also lecaneumab

123
Q

how does ristavigamine and galanatamine differ from donzpezil

A

galantamine has nictone receptor activity
rivastigmine -also has butylcholsterine

can be patches

124
Q

half life of donepzil.

A

70 hours

125
Q

what can affect a medications ability to function

A

if it is impaired by air or moisture or klight
for example zopiclone should not be playced in moisture or light

126
Q

what is used for absent seizure

A

ethosuximide
blockss t type calcium channels

127
Q

what is the half life of lithium

A

4-6 days

128
Q

half life of rispoderone depo

A

6-8 weeks

129
Q

what is the half life of olanazapine

A

7 days

130
Q

what is the half life of TCA

A

2-3 days

131
Q

what are risk factors for cluster headaches

symptoms

A

male:female 5:1 , smokers
pain 1/2 times a day lasting 15 mins to 2 hours
intense pain
one side around eye
eye symptoms sometimes such as swelling, redness, ptosis

132
Q

how do u manage cluster headaches acutely

A

o2 , nasal subcut triptan

133
Q

prevention of cluster headaches

A

prednisolone
verpamil

134
Q

mx of parxoymal hemioma

A

indomethacin

135
Q

which nerve ellicts the papillary light reflex

A

optic
oculomotor

136
Q

which nerve ellicit accomodation

A

optic and oculomotor

137
Q

jaw jerk which nerve ellicit

A

trigeminal

138
Q

which nerve ellicit corneal reflex

A

trigmeinal and facial

139
Q

which nerve ellicit gag reflex

A

glossopharyngeal and vagus

140
Q

what is PrPc and PrPsc

A

Prion diseases are associated with the conversion of the α-helix rich prion protein (PrPC) into a β-structure-rich insoluble conformer (PrPSc) t

141
Q

kuru dx

A

associated with cannibalism
papa new guniea ate dead ancestors
leads to tremors and loss of coordination from neurodegeneration.

142
Q
A
142
Q

CJD

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
prior disease
two types - sporadic and variant

143
Q

what are the differences in the two types of CJD

A

variant
younge age 20-30s
longer duration
pulvinar sign in 75%
behavioural/MH changes
EEG waves not usually present

spordiac
older
60s
shorter duration
no pulvinar sign but EEG signs

144
Q

which of the CJD are more common

A

sporadic
85%
older adults

145
Q

which chromosone is associated with prion protein

A

chromosone 209
methionine homogeneity
coldon 129

146
Q

what is Gerstmann–Sträussler–Scheinker syndrome

A

extremely rare
inherited
within families few in world
autosomal dominant
prion disease
with slurred speech, nystagmus and rigitity/spacity/blindness

147
Q

what are macroscopic changes seen with LBD

A

cerebral atrophy
Brain weight in normal range though
pallor in substanstia nigra - midbrain and The locus coeruleus

148
Q

where are the substanstia nigra and The locus coeruleus
what do they produce

A

substanstia nigra - mid brain and doapmine
midbrain and The locus coeruleus - pons and norephedrine

149
Q

what are Lewy bodies made of

A

alpha synuclein

150
Q

how dO LB differ from pick body

A

LB have central core and halo
Picks don’t
Pick made of Tau

151
Q

another name for punch drunk syndrome

A

dementia pugilistica
coined by Millspaugh

152
Q

who was punch drunk syndome seen in

and symptoms

A

NFL players
boxers
neuro trauma

slurred speech, impaired hearing, gait ataxis, cognitive dcline, behaviour change, impulse control , irritable

153
Q

what type of condition is punch drunk syndrome

A

tauopathy
affect cortical slucus
perivascualr distrubition