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Clinical (15-19%) Flashcards

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1
Q

Define personality

A

the study of why people act the way they do and why different people act differently

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2
Q

The “old school” personality theories were generally of what sort?

A

Type theory

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3
Q

What is a type theory

A

the idea that people could be placed into personality categories based on physical appearance

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4
Q

What type of personality theory dominated the western world during the 1800s?

A

Phrenology

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5
Q

Examining head and skull shape to determine personality is called…

A

phrenology

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6
Q

Who devised a type theory based on body type?

A

William Sheldon

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7
Q

Define somatotypes

A

body types that were used to guess at individuals personalities

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8
Q

What were the three somatotypes proposed by Sheldon?

A

Endomorph - short, plump body
Metomorph - muscular, athletic
Ectomorph - skinny, fragile body

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9
Q

According to Sheldon, what was a short, plump body supposed to say about your personality?

A

That you were sociable with pleasure-seeking behavior

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10
Q

According to Sheldon, what was a muscular, athletic body supposed to say about your personality?

A

That you are energetic and aggressive

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11
Q

According to Sheldon, what was a skinny, fragile body supposed to say about your personality?

A

That you are inhibited and intellectual.

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12
Q

Psychoanalytic theory was founded by who?

A

Sigmund Freud

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13
Q

Psychoanalytic theory proposes that what is central to human nature?

A

Conflict

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14
Q

Freud originally though the central conflict of human nature was between these two things, and later changed his mind to seeing it as between these two things.

A

Libido vs. ego

Eros vs. Thanatos

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15
Q

What is Eros in terms of psychoanalytic theory?

A

The life force which includes love and sex

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16
Q

What is Thanatos in terms of psychoanalytic theory?

A

The death force which includes self-destructive behavior

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17
Q

What motivates individuals according to psychoanalytic theory?

A

the need to seek pleasure and avoid pain

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18
Q

What were the elements of Freud’s topographic model of the mind?

A 
Conscious elements (openly acknowledged)
Preconscious forces (below the sources but accessible)
Unconscious elements (drives and wishes)
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19
Q

What were the elements of Freud’s structural model of the mind?

A

1) Id
2) Ego
3) Superego

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20
Q

What is the function of the Id?

A

Unconscious biological drives and wishes - it operates on the pleasure principle and is especially prevalent early on in life.

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21
Q

What is the function of the superego?

A

The part of the mind that imposes learned or socialized drives. It is not something we are born with but develops over time and is influenced by moral and parental training.

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22
Q

What is the ego?

A

The part of the mind that mediates between the environment and the pressures of the id and superego.

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23
Q

What is the “reality principle” as it applies to psychoanalytic theory?

A

How the ego has to respond to the demands of the environment by delaying gratification.

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24
Q

In psychoanalytic theory what determines a positive state of mental health?

A

How well the ego handles the competing push and pull between the competing forces of the id, superego, and ego (environment).

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25
Q

Define psychic determinism

A

The idea that mental events do not happen by chance but always have an underlying cause that can be determined by analysis.

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26
Q

In psychoanalytic theory, what determines a negative state of mental health?

A

Repressed drives and conflicts

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27
Q

According to psychoanalytic theory how might neurosis manifest itself?

A

1) Pathological behavior
2) Dreams
3) unsconscious behaviors

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28
Q

How often are patients in psychoanalysis seen by their therapist?

A

4-5 times per week for many years

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29
Q

In psychoanalysis the terms used for the discharge of repressed emotion is known as

A

catharsis OR abreaction

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30
Q

What two elements of dreams did Freud evaluate?

A

1) manifest content (the actual content of the dream)

2) latent content (the unconscious forces the dreams are trying to express)

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31
Q

What methods play a role in psychoanalysis

A

1) (initially) hypnosis
2) (later) free association
3) dream analysis

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32
Q

Who developed the types of hypnosis used by Freud?

A

Jean Charcot and Pierre Janet

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33
Q

Who developed the free association techniques used by Feud?

A

Joseph Breuer

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34
Q

What is the meaning of transference as it applies to psychoanalysis

A

a patient’s displacement or projection onto the analyst of those unconscious feelings and wishes originally directed toward important individuals, such as parents, in the patient’s childhood.

It is posited that this process brings repressed material to the surface where it can be reexperienced, studied, and worked through to discover the sources of a patient’s current neurotic difficulties and to alleviate their harmful effects.

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35
Q

What is the meaning of transference as it applies more broadly to psychology?

A

an unconscious repetition of earlier behaviors and their projection onto new subjects as it applies to all human interactions

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36
Q

What is countertransference?

A

The therapist’s unconscious (and often conscious) reactions to the patient.

These thoughts and feelings are based on the therapist’s own psychological needs and conflicts and may be unexpressed or revealed through conscious responses to patient behavior.

It may either be a hindrance to therapy OR it may serve as a source of insight into the patient’s effect on other people. In either case, the analyst or therapist must be aware of, and analyze, countertransference so that it can be used productively within the therapeutic process.

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37
Q

What is it called when a therapist uses the problems that are emerging from transference to resolve problems that are a result of previous relationships?

A

Object relations therapy

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38
Q

What is the goal of psychoanalysis?

A

To make more unconscious forces conscious which makes the ego better able to mediate them.

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39
Q

Why is Freud’s methodology widely criticized?

A

Because it was not created using the scientific method but rather based on single case studies of women.

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40
Q

Define “defense mechanism” in terms of psychoanalysis

A

One of the ways the ego protects itself from threatening unconscious forces.

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41
Q

What are some defense mechanisms?

A 
Denial
Displacement
Intellectualization
Projection
Regression
Repression
Rationalization
Reaction Formation
Sublimation
Undoing
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42
Q

Define sublimation

A

Substitute a unacceptable behavior with a more acceptable (often highly creative or productive behavior) to satisfy the impulse

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43
Q

Define regression

A

reverting back to an earlier psychosexual stage of development, often in response to external problems or internal conflicts.

More generally - a return to a prior, lower state of cognitive, emotional, or behavioral functioning

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44
Q

Define rationalization

A

denying the true motivations for one’s behavior in favor of false but more acceptable or self-serving explanations. (ie. sour grapes)

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45
Q

Define projection

A

attempting to disown ones unacceptable feelings or characteristics by falsely attributing them to others

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46
Q

Define undoing

A

trying to negate or reverse an unacceptable act by then doing its opposite (ie trying to right wrongs)

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47
Q

Define reaction formation

A

behaving in a manner that is directly opposed to an underlying impulse that the individual considers unacceptable

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48
Q

Define displacement

A

transferring impulses or feelings from their original object to a less threatening object (usually aggression).

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49
Q

Define denial

A

preventing painful or anxiety producing truths from even entering into one’s consciousness

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50
Q

Define repression

A

denying painful or anxiety-producing memories, feelings, or thoughts from becoming conscious

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51
Q

Define intellectualization

A

which conflicts or emotional problems are dealt with abstractly or concealed by excessive intellectual activity

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52
Q

Define “screen memory”

A

a memory that serves as representations of important childhood experiences (in psychoanalysis)

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53
Q

What is psychoanalysis’ perspective on aggression?

A

That it is a central force in humans that must find a socially acceptable outlet

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54
Q

Who applied Fruedian ideas to child psychology and development?

A

Anna Freud

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55
Q

Who applied object-relations theory and psychoanalysis to children?

A

Melanie Klein

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56
Q

Who are some Neo-Freudian thinkers?

A

Karen Horney and Harry Stack Sullivan

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57
Q

Harry Stack Sullivan’s work focused on

A

Social and interpersonal relationships (in the context of Freud)

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58
Q

What did Karen Horney believe about neuroticism?

A

That it is expressed as movement toward, against, and away from people.

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59
Q

Karen Horney (a Neo-Freudian) focused more on what over instinct?

A

culture and society

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60
Q

What is the name of theories that focus on the role of the unconscious?

A

psychodynamic theory

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61
Q

The school of psychology that Alfred Adler founded is called…

A

Individual Theory

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62
Q

What motivates individuals in Individual or Alderian Theory?

A

Social Needs & Feelings of Inferiority

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63
Q

How does individual theory view people?

A

as creative, social, and whole

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64
Q

In individual theory why do mental health issues occur?

A

Individuals are too affected by inferior feelings to pursue the will to power. Goals that are pursued are self-serving or egotistical

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65
Q

Define “will to power”

A

An idea from Alderian (or individual) theory where individuals quest for feelngs of superiority

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66
Q

What early psychologist was known for his role in family therapy?

A

Alfred Adler

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67
Q

How does therapy look in individual theory?

A

Patients examine their motivations, perceptions, goals, and resources through their lifestyle and choices. Unconscious choices do play a role.

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68
Q

What is seen as the goal of the mind in individual theory?

A

becoming or realizing ones self.

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69
Q

What is the goal of individual theory?

A

1) reduce feelings of inferiority

2) foster social interest and contribution

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70
Q

What is the weakness of individual theory?

A

Best used for individuals who are relatively normal and looking to grow rather than those with significant clinical concerns.

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71
Q

What personality types did Adler outline

A

1) Choleric (ruling-dominant)
2) Phelgmatic (getting-leaning)
3) Melancholic (avoiding)
4) Sanguine (socially useful)

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72
Q

What is the choleric personality type like?

A

High in activity but low in social contribution (dominant)

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73
Q

What is the phlegmatic personality type like?

A

Low in activity and high in social contribution (dependent)

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74
Q

What is the melancholic personality type like?

A

Low in activity and low in social contribution (withdrawn)

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75
Q

What is the sanguine personality type like?

A

High in activity and high in social contribution (healthy)

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76
Q

The school of psychology that Carl Jung came up with is called…

A

Analytical Theory

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77
Q

Jung noted that the unconscious is divided into…

A

1) The personal unconscious

2) the collective unconscious

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78
Q

What are features of the personal unconscious

A

from ones own experiences and these can become conscious

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79
Q

Define collective unconscious

A

Inherited dynamics most commonly archetypes

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80
Q

What are 5 most commonly cited archetypes from Jung

A

1) Persona
2) Shadow
3) Anima
4) Animus
5) Self

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81
Q

Define “persona” in relation to archetypes

A

a person’s outer mask and mediator to the external world

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82
Q

Define “shadow” in relation to archetypes

A

a person’s dark side often projected onto others

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83
Q

Define “anima” in relation to archetypes

A

the female elements than a man posesses

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84
Q

Define “animus” in relation to archetypes

A

the male elements that a female posesses

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85
Q

Define “self” in relation to archetypes

A

the full individual’s potential

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86
Q

According to Analytic Theory what results in mental health issues?

A

Signal that something is wrong in the makeup of the psyche, it provides clues as to how one could become more aware.

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87
Q

How does therapy work in Analytic Theory

A

unconscious material is explored through the analysis of an individual’s dreams, artwork, and personal symbols.

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88
Q

What is the goal of analytic theory?

A

Use unconscious messages in order to become more aware and closer to full potential

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89
Q

What is the downside/criticism of analytical theory?

A

It is seen as too mystical or spiritual

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90
Q

Analytical theory posits that the primary motivation of individuals is what?

A

moving the psyche toward life and awareness

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91
Q

Define psyche

A

the mind in its totality, as distinguished from the physical organism, the soul or the very essence of life

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92
Q

The school of psychology founded by Carl Rodgers is…

A

Humanistic theory

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93
Q

Maslow is considered part of what school of psychology?

A

Humanistic theory

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94
Q

What are other names for humanistic theory?

A

person-centered theory

Rogerian theory

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95
Q

According to humanistic theory what results in mental health issues?

A

a lack of congruence between their real selves and their self concept.

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96
Q

What are the 3 forces in psychotherapy?

A

1) Psychoanalysis
2) Behaviorism
3) Humanism

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97
Q

What are the characteristics of therapy in a humanistic theory?

A

Therapist is:

1) Non directive
2) Provides empathy
3) Provides unconditional positive regard
4) Act genuinely, in congruence with their feelings

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98
Q

What is the goal of humanistic therapy

A

provide a trusting atmosphere where a client can engage in self-directed growth including:

1) congruent self concept
2) positive self-regard
3) internal locus of evaluation
4) willingness to experience

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99
Q

What is the criticism of humanistic theory?

A

The belief that it can help with any psychological problem and thus lacked any use of diagnostic tools.

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100
Q

What does humanistic theory believe about people’s motivation?

A

Actualizing tendency where people want to move out of conflict to fill their full potential.

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101
Q

What did George Kelly suggest about personality?

A

That personal constructs determine personality and behavior

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102
Q

Define personal construct

A

conscious ideas about the self, others, and situations

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103
Q

What is the order of needs in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A 
Physiological needs
Safety Needs
Social Belonging
Esteem
Self-Actualization
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104
Q

Who were the originators of behavioral theory?

A

BF Skinner, Ivan Pavlov and Joseph Wolpe

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105
Q

How do behaviorists change maladaptive behavior?

A

Through new learning

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106
Q

Behavior theory is based on…

A

learning

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107
Q

What is radical behaviorism?

A

Radical behaviorism focuses on conditioning and the idea that behavior is only based on consequences.

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108
Q

What is neobehaviorism?

A

The idea that internal events such as cognition and emotion also impact behavior

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109
Q

Behaviorism feels that mental health issues are a result of…

A

learning maladaptive responses

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110
Q

Therapy using behavior therapy involves

A

short term, directed counter-conditioning techniques to foster the learning of new responses.

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111
Q

What are some behavioral therapy techniques?

A 
1 - systematic desensitization
2 - flooding
3 - aversion therapy
4 - shaping
5 - modeling
6 - assertiveness training
7 - role playing
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112
Q

What is the purpose of systemic desensitization in human therapy with behavioral therapy?

A

To use classical conditioning to relieve anxiety.

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113
Q

What is another name for flooding?

A

implosive therapy

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114
Q

What is another name for implosive therapy?

A

flooding

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115
Q

Why might aversion therapy be used?

A

To treat addiction

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116
Q

What type of learning does modeling use?

A

Social learning

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117
Q

What conditions has behavior therapy been helpful in treating?

A

1) phobias
2) obsessive compulsive disorders
3) childhood disorders, especially bedwetting

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118
Q

What is the technical term for bed wetting?

A

enuresis

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119
Q

What is the major criticism of behavioral therapy?

A

That it treats the symptoms not the primary cause of the problem.

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120
Q

What was Neal Miller’s contribution to psychology?

A

Proposed the 1) Drive, 2) Cue, 3) Response, 4) Reward cycle.

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121
Q

Who showed the behavioral explanation for displaced aggression?

A

Neal Miller and John Dollard

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122
Q

Who originated the social cognitive perspective?

A

Alburt Bandura and Walter Mischel

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123
Q

According to the social cognitive perspective what results in mental health issues?

A

Dysfunctional expectancies (expectations that either cannot or will not be fulfilled int he way desired)

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124
Q

How does therapy work from a social cognitive perspective?

A

Addresses faulty expectations but usually involves cognitive-behavioral therapy where maladaptive thoughts and behaviors are addressed.

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125
Q

What is the goal of therapy from a social cognitive framework?

A

To improve a person’s perceived self-efficacy beliefs

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126
Q

What is a criticism of social-cognitive theory?

A

It is not a unified, systematic approach to studying personality.

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127
Q

What does the social cognitive perspective have to say about personality?

A

That it results from interactions between behaviors, conditions, and the environment.

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128
Q

Explain reciprocal determinism

A

instead of conceptualizing the environment as a one-way determinant of behavior, reciprocal determinism maintains that the environment influences behavior, behavior influences the environment, and both influence the individual, who also influences them.

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129
Q

Walter Mischel is best known for what experiment?

A

The mashmallow test

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130
Q

What did the marshmallow test study?

A

delay of gratification

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131
Q

What are recent criticisms of the marshmallow test?

A

That it may have to do more with socioeconomic status and food insecurity than attention and goal setting.

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132
Q

Who developed the terms internal and external locus of control?

A

Julian Rotter

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133
Q

Who coined the term learned helplessness?

A

Martin Seligman

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134
Q

Martin Seligman is considered part of what school of psychology?

A

Social cognitive perspective

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135
Q

The idea of locus of control is associated with what school of psychology?

A

Social cognitive perspective

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136
Q

Who is the originator of cognitive theory?

A

Aaron Beck

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137
Q

What is considered to cause mental health issues in Cognitive theory?

A

maladaptive cognitions

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138
Q

What are some maladaptive cognitions in cognitive theory?

A

1) arbitrary inference
2) overgeneralization
3) magnifying/minimizing
4) personalizing
5) dichotomous thinking (black/white thinking)

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139
Q

Define arbitrary inference

A

Drawing a conclusion without solid evidence

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140
Q

Define dichotomous thinking

A

black and white thinking, all-or-nothing thinking

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141
Q

Define personalizing (As it relates to cognitive theory)

A

inappropriately taking responsibility

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142
Q

what is the cognitive triad?

A

negative views about the self, the world, and the future

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143
Q

What does the Beck Depression Inventory measure?

A

the cognitive triad

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144
Q

What is the purpose of the Beck Depression Inventory?

A

It is used to gauge the severity of diagnosed depression

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145
Q

What is central to the idea of cognitive theory?

A

It is the way a person interprets experience (conscious thought patterns) rather than the experience itself (or ones emotions or behaviors) that are important.

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146
Q

How does therapy work in cognitive theory

A

1) Therapy is usually directed to help exposure and restructure maladaptive thoughts and reasoning.
2) It is usually short-term
3) It is focused on tangible evidence of the clients logic

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147
Q

What is the goal of cognitive theory therapy?

A

To correct maladative cognitions

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148
Q

What is the criticism of cognitive theory

A

Is thought to address the symptoms rather than the underlying cause (and thus is thought that it might not cure the problem.)

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149
Q

Who is the founder or rational-emotive behavioral therapy?

A

Albert Ellis

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150
Q

what does REBT stand for?

A

Rational-emotive behavioral therapy

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151
Q

What is the central idea of rational-emotive behavioral therapy?

A

That intertwined thoughts and feelings produce behavior

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152
Q

Rational-emotive behavior therapy combines elements of what other theories?

A

cognitive, behaviors, and emotion theory

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153
Q

According to Rational-emotive behavioral therapy, why does mental illness occur?

A

1) An activating event occurs
2) a client applies beliefs about the events
3) this leads to consequences of emotional disruptive

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154
Q

How does rational-emotive behavioral therapy work?

A

1) therapy is directive

2) the therapist helps the client to dispute the previously applied incorrect beliefs.

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155
Q

What is the ABCDE of rational-emotive behavior therapy

A

1) activating event,
2) beliefs
3) consequence (emotional disruption)
4) dispute (the beliefs to replace with)
5) effective (beliefs)

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156
Q

What is the goal of rational-emotive behavior therapy?

A

to replace self-defeating beliefs with effective rational beliefs, allowing thoughts, feelings, and behaviors to co-exist.

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157
Q

What are criticisms of rational-emotive behavioral therapy

A

It is been called too sterile and mechanistic

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158
Q

Who are the originators of Gestalt Theory?

A

Fritz Perals, Max Wertheimer, and Kurt Koffka

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159
Q

What is the goal of Gestalt Theory?

A

Fully experience and perceive the present (separate from ones beliefs, biases, and attitudes which are based in the past) in order to become a whole and integrated person.

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160
Q

What causes mental illness according to Gestalt Theory?

A

disturbances of awareness that include 1) a lack of full experience (unacknowledgement) or a lack of insight (putting pieces together)

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161
Q

What does Gestalt therapy look like?

A

Engage in a dialogue about here and now experiences rather than talking about the past.

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162
Q

The goal of Gestalt therapy is?

A

exploration fo awareness and a full experiencing of the present.

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163
Q

What is criticism of Gestalt therapy?

A

Not suited for low-functioning or disturbed clients

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164
Q

What school of psychology did Victor Frankl start?

A

Existential theory

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165
Q

Who founded Existential theory?

A

Victor Frankl

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166
Q

The main two drives in existential theory are…

A

Being vs. nonbeing, meaningfulness vs. meaninglessness

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167
Q

What is considered the main cause of mental illness according to existential theory?

A

Meaninglessness leading to neurotic anxiety

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168
Q

What does existential therapy look like?

A

Deep questions related to the client’s perception and meaning of existence are discussed

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169
Q

What is the goal of existential therapy?

A

To help clients understand how they are creating meaning in the world and to help them make different choices based on what gives life meaning.

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170
Q

What is the criticism of existential therapy?

A

It has been called too abstract for severely disturbed individudals

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171
Q

What are some types of phenomenological theories?

A

Existential theory

Client-centered therapy

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172
Q

What is an phenomenological theory?

A

a type of personality theory or psychotherapy that places on the individuals self or experience at the center of analysis for how well their personality is functioning and/or what changes they should make.

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173
Q

Who is associated with the new school of trait theory?

A

Gordon Allport

174
Q

what is the difference between ideographic and nomothetic approaches?

A

ideographic approaches focus first on a detailed characterization of an individual case and emphasize an individuals unique traits and responses.

nomothetic approaches aim to study large groups of people to uncover general and universally applicable laws which allow the rules that apply to “average cases” to then be applied back to individual cases.

175
Q

approaches that focus on applying universal principles to individual cases are referred to as ___ approaches

A

nomothetic approaches

176
Q

approaches that focus primarily on detailed characterization of individual cases and their uniqueness are referred to as ___ approaches

A

ideographic approaches

177
Q

Define proprium

A

the sense of the self (that which is consistent, unique, and central to an individual) which includes

1) body sense,
2) self identity
3) self esteem
4) self-extension
5) rational thinking
6) self-image
7) propriate striving
8) knowing

178
Q

What did Gordon Allport believe about the self (or proprium?)

A

It acted somewhat consistently based on traits it had developed through experience.

179
Q

Define traits

A

relatively stable characeristics of behavior that a person exhibits.

180
Q

How did Gordon Allport determine traits to assess when it came to individuals personalities?

A

using a lexical approach (picking words whose definitions fit a set of criteria out of the dictionary).

181
Q

What was Allport’s trait hierarchy?

A

1) Cardinal traits (rare and occur later in life, are known for this trait)
2) Central traits (qualities one possesses across situations)
3) Secondary traits (traits that appear only in particular situations)

182
Q

Define states

A

states are temporary feelings or characteristics.

183
Q

What is the difference between traits and states?

A

Traits are relatively enduring while states are generally temporary

184
Q

Who turned the 5000 traits that Allport identified into a more limited set of bipolar traits?

A

Raymond Carttell

185
Q

How many bipolar traits did Raymond Cattell identify?

A

16

186
Q

What was Raymond Cattell’s trait questionnarie called?

A

The 16PF questionnarie

187
Q

The “Big 5” are descendants of what work?

A

The new school trait theory

188
Q

The “Big 5” are known as what?

A

superfactors

189
Q

Define superfactor

A

Major dimensions that seem to encompass all of personality.

190
Q

What are the Big 5 personality traits?

A 
O - openness to experiences
C - Conscientiousness
E - Extroversion/Introversion
A - Agreeableness
N - Neuroticism
191
Q

Who did factor analysis to identify the underlying extraversion/introversion and stable-unstable traits?

A

Hans Eysenck

192
Q

What are the quadrants across the E and N dimensions of the Big 5?

A

Sanguine (extroverted/stable)
Choleric (extroverted/neurotic)
Phelgmatic (Introverted/tstable)
Melancholic (introverted/unstable)

193
Q

Who linked type A personality to heart disease?

A

Grant Dahlstrom

194
Q

Who studied Type A personality?

A

Meyer Friedman and Ray Rosenman

195
Q

What characterizes a Type A personality?

A

drive, competitiveness, aggressiveness, tensions and hostility. Most commonly found in middle to upper-class men.

196
Q

What does the F-Scale measure?

A

Someone’s disposition to authoritarianism

197
Q

How does someone with an authoritarian disposition act?

A

Domineering when they are in charge, submissive if they are not. Conventional, aggressive, stereotyping, and anti-introspective.

198
Q

What does “F-scale” an abbreviation for?

A

Fascism scale

199
Q

What is the view of people with an authoritarian disposition?

A

That the world is full of power relationships.

200
Q

The founder of ___ this school of psychological thinking is named ____ and was particularly critical of personality trait theory.

A

cognitive-experiential theory, Seymour Epstein

201
Q

What is the term for our tendency to accept and agree with the personality interpretation that is provided.

A

The Barnum effect

202
Q

After what age does personality seems to change very little

A

30

203
Q

Who are the researchers that found that personality changes very little after a specific age?

A

Costa and McCrae

204
Q

What are the different schools of thought about what determines ones personality?

A

Dispositionists (internal)
Situationists (external)
Interactionists (blend of both)

205
Q

The behavioral school of psychology would fit into what classification when it comes to what determines ones personality?

A

Situationists

206
Q

What is the consistency paradox?

A

The idea that people often act inconsistently, making it hard to claim that internal determination of behavior is central.

207
Q

Who proposed the cognitive prototype approach?

A

Nancy Cantor & Walter Mischel

208
Q

Which researcher critics showed that disposition could not be the complete explanation of personality?

A

Seymour Epstein and Walter Mischel

209
Q

What school of psychology did Nancy Cantor propose?

A

The cognitive prototype approach

210
Q

What does the cognitive prototype approach propose?

A

That consistency of behavior is the result of cognitive processes (esp. the formation and attention to prototypes) rather than personality traits.

211
Q

Twin studies suggest that the heritability of personality is approximately how much?

A

40-50%

212
Q

In what field is the nature-nurture debate most active?

A

In the field of gender differences

213
Q

Who found that women’s success is often attributed to luck while men’s successes are attributed to skill?

A

Kay Deaux

214
Q

When women differentially attribute their own successes to luck instead of skill, this self-directed bias may be interpreted as…

A

Low self esteem

215
Q

Who studied androgyny?

A

Sandra Bem

216
Q

What characteristics were found associated with androgyny?

A

Higher self esteem, lower anxiety, and more adaptability

217
Q

Who suggested that females shunned masculine-type success because that success might have negative repercussions such as resentment or rejection?

A

Matina Horner

218
Q

Matina Horner suggested that these were NOT the top reasons for women avoiding masculine-type success:

A

fear of failure or lack of interest

219
Q

The two gender differences that seem to be least associated with social learning are:

A

Females greater verbal ability and males greater visual/spatial ability

220
Q

Which researchers carefully looked at gender studies to examine which could be explained by social learning?

A

Carol Jacklin and Eleanor Maccoby

221
Q

Assuming an individuals disposition based on their actions is known as a

A

implicit theory

222
Q

define self-awareness

A

a state (not a trait) that is a temporary condition of being aware of how you are thinking, feeling, or what you are doing. (e.g. are animals self-aware?)

223
Q

People are more self aware when they are surrounded by _______

A

Large mirrors

224
Q

define self-monitoring

A

scrutinizing one’s own behavior to act appropriately and if needed masking ones true feelings.

225
Q

define self-consciousness (psychology)

A

a personality trait associated with the tendency to reflect on or think about oneself.

226
Q

Define self-esteem

A

Knowing you are worthwhile and being in touch with your actual strengths

227
Q

About how many people perceive themselves accurately?

A

50%

228
Q

About how many people perceive themselves narcissistically

A

35%

229
Q

Define narcissism

A

Believing you are better than you really are

230
Q

Why might one self-handicap?

A

To self-defeat in order to dismiss or excuse ones failures

231
Q

Individuals who have a great need for excitement/arousal are considered

A

stimulus-seeking

232
Q

cognitive and behavioral therapy incorporates principles from which schools of psychology?

A

cognitive and behavioral theory

233
Q

What is the benefit of play therapy?

A

Children may convey emotions, situations, or disturbances that might otherwise go unexpressed.

234
Q

Shock therapy is otherwise known as

A

Electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT)

235
Q

ECT is effective in treating…

A

Severely depressed patients.

236
Q

Who invented stress-inoculation training?

A

Donald Meichenbaum

237
Q

What are the two best known personality tests?

A

The MMPI and CPI

238
Q

What does MMPI stand for in personality?

A

The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

239
Q

What does CPI stand for in personality?

A

The California personality inventory

240
Q

This presents people with ambiguous story cards and asserts that people will project their own needs onto the cards.

A

Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)

241
Q

Who invented the TAT (Thematic Apperception Test)

A

Henry Murray

242
Q

Define Clinical Psychology

A

study of the theory, assessment, and treatment of mental and emotional disorders

243
Q

Define Applied Psychology

A

The branch of psychology that uses principles and research findings to try to solve people’s problems.

244
Q

What is the criticism against evidence based “medicine” for psychological treatment?

A

The idea that experimental conditions are not likely to completely mimic real life conditions and thus can never be completely applicable.

245
Q

The use of medications to treat mental illness is known as

A

Psychopharmacology.

246
Q

Medications are thought to be helpful to treat mental health disease because ___ may play a role in those diseases

A

biological factors

247
Q

Most psychopharmacological treatments impact which type of biochemicals?

A

neurotransmitters

248
Q

The most common neurotransmitters are in what class?

A

the monoamines

249
Q

The 3 most common neurotransmitters are

A

Dopamine
Serotonoin
Norepinephrine

250
Q

What are examples of anti-psychotics?

A

chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

Haloperidol (Haldol)

251
Q

What is the function of anti-psychotics?

A

To treat the delusions and hallucinations of schizophrenia by blocking dopamine receptors and inhibiting dopamine production.

252
Q

What class of drugs are generally used to treat the primary signs of schizophrenia?

A

anti-psychotics

253
Q

What class of drugs are generally used to treat the primary signs of bipolar disorder?

A

mood stabilizers

254
Q

What types of drugs fall into the class of mood stabilizers?

A

anti-psychotics, anti-convulsants, and lithium

255
Q

How do anti-depressants tend to work?

A

By increasing the availability of neurotransmitters in the brain esp. serotonin, norepinephrine or dopamine.

256
Q

What are three primary classes of anti-depressants?

A

TCAs (tricyclic antidepressants)
MAOIs (monoamine oxidase inhibitors)
SSRIS (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)

257
Q

What is an example of a tricyclic antidepressant

A

amitriptyline (Elavil)

258
Q

What is an examine of an MAOI?

A

phenelzine (Nardil)

259
Q

What are 3 examples of SSRIs?

A

fluoxetine (Prozac)
sertraline (Zoloft)
paroxetine (Paxil)

260
Q

What is the most commonly prescribed class of anti-depressants (and why is this the case?)

A

The SSRIs because they tend to have fewer side effects.

261
Q

What is the major problem with anxiolytics?

A

Their potential for abuse

262
Q

What are the 2 functions of of anxiolytics?

A

To reduce anxiety and induce sleep

263
Q

How do anxiolytics usually work?

A

By increasing the effectiveness of GABA (an inhibitory neurotransmitter).

264
Q

What is a common class of anxiolytics

A

barbituates

265
Q

What is a drug that can be used to counter condition alcoholics?

A

Antabuse

266
Q

How does Antabuse work?

A

it changes the metabolism of alcohol so that when it is combined with alcohol it results in severe nausea and vomiting.

267
Q

What is the goal of psychopharmacology?

A

To to provide relief from the symptoms of mental health disease.

268
Q

What are the major critiques of psychopharmacologic approaches

A

1) They don’t work on everyone and experimentation to see what works is often required.
2) Drugs alone may not work as well as psychotherapy or may work best in combo with psychotherapy.
3) Drugs may be habit forming, may cause side effects themselves, or withdrawal symptoms.

269
Q

Who writes the DSM?

A

The American Psychiatric Association

270
Q

What is the major diagnostic guide for the psychiatric profession?

A

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders

271
Q

When was the first DSM published?

A

In 1952

272
Q

The latest DSM was published in what year?

A

2013

273
Q

Define psychological disorders

A

Thoughts, feelings or behaviors not in keeping with social norms severe enough to cause personal distress and/or impairment to functioning.

274
Q

How many major categories are there in the DSM?

A

20

275
Q

What are the 20 major categories in the DSM

A
  1. Neurodevelopmental disorders
  2. Schizophernia Sepctrum and other Psychotic Disorders
  3. Bipolar and Related Disorders
  4. Depressive Disorders
  5. Anxiety Disorders
  6. Obsessive Compulsive and Related Disorders
  7. Trauma and Stressor Related Disorders
  8. Dissociative Disorders
  9. Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders
  10. Feeding and Eating Disorders
  11. Elimination Disorders
  12. Sleep-Wake Disorders
  13. Sexual Dysfunctions
  14. Paraphilic Disorders
  15. Gender Dysphoria
  16. Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders
  17. Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders
  18. Neurocognitive Disorders
  19. Personality Disorders.
  20. Other
276
Q

Autism spectrum disorders fit under what classification in the DSM-5?

A

Neurodevelopmental disorders

277
Q

What does ADHD stand for?

A

Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

278
Q

ADHD fits under what classification in the DSM-5?

A

Neurodevelopmental disorders

279
Q

What is the subcategory and category something like Tourette’s would fit into in the DSM-5?

A

Tic Disorder > Neurodevelopmental Disorders

280
Q

What are major subcategories of neurodevelopmental disorders in the DSM-5?

A
  1. Intellectual disability
  2. Learning disorders
  3. Autism spectrum disorder
  4. ADHD
  5. Tic Disorders
  6. Motor skills disorder
  7. Communication disorders
281
Q

How does the DSM-5 define intellectual disability differently than in other previous versions?

A

Cut-offs are not tied to specific IQ scores but rather to specific adaptive functioning deficits.

282
Q

To be considered to have a learning disorder one generally has school achievement or standardized testing scores at what level?

A

2 standard deviations below the mean for appropriate age and IQ.

283
Q

How is ADHD most commonly treated?

A

With stimulants such as Ritalin and Adderall.

284
Q

What are key characteristics of Autism Spectrum Disorders?

A

severe problems with social skills, communication, and interests.

285
Q

What are key signs of ADHD?

A

problems with attention, behavior, and impulsivity

286
Q

What are signs of neurodevelopmental communication disorders?

A

pervasive problems acquiring language across modalities, using language socially, or speaking intelligibly or fluently.

287
Q

What defines the psychotic disorders?

A

Hallucinations or delusions

288
Q

What was the previous terminology for schizophrenia

A

dementia praecox

289
Q

Who gave schizophrenia its new name?

A

Eugene Bleuler

290
Q

What is the “split” that the schizo in schizophrenia refers to?

A

A split from reality

291
Q

What is the difference between positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Positive symptoms are signs that are abnormal in their presence.
Negative symptoms are signs that are abnormal in their absence.

292
Q

What are some positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

1) delusions
2) perception hallucinations
3) nonsensical or disorganized speech (sometimes including made-up words = neologisms)
4) disorganized behavior

293
Q

Define “delusions”

A

erroneous or distorted thinking

294
Q

What might negative symptoms of schizophrenia look like?

A

1) flat affect
2) avolution
2) restricted thought, speech, behavior

295
Q

What are two ways that schizophrenia can occur?

A

Either suddenly in response to a particular event (reactive schizophrenia) or gradually over time (process schizophrenia)

296
Q

When does schizophrenia usually onset?

A

In late adolescence and the mid-30s.

297
Q

What are positive prognostic factors for schizophrenia?

A

1) Reactive schizophrenia

2) History of strong social and interpersonal skills

298
Q

What is the name of the theory that says schizophrenia occurs due to abnormal brain chemistry + stress?

A

Diathesis-stress theory

299
Q

What does the diathesis-stress theory state?

A

That schizophrenia occurs as a result of physiological predisposition and an external stressor.

300
Q

Schizophrenia appears to be associated most with what biochemical change?

A

Excessive dopamine

301
Q

If you have a 1st degree relative with schizophrenia what is your risk of developing the disorder (vs. the population at large)

A

10% vs. 1%

302
Q

When schizophrenic symptoms accompany a depressive episode then you have…

A

Schizoaffective disorder

303
Q

A delusion that another person is in love with the individual is called…

A

erotomanic

304
Q

A delusion that you have a special talent or status is

A

grandiose

305
Q

Types of delusions include

A 
Erotomanic
Grandiose
Jealousy
Persecutory
Somatic
306
Q

Somatic delusion may include

A

that a part of the body is ugly or misshapen

307
Q

What are types of Psychotic disorders?

A

1) Schizophrenia
2) Schizoaffective disorder
3) delusional or manic disorder
4) Brief psychotic disorder
5) schizophreniform disorder

308
Q

What characterizes brief psychotic disorder?

A

sudden onset of psychotic symptoms lasting less than one month followed by remission.

309
Q

What differentiates Schizophreniform disorder from Schizophrenia?

A

usually between 1-6 months in duration

310
Q

What is the difference between Bipolar I and Bipolar II

A

In Bipolar I there is extreme mania and major depression, In Bipolar II the mania is less severe (hypomania)

311
Q

The mania of Bipolar II is referred to as

A

hypomania

312
Q

What is a disorder related to bipolar disorder?

A

cyclothymic disorder

313
Q

What defines cyclothymic disorder?

A

Mood swings similar to bipolar with less severe symptoms and occur with regularity over at least 2 years.

314
Q

What are some of the signs/symptoms of a depressive episode?

A

1) depressed mood
2) loss of usual interests
3) changes in weight or sleep
4) low energy
5) feelings of worthlessness
6) thought of hopelessness
Present nearly every day for at least 2 weeks.

315
Q

Is major depressive disorder more common in males or females?

A

Twice more common in females than males

316
Q

What is another name for persistent depressive disorder?

A

dysthymia

317
Q

What is another name for dysthymia?

A

persistent depressive disorder

318
Q

What are the signs of persistent depressive disorder?

A

Signs of major depressive disorder that are present for more days than not fore more than 2 years, but there is never an actual depressive episode.

319
Q

General anxiety disorder is usually treated with

A

anxiolytics

320
Q

Specific anxiety disorders are usually treated with

A

behavior therapies that change response to the anxiety inducing stimulus

321
Q

What defines a panic attack

A

1) Occurs over a discrete period of time (usually <10 min)
2) Overwhelming feelings of danger or the need to escape (fear of dying or going crazy)
3) Can be accompanied by physical signs such as sweating, trembling, pounding heart, and more.

322
Q

What is a component of many types of anxiety disorders?

A

The panic attack

323
Q

What defines panic disorder?

A

recurrent panic attacks and persistent worry about another attack.

324
Q

Panic disorder is often accompanied by what actual physical health disorder?

A

mitral valve problems.

325
Q

Define agoraphobia

A

Where panic may arise and escape would be difficult (often fear of being away from home or in crowds)

326
Q

Define phobia

A

a persistent and irrational fear of a specific situation, object, or activity (e.g., heights, dogs, water, blood, driving, flying), which is consequently either strenuously avoided or endured with marked distress

327
Q

What are the 5 types of specific phobias defined by the DSM?

A

1) animal type
2) natural environment type
3) blood-injection-injury type
4) situational type
5) other type

328
Q

What are the anxiety disorders?

A

1) panic disorder
2) agoraphobia
3) phobia (and specific phobia)
4) social anxiety disorder
5) generalized anxiety disorder

329
Q

What outlines social anxiety disorder

A

Fear of social situations usually resulting in avoidance behavior

330
Q

What defines generalized anxiety disorder?

A

excessive anxiety without specific cause that occurs on more days than not for a period of at least 6 months.

331
Q

What are the obsessive-compulsion related disorders?

A

1) body dysmorphic disorder
2) hoarding disorder
3) Trichotillomania
4) excoriation disorder

332
Q

A unrealistic sense of ones body - seeing flaws or defects that are not really there is called…

A

Body dysmorphic disorder

333
Q

What OCD related disorder often accompanies the eating disorders?

A

Body dysmorphic disorder

334
Q

What disorder involves picking at the skin?

A

Excoriation disorder

335
Q

What disorder involves compulsively pulling at or twirling the hair?

A

Trichotillomania

336
Q

What are the trauma and stressor related disorders?

A

1) PTSD
2) Acute stress disorder
3) Adjustment disorder

337
Q

What defines PTSD?

A

Decreased ability to function and recurrent thoughts and anxiety about the trauma.

338
Q

When PTSD type signs have been present for less than a month this is called…

A

Acute stress disorder

339
Q

Define Adjustment Disorder

A

A greater response than one might normally expect under the circumstances from a trauma or stressor and have been going on for up to three months.

340
Q

What are the dissociative disorders?

A

1) Dissociative amnesia
2) Depersonalization/derealization disorder
3) Dissociative identity disorder

341
Q

What defines the dissociative disorders?

A

disruption of memory or identity

342
Q

The dissociative disorders used to be called…

A

the psychogenic disorders

343
Q

The psychogenic disorders are now known as…

A

the dissociative disorders

344
Q

Multiple personality disorder fits into what class of the DSM?

A

The dissociative disorders NOT the schizophrenic disorders

345
Q

What defines dissociative amnesia?

A

Inability to recall specific biographical information due to a trauma or stressor beyond normal forgetting (usually occurs along-side a trauma or stressor related disorder)

346
Q

What defines depersonalization/derealization disorder?

A

An altered sense of onesself or ones surroundings such as a feeling of being detached from one’s body or the environment that is not related to another disorder.

347
Q

Multiple personality disorder is now known as…

A

dissociative identity disorder

348
Q

What are the disorders related to somatic symptom disorder?

A

1) conversion disorder
2) illness anxiety disorder
3) somatic symptom disorder
3) factitious disorder

349
Q

Munchausen or Munchausen by proxy is now known as

A

Factitious disorder

350
Q

What defines the somatic symptom and related disorders?

A

manifest as physical or bodily symptoms that cause reduced functioning?

351
Q

Define conversion disorder

A

psychological problems are converted to bodily symptoms especially of voluntary movement.

352
Q

What was formerly known as “hysteria” is now known as

A

conversion disorder

353
Q

Hypochondriasis is now known as…

A

illness anxiety disorder

354
Q

What defines illness anxiety disorder?

A

A preoccupation with the possibility of getting sick despite minimal or no symptoms.

355
Q

What defines somatic symptom disorder?

A

A person focusing on physical symptoms to the point where excessive thoughts, feelings or behaviors interfere with functioning.

356
Q

What are the feeding and eating disorders?

A

1) Anorexia nervosa
2) Bulimia nervosa
3) Binge eating disorder
4) Pica

357
Q

What defines anorexia nervosa?

A

refusing to eat enough to maintain a healthy body weight, showing excessive concern about becoming obese

358
Q

What defines bulimia nervosa

A

binge eating accompanied by harmful ways to prevent gain (such as induced vomiting or laxative)

359
Q

What defines binge-eating disorder?

A

consumption of large amounts of food and a sense of lack of control over this eating behavior.

360
Q

What is the primary elimination disorder covered by psychology?

A

nocturnal enuresis (bedwetting)

361
Q

How are the elimination disorders generally treated?

A

By behavioral modification

362
Q

What are the major class of sleep-wake disorders?

A

1) dyssomnias

2) parasomnias

363
Q

what defines the dyssomnias?

A

issues involving the quality of quantity of sleep

364
Q

what defines the parasomnias?

A

abnormal behaviors during sleep

365
Q

What are the dyssomnias?

A

1) insomnia
2) hypersomnolence disorder
3) narcolepsy
4) breathing-related sleep disorders

366
Q

What are the parasomnias?

A

1) nightmare disorder
2) sleep terror
3) sleepwalking

367
Q

What defines insomnia?

A

difficulty falling or staying asleep

368
Q

Excessive sleepiness is called this disorder

A

hypersomnolence disorder

369
Q

What defines narcolepsy?

A

Falling asleep uncontrollably during routine daily activity

370
Q

Define breathing-related sleep disorders?

A

Problems with breathing during sleep that result in repeated awakenings during the night.

371
Q

What is the difference between nightmare disorder and sleep terror?

A

frequent disruption of sleep because of nightmares vs. because of screaming or crying.

372
Q

The sexual dysfunctions may involve problems with which of the following:

A

1) Pain during sex
2) loss of interest in sex
3) inability to achieve orgasm

373
Q

Gender dysphoria used to be known as

A

gender identity disorder

374
Q

Why was the name of gender identity disorder changed?

A

To emphasize that identifying with another gender is only a problem if the individual experiences persistent and pervasive distress as a result.

375
Q

Treatment of gender dysphoria generally involves what?

A

Coping with the negative feelings involved not on changing the person’s gender identity.

376
Q

What are some of the disruptive, impulse-control, or conduct disorders?

A

1) Kleptomania
2) Pyromania
3) Oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder

377
Q

What defines the disruptive, impulse-control, or conduct behaviors?

A

A irresistible urge dictates behavior, giving into the impulse lessens tension and brings relief but the behavior is disruptive to normal functioning.

378
Q

Patterns of behaviors that violate rules, norms, or the rights of others may be which disorders?

A

Oppositional defiant disorder

Conduct disorder

379
Q

In addition to substance disorders what is the other type of addictive disorder?

A

Gambling disorder

380
Q

Define delirium

A

disturbed consciousness and cognition (problems with awareness, attention, focus, and memory; disorientation)

381
Q

What are the neurocognitive disorders?

A

Alzheimer’s disease
Parkinson’s disease
Huntington’s disease
Major or mild frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder

382
Q

What kind of things might decline with neurocognitive disorders

A 
Memory
Learning
Spatial tasks
Language
Executive function
Complex attention
Motor or Social Cognition
383
Q

In addition to neurocognitive decline what also characterizes Parkinsons?

A

tremors

384
Q

In addition to neurocognitive decline what also characterizes Huntington’s disease?

A

It’s progressive and genetically linked

385
Q

Frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder was previously known as…

A

Pick’s disease

386
Q

What characterizes frontotemporal neurocogntive disorder

A

changes in personality

387
Q

How many clusters of personality disorders are there?

A

3 (A, B, and C)

388
Q

What characterizes the personality disorders?

A

Rigid, pervasive culturally maladaptive personality structures usually not diagnosed in children.

389
Q

What are the cluster A personality disorders?

A

Paranoid personality disorder
Schizoid personality disorder
Schizotypal personality disorder

390
Q

What characterizes paranoid personality disorer?

A

Distrust and suspicion

391
Q

What characterizes schizoid personality disorder?

A

Detachment and a small range of emotions

392
Q

What characterizes schizotypal personality disorder

A

Eccentricity and distorted reality

393
Q

What is the difference between shizoid and shizotypal personality disorders?

A

Shizoid - detachment and small range of emotions (turned down), shizotypal - eccentricity and distorted reality (turned up)

394
Q

What are the type B personality disorders?

A

Antisocial personality disorder
Borderline personality disorder
Histrionic personality disorder
Narcissistic personality disorder

395
Q

Define antisocial personality disorder

A

absence of guilt and disregard for the rights of others

396
Q

Define borderline personality disorder

A

instability in relationships and emotions, impulsivity

397
Q

define histrionic personality disorder

A

excess emotion, attention seeking

398
Q

Narcissistic personality disorder

A

need for admiration idea of superiority

399
Q

What characterizes the cluster A personality disorders

A

odd or eccentric behavior

400
Q

What characterizes the cluster B personality disorders?

A

dramatic or erratic behavior

401
Q

What characterizes the cluster C personality disorders?

A

anxious or fearful behavior?

402
Q

What are the cluster C personality disorders?

A

Avoidant personality disorder
Dependent personality disorder
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

403
Q

Define avoidant personality disorder

A

social inhibitions, hypersensitivity, perceptions of inadequacy

404
Q

Define dependent personality disorder

A

need to be taken care of, clinging

405
Q

Define obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

A

excessive orderliness and control, perfectionism

406
Q

What are the paraphilic disorders

A

Pedophilic disorder
Exhibitionist disorder
Sexual sadism disorder

407
Q

Define pedophilic disroder

A

Attraction to prepubescent children

408
Q

Define exhibitionistic disorder

A

desire to expose oneself to an unsuspecting person

409
Q

Define sexual sadism disorder

A

Sexual gratification derived from the physical pain of another

410
Q

Statistically what kind of psychopathology are men more likely to have?

A

Substance abuse, disorders of impulse control and antisocial behavior.

411
Q

Statistically what kind of psychopathology are women more likely to have?

A

Depression and anxiety disorders

412
Q

The psychopathological differences between men and women are thought to be related to…

A

Differences in locus of control (external vs. internal)

Response to negative emotions (implode vs. explode)

413
Q

How many therapeutic responses to men and women differ?

A

Men - plan responses reinforcing non-destructive behavioral patterns
Women - reducing and defeating negative thoughts

414
Q

What defines serious mental illness

A

a psychological disorder that substantially impairs individual functioning and disrupts one or more major life activities

415
Q

What groups report the highest rates of mental illness?

A
  1. multiracial
  2. white
  3. native americans
  4. native hawaiians
  5. african americans
  6. hispanic/latino americans
416
Q

which racial group reports the lowest rates of mental illness

A

asian americans

417
Q

What age group is more likely to be associated with serious mental illness?

A

Those in their late teens and early 20s

418
Q

Which age group is least likely to report a serious mental illness

A

adults over 50

419
Q

Are men or women more likely to be diagnosed with a serious mental illness?

A

Women

420
Q

Reported rates of mental illness may be linked to…

A

stigmatization and likelihood of seeking care (or not)

421
Q

What is a major challenge of diagnosing and treating psychologic disease in a diverse country?

A

Psychologic disease is often defined based on cultural norms which can make it eurocentrically biased in the US.

422
Q

Define community psychology

A

psychology is taken into the community via community centers or schools as opposed to having individuals come to the clinics and universities, focuses on the logistics that stops the neediest individuals from seeking help.

423
Q

What is it important for clincians to have cultural competence?

A

Make sure that diagnosis and treatment is tailored to the cultural norms and needs of an individual’s cultural context.

424
Q

Define health psychology

A

how psychological factors impact physical health including:

1) how maladaptive behaviors cause disease
2) how psychological traits can prevent illness and facilitate recovery
3) the relationship between stress and health
4) the psychological impacts of physical ailments (esp. terminal illness) and how to cope with them.
5) large scale public health implementation

425
Q

How did health psychology change the DSM 5?

A

it reduced the distinction between medical and psychological disorders

426
Q

What is the term that refers to the combined mental, social, and physical determinants of health?

A

the biosocial model

427
Q

When was the APA founded and by who?

A

1892 by Stanley Hall

428
Q

What is the purpose of the APA

A

to promote the advancement, communication and application of psychological science and knowledge to benefit society and improve lives

429
Q

What does APA stand for?

A

American Psychology Association

430
Q

What are the publications of the APA?

A 
The American Psychologist (official journal) 9 times a year
Psychological Bulletin (monthly)
431
Q

What type of content makes it into American Psychologist?

A

Theoretical, archival, current issue, practical articles

432
Q

What type of content makes it into the Psychological Bulletin?

A

literature and quantitative reviews

Psychology GRE (10 decks)

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