CHECK FOCUS JAN - MAR 2024

Question 1

1. What is an AML?
2. What does the AML record?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.4

Answer 1

1. The AML is the Aircraft Maintainence Log (AML)
2. Records:
   * Abonormal instrument indication,
   * abnormal behavior by the aeroplane,
   * exceedance of an operating limit specified in manuals,
   * defect in the aeroplane
   * Any rectification action taken on Rex Aircraft.

Question 2

On discovery of a defect prior to departure (not yet commenced taxi) all endorsements entered in the defect section of the maintenance log shall be either of the following;

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.4

Answer 2

• Rectified (by engineering) or
• deferred by invoking MEL or CDL or
• Deferred by a procedure in Chapter 13 of the PPM or
• Deferred as a NAD if the defect or damage is not included in the MEL or CDL and is determined not to Airworthiness item and doesnt affect safety of flight.

Question 3

What must flight crew use the AML for?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.4.1 Use of AML

Answer 3

Flight crew must use the AML for the following;
* making endorsements setting out the facts concerning defects, damage or abnormal loads imposed on the aircraft.
* making endorsements of observed smoke or intermittent warnings;
* Marking completion of any deferral procedures or maintainence actions which they are authorised to carry out which may be complying to an MEL/CDL.
* making endorsements when feeback is requested by engineering.

Question 4

If an AML is used due to observed engine smoke, erratic engine indications and intermittent warnings of tail pipe hot or bleed air leak, does it need to be reported?

Chapter 13 - 13.4.1 NOTE

Answer 4

• Yes an SMS must be submitted and aircraft MUST undergo fualt investigation by engineering prior to further flight.

Question 5

What should the crew do if a defect becomes evident after the flight has deprted (Commenced Taxi)?

Chapter 13 - 13.4.2

Answer 5

• The AML should be completed when workload permits, must be entered into the AML at the completion of that flight.

Question 6

Prior to departure (not yes commenced taxi), all endorsements entered in the Defect Section of the Maintenance Log shall be either of the following?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.4.2

Answer 6

• Rectified (by engineering), or
• Deferred by invoking appropriate MEL or CDL, or
• Deferred by procudure set out in Chapter 13 of the PPM, or
• Deferred as a NAD if the defect or damage is not included in the MEL or CDL and is determined to be a NAD which does not affect safety of the flight.

Question 7

1. How many records are in the AML booklet?
2. How many copies does each entry consist of and what does each colour mean?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.4.3 AML Distribution

Answer 7

1. 50 records each with unique number.
2. Original and 2 copies which are;
   * Original copy (WHITE) - used for defect entries - given directly to engineering or forwarded to Technical Records Section via FAX or Email
   * First Copy (PINK) - used for deferred defects only, the pink copy is placed in plastic sleeve inside AML folder
   * Book Copy (YELLOW) - Retained in the AML book for reference purposes.

Question 8

What is the Aircraft Maintenance Follow on Logs?

Chapter 13 - 13.5 Aircraft Maintenance Follow On Logs

Answer 8

• The Aircraft Maintenance Follow On Log is used to record all subsequenct actions for a specific defect or maintenance action that has been deferred or where there was insufficient space on the orginal AML to document all actions taken.
• Engineers will raise a follow on log in order to close a deferred defect.

Question 9

• What is the Summary Of Deferred Defects form?
• When do you have to circle the “M” or “O” in the form?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.6 Summary Of Deferred Defects (Form RX005)

Answer 9

• Summary of Deferred Defects Form is used to record all deferred defects from the AMLs.
• If the deferred defect is an MEL item and a repetative action is required, the applicable “M” or “O” box shall be circled.

Question 10

• What is a Certificate of Release to Service?
• Who can complete a CRS?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.7 Certificate of Release to Service

Answer 10

• It is a form which is used to consitute a certification pursuant to CASR 42 which basically states, work has been completed and aircraft is considered ready for release to service.
• Licenced AME authorised by REX engineering or in some cases the PIC.

Question 11

What are the different deferral types on an AML?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.8 Deferral Types

Answer 11

• MEL
• CDL
• Where item is deemed to be non-safety related and will no impact airworthiness, which would be NAD.

Question 12

What is a MEL used for?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.8.1 Minimum Equipment List (MEL)

Answer 12

• MEL is used during preparation for flight to assist in dispatch decisions where the aircraft has an unservicable item.

Question 13

• What are the different caregories on a MEL?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.8.1

Answer 13

• CAT A = No standard interval is specified, items shall be repaired within the interval specified in the remarks column of the MEL.
• CAT B = Items shall be repaired within 3 consecutive calendar days (72 Hours)
• CAT C = Items shall be repaired witin 10 consecutive calender days (240 hours)
• CAT D = items shall be repaired within 120 consecutive days (2880 hours)

Question 14

What does (M) maintenance and (O) Operations symbols mean on MEL?

Answer 14

• (M) indicates requirement for specific maintenance procedure. Can be conducted by AMEs or PIC is noted PIC maintainence
• (O) symbol indicates a requirement for a specific operations procedure which must be accomplished in planning for and or operating with the listen item inoperative. Normally com,pleted by flight crew.

Question 15

• What is a CDL used for?
• When deferred item is applied from a CDL how long may this be deferred for on the AML?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.8.2 Configuration Deviation List (CDL) Items

Answer 15

• The CDL is used to identift external components of the aircraft that may be missing for dispatch or for flight.
• 4 consecutive calender days excluding the day the defect was recorded. (starts the following day from 0000 = midnight)

Question 16

• What is a NAD?
• What is the expiry date for a NAD deferral?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.8.3 Not Airworthiness Defects

Answer 16

• Non-safety related defects or damage which not not impact on the airworthiness of the aircraft.
• a maximum of 4 days commencing at midnight on the day
  the defect was discovered.

Question 17

• What does FOR INFO mean/do on an AML?
• When using FOR INFO what deferral type box must be ticked and what is the deferral period?
• When completing the summary of deferred defects what do you include in the test section?
• Do you have to complete a CRS?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.8.4 FOR INFO

Answer 17

• Flight crew can use FOR INFO to provide engineering information on the AML where no defect exist but crew believe the information would be useful. The information provided must be preceded with the term FOR INFO.
• NAD box and deferred for a priod of 7 days.
• FOR INFO is the only text required.
• NO.

Question 18

• What is the LC1 inspection interval?
• Where is a LC1 recorded?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.8.5 Line Check 1 (LC1) Inspection Interval - SAAB 340

Answer 18

• 96 hours (4 days) and 25 flight hours.
• On the Daily Flight Log

Question 19

• When a MEL/CDL is invoked, what should you state in the action section of the AML?
• If deferring item is considered to not be an airworthiness defect what do you state in the action section?
• If invoking an MEL/CDL that requires a Maintenance Procedure (M) as a condition for continued operation and maintaince is PIC what should you enter in the action section?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.9 Invoking an MEL/CDL/NAD

Answer 19

• MEL or CDL invoked
• Not Airworthiness Defect
• PIC maintenance item completed IAW MEL XX-XX-XX or state specific action completed.

Question 20

• What must be performed after a lightening strike?
• is a maintenance inspection required following lightening strike before flight?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.11 Lightning Strike

Answer 20

• Serviceability check of all radios coms and nav equipment in flight and;
• ensure accuracy of compasses has not be impaired
• Check fluxgate and megnetic compass against know bearings when taxiing after landing on all four quadrantal headings N, E, S, W.
• Yes inspection required.

Question 21

• What is some evidence of a lightening strike?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.11 Lightning Strike

Answer 21

• metallic skin, Eroded metal and local buckles in attachment points
• Composite skin, burned holes in metal foil, local delimitation in attachment points
• Local burns on props especially near tips
• bearings and hindes may have too much movement and unusual noise may appear
• antennas may be have burns or delamination
• stitic discharges damaged or missing
• damage to circuits and power units

Question 22

• What must be completed following a bird strike?

PPM Chapter 13 - 13.12.1 SAAB 340

Answer 22

Any defect, major damage or evidence of ingestion into an engine or airframe intake
(SAAB include AC & DC Generator intakes) or evidence of impact to the propeller, or
N1 fan must be entered in an AML and an engineering inspection must be performed
prior to any subsequent flight.
If the inspection does not reveal the existence of a defect or damage, and there was no
effect on the aircraft’s performance following the event, the aircraft may continue to
operate.
SAAB 340: Prior to the next flight, the Ice Protection must be checked in accordance
with the Flight Crew Operating Manual.

Question 23

Take off and Landing Procedures:
1. What is a positive ROC defined as?
2. What must the PF observe during TO?
3. When departing the circuit in VMC by day and turning contrrary to the circuit deirection when can it be commenced?
4. When must you be established on track departing the circuit?

FCOM Chapter 3 - 3.13 / 3.17.24

Answer 23

1. Clockwise movement of the VSI and positive increase on the altimeter.
2. The v1, Vr. V2 speeds the PM call is a backup only.
3. 2000ft AGL (500ft above normal circuit)
4. within 5nm.

Question 24

Take off and Landing Procedures:
1. Aim point?
2. What height over the trheshold on 3 degree slope?
3. Can you change the aim point?
4. What is HOT? and what is it a function of?
5. When can you bleed off the Wi (wind increment)
6. How far below Vref/Vref C can you go?

FCOM Chapter 3 - 3.13 / 3.17.24

Answer 24

1. Aim point is the 300 metre markers.
2. 50ft.
3. At controlled aerdromes when the runway is greater than 2400 metres to allow ofr monimim occupancy of the runway and faciliate exiting via the most appropriate taxiway.
4. Height over threshold. It is a funtion of glide path angle and landing gear touch down point.
5. 50ft agl but not below Vref/Vref C until commencing the flare.
6. Should only be a few knots below.

Question 25

Independent Visual Approaches (IVA):
1. What is the Maximum Speed for intercepting the LLZ?
2. What does IVA mean?
3. When may a IVA be initiated?

IVA Suer Guide / FCOM Chapter 3 - 3.17.7

Answer 25

1. 200 kts
2. Allows two aircraft to be on final approach at the same time while operationg in VMC.
3. Depending on meteorological conditions IVA may be initiated from a circuit or from an ILS approach once the pilot is visual.

Question 26

Independent Visual Approaches (IVA):
1. When must you report visual?
2. What are the ATC approach speeds?
3. What is the greatest vector to final that you can be given?
4. How long must you remain on the director freq?
5. Do you still respond to the TCAS alerts?
6. What is the phraseology for an IVA?
7. What must you ensure when intercepting the localiser?
8. What must you report and what do you do if you loose visual contact?

IVA User Guide / FCOM Chapter 3 - 3.17.7

Answer 26

1. report visual and/or runway in sight as soon as possible
2. 160-185kts 10 nm from the THR and 150-160 kts 5 NM from THR
3. not bigger than 39 degrees from final.
4. until you are established on final approach.
5. Yes must comply with TCAS RA instructions
6. You will be cleared independent visual apprioach
7. Runway centreline is NOT crossed
8. Report runway number L/R once assured that the runway will remain in sigh throughout the approach and if visual contact is lost advice ATC immediately

Question 27

What is the Aerodrome TAF boundry?

AIP 3.5 - 7 Para 4.8

Answer 27

• 8km

Question 28

Recency:
1. If you havent flown following 45 days what are the requirements?
2. if between 45 and 90 days?
3. 91 to 180 days?

PPM Chapter 2 - 2.14 Duty to Remain Qualified

Answer 28

1. you either have to do a simulator session minimum 1 hours including 2 take off and landings or undergo a supervised flight by a check caption or training captian who must occupy the control seat.
2. EP’s, DG and NTS required currency as well as the above sim
3. if outside 90 days pilot has to complete pilot refresher course, refresher simulator session, Simulator proficiency check and line check with 4 sectors and one sector at night where possible.

Question 29

What is the increased TOW of the SF340B

FCOM Chapter 2?

Answer 29

13605kg