Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MBG*2040 > Chapters 10 and 11 > Flashcards

Chapters 10 and 11 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main functions of the genetic material?

A

The genetic material must replicate, control the growth and development of the organism and allow the organism to adapt to changes in the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What did Griffith’s Experiment find?

A

It was the first experiment that showed that DNA was the genetic material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What did Griffith work with?

A

Griffith worked with strains of ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What was Griffith’s experiment?

A

He injected a lethal strain of ammonia (virulent - IIIS) into the mouse - found it died. He injected a non-lethal strain of ammonia (IIR) into the mouse and it survived

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What did Griffith find when he injected a boiled IIIS strand into the mouse?

A

It did not kill the mouse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What did Griffith find when he had a mixture of IIR bacteria and the heat boiled IIIS bacteria?

A

The mouse died

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What was the conclusion of Griffith’s Experiment?

A

That the heat-killed virulent bacteria genetically transformed the type IIR bacteria into live, virulent type IIIS bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What was the Avery Macleod Experiment?

A

Treated bacteria with RNAase, protease, and DNAse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the difference between IIIS and IIR bacetria

A

The R strain is non-pathogenic (does not cause disease).

The S strain is pathogenic (disease-causing), and has a capsule outside its cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What was the conclusion of Avery Macleod’s experiment?

A

The conclusion was that because only DNAase destroyed the transformed substance, the transforming substance is DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What did Avery Macleod essentially identify DNA as?

A

The transforming principle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the genetic material found in TMV?

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In some viruses, where can the genetic information be stored?

A

In ribonucleic acid (RNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are nucleic acids composed of?

A

Nucleotides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the Nitrogen Containing Bases of DNA?

A

Guanine (G)
Cytosone (C)
Thymine (T)
Adenine (A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are nucleotides composed of?

A

Nitrogenous base, sugar and a phosphate group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the 5-Carbon sugar in DNA called?

A

deoxyribose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the 5 - carbon sugar in RNA called?

A

Ribose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the phosphate group contain?

A

Phosphodiester bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the charge of DNA and RNA?

A

Negatively charged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the main difference between a ribose and deoxyribose sugar?

A

On the 2’ carbon, ribose has a hydroxyl (OH) group whereas deoxyribose has a H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the general structure of a purine?

A

All purines contain a double ringed structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What nitrogenous bases are purines?

A

Adenine and Guanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the general structure of a pyrimidine?

A

A single ring structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What nitrogenous bases are pyrimidines?

A

Cytosine and Thymine and Uracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the Nitrogenous bases of RNA?

A

Adenine
Guanine
Cytosine
Uracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What nitrogenous base replacing thymine in RNA?

A

Uracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What direction is DNA always synthesized in?

A

The 5’ to 3’ direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What bond linked nucleotides together?

A

The phosphodiester bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which Carbons does the phosphodiester bond link?

A

Links the C-3 carbon of one sugar to the C-5 carbon of another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What was Erwin Chargaff’s precise base findings?

A

The %A = %T and the %G = %C = 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What did William Astbury (1847) find?

A

He used X-ray diffraction Analysis to show that DNA is a polymer of stacked bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins discovery?

A

They were responsible for photo 51 - showed that the shape of a DNA is a helix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What were Watson - Crick’s assumptions?

A
  • DNA is a double helix
  • The two strands are antiparallel
  • The sugars form a phosphate backbone
  • The bases are held together by hydrogen bonds.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the distance of a typical DNA strand?

A

2nM

36
Q

How many Hydrogen bonds between Cysteine and Guanine?

A

3

37
Q

How many hydrogen bonds between Adenine and Thymine

A

2

38
Q

What is the distance between a major groove?

A

3.4nM (this is a universal feature)

39
Q

How many base pairs per turn?

A

10

40
Q

What is the distance between a minor group?

A

0.34nM

41
Q

What do the two strands of the helix have?

A

Opposite chemical polarity (5’ and 3’ ends)

42
Q

What is a technique for DNA and RNA analysis?

A

Molecular Hybridization

43
Q

What is the process of Molecular Hybdridization?

A

A flurophore (acceptor) and a Quenchor (donor) which are attached to a probe. if you hybridize the probe and add heat to it, the DNA will unwind so that the probe can get in and the Flurophore will shine a fluorescent green and you can identify where the gene is.

44
Q

What is Gel Electrophoresis?

A

Gel electrophoresis is a technique you can separate nucleic acids based on size

45
Q

Explain the process of Gel Electrophoresis on Nucleic Acids.

A

The Nucleic Acids are loaded into the wells of a plate, starting at the cathode (-), since nucleic acids are highly negative, they move towards the anode (+) and they get separated based on size. The larger proteins are slower (more towards the top of the plate) and the smaller proteins are faster (more rewards the bottom of the plate).

46
Q

What are Restriction Enzymes (RE)?

A

RE are a group of endonucleases that have a means of destroying foreign DNA

47
Q

How do restriction enzymes work?

A

They work to cleave DNA at a specific double stranded sequence known as their restriction sites.

48
Q

How many base pairs are restriction sites?

A

About 4 to 8 base pairs

49
Q

What are restriction sites considered to be?

A

Palindromic (the same sequence forward and backwards)

50
Q

Where does the restriction site of EcoRI cleave?

A

AATT (the complementary strand is also AATT)

51
Q

What are sticky ends?

A

Sticky ends are when the 4 nucleotides (cleaved from ECORI) can come back together easily via hydrogen bonds.

52
Q

Where does the site of SmaI cleave?

A

At the CG bond (complementary is also CG)

53
Q

What are the ends called of the SmaL enzyme?

A

Blunt ends (you can not put them back together)

54
Q

What has plasmids been used for?

A

A lot of the time plasmids have been edited and engineered for cloning purposes.

55
Q

Multiple Cloning Site (MCS)

A

A region with many restriction sites in which exogenous or external DNA can be inserted

56
Q

What are the three components a plasmid cloning requires?

A

A Multiple cloning site, An Origin of Replication, and a Selectable Marker.

57
Q

What are the Four Steps of Plasma Cloning?

A

Start with DNA fragment of interest

1.) Digest

2.) Ligation

3.) Transformation

4.) Selection

58
Q

What happens in the Digest phase of Plasma Cloning?

A

Plasmid and Foreign DNA are cleaved by Restrictive Enzymes forming complementary ‘sticky ends

59
Q

Why do sometimes the recombinant cells not form in plasmid cloning?

A

The plasmid closed in on itself before the DNA fragment of interest could be inserted.

60
Q

If the plasmid vector was 3200 base pairs and the fragment of interest was 1200 bp, how many bp would the final recombinant be?

A

3200 + 1200 = 4400 bp

61
Q

What is Polymerase Chain reaction?

A

The process of applying DNA or getting DNA

62
Q

What is Next Generation Sequencing?

A

Genomic DNA to be sequenced is first fragmented, then adaptor sequences are added to each fragment which are then fixed to a solid surface such as a microchip or micro silicone bead.

63
Q

In vivo

A

Within the organism

64
Q

How is DNA organized within living cells?

A

It is super coiled in vivo.

65
Q

How does DNA become supercoiled?

A

Rotate the stationary end of a relaxed, circular DNA 360 degrees

One 360 degree left handed rotation, ligate and one 360 degree right handed rotation

66
Q

What is the chromosome structure in Prokaryotes, example of EColi?

A

There is one genome (monoploid)

E.coli DNS is 1.5mm circle

Ecoli cell: 2um x 1 um

67
Q

What must happen to Ecoli DNA?

A

It must be condensed more then 100 times and folded into a chromosome.

68
Q

How is DNA folded and supercoiled?

A

With the help of RNA and proteins

69
Q

How many domains are bacterial chromosomes segregated into?

A

40 - 50 loops (domains)

70
Q

When the DNA is supercoiled and folded, what is the distance across?

A

2um

71
Q

What is Human DNA?

A
  • Humans are diploid (2 sets of chromosomes)
72
Q

How many Haploid DNA nucleotides do humans have?

A

3.3 x 109 nucleotides

73
Q

What is your haploid genome?

A

23 chromosomes

74
Q

What is the total length of diploid genomes?

A

2 meters

75
Q

How many chromosomes must human DNA be packed into tightly?

A

MULTIPLE chromosomes

76
Q

What is the diameter of the human nucleus?

A

5 - 10 um

77
Q

What does each Eukaryotic chromosome consist of?

A

One large linear molecule of DNA

78
Q

What are the two proteins found in each Eukaryotic cell?

A
  • 5 histones (high positively charged polypeptides)
  • a divergent group of non-histone proteins
79
Q

What makes a chromatin?

A

DNA + Histones + Protein

80
Q

What are the three levels of DNA packaging in a chromatin?

A

Nucleosomes

30 nm chromatin fibres

Interphase chromosomes

81
Q

What is the nucleosome core?

A

Consists of 2 molecules of each of four histones

82
Q

What is the complete nucleosome?

A

Contains Histone H1

83
Q

What happens during mitosis?

A

The chromosomes undergo another stage of packaging: the metaphase chromosome

84
Q

What does each eukaryotic chromosome contain?

A

One giant molecule of DNA packaged into an 11 nm ellipsoidal beads called nucleosomes

85
Q

What are the nucleosomes condensed into?

A

30nm wide chromatin fibres

86
Q

What happens at interphase?

A

The 30nm fibres are segregated into 300nm wide domains by scaffolds composed of non-histone chromosomal proteins

MBG*2040 (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions