Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

med term > chapter three > Flashcards

chapter three Flashcards

1
Q

What is the skeletal system composed of?

A 
bones 
bone marrow 
cartilage
joints 
ligaments
synovial membranes
synovial fluid 
bursae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 5 important functions of the skeletal system?

A
  1. bones act as the framework of the body
  2. bones support and protect internal organs
  3. joints work with the muscles, ligaments, and tendons for movement
  4. calcium is stored in bones
  5. red bone marrow is located within spongy bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does calcium do?

A

Mineral required for normal nerve and muscle function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does red bone marrow do?

A

Important role in formation of blood cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the formation of bones?

A

A newborn’s skeleton begins as a fragile membrane and cartilage which turns into bones (starting at 3 months) through a process called ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is ossification?

A

Process of new bone formation

  1. Osteoclasts break down old or damaged bone
  2. Osteoblasts help rebuild the bone

Repairs minor damage to the skeletal system during normal activity
Repairs bone after major injury (fracture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the density of bone?

A

Second hardest tissue in the body to dental enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What three functions is the bone capable of?

A

growth
healing
reshaping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Periosteum

A

tough and fibrous tissue that forms the outermost covering of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Compact Bone

A

a.k.a cortical bone

the dense, hard, and strong bone that forms the protective outer layer of the bone

accounts for greater than 75% of body’s bone matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Spongy Bone

A

a.k.a cancellous bone

porous or sponge-like that is lighter and weaker than compact bone

contains red bone marrow

a greater amount of spongy bone is associated with weak bones that are more susceptible to fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where is red bone marrow typically found?

A
  1. spongy bone
  2. ends and inner portions of long bones (femur and humerus)
  3. pelvic bone
  4. ribs
  5. vertebrae of the spinal column
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Medullary Cavity

A

central cavity located in the shaft of a long bone

surrounded by compact bone

stores red and yellow bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Medullary

A

pertaining to inner section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Endosteum

A

tissue that lines the medullary cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Red Bone Marrow

A

hemopoietic tissue that manufactures

  1. red blood cells
  2. hemoglobin
  3. white blood cell
  4. thrombocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hemopoietic

A

pertaining to the formation of blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Poietic

A

pertaining to the formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Yellow Bone Marrow

A

fat storage area composed of fat cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe bone marrow and growth?

A

Most bone marrow is red from birth to early adolescence.

During adolescence, red bone marrow is gradually replaced by yellow bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cartilage

A

smooth, rubbery, and blue-white connective tissue that behaves as a shock-absorber between bones

more elastic than bone

makes up flexible parts of the skeleton (outer ear and the tip of the nose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Articular Cartilage

A

covers the surface of bones where they articulate
makes smooth joint movement possible
protects bones from rubbing against each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Articulate

A

come together to form joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Meniscus

A

curved, fibrous cartilage found in some joints

found in the

  1. knee
  2. temporomandibular joint of the jaw
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Diaphysis

A

shaft of the long bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Epiphyses

A

wider end of long bone

covered with articular cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Proximal Vs. Distal Epiphysis

A

Proximal is located near the midline of the body

Distal is located farthest away from the midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Foramen (foramina)

A

opening in the bone through which blood vessels, nerves, and ligaments pass

example: spinal cord passes through the foramen magnum of the occipital bone at the base of the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Process

A

normal projection on the surface of a bone that commonly serves as an attachment for the muscle or tendon

Example: mastoid process is located on the temporal bones, behind the ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Joints

A

a.k.a articulations

place of union of two or more bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are joints classified by? (two)

A

construction

degree of movement they allow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Fibrous Joints

A

inflexible layers of dense connective tissue that hold the bones tightly together

  1. known as sutures in adults (allowing no movement)
  2. allow some movement in newborns and children, before solidification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fontanelles

A

a.k.a soft spots

present on the skull of a newborn

facilitate the passage of an infant through the birth canal

allow for growth of skull during year 1

close and harden as the child matures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cartilaginous Joints

A

allow for slight movement
consist of bones connected entirely by cartilage

Examples:

  1. ribs connect to the sternum and only allow movement when breathing
  2. pubic symphysis allows some movement during childbirth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where is the pubic symphysis located?

A

between pubic bones in the anterior of the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Synovial Joint

A

created when two bones articulate to permit a variety of motion
two types:

  1. Ball-and-socket Joint
    allows for a wide range of movement in many directions
    hips and shoulders
  2. Hinge Joints
    allow movement in one direction or plane
    knees and elbows
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the components of the synovial joint?

A 
Synovial capsule
Synovial membrane 
Synovial fluid 
Ligament
Bursa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Synovial Capsule

A

outermost layer of strong, fibrous tissue

resembles a sleeve as it surrounds the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Synovial Membrane

A

lines the capsule and secretes synovial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Synovial fluid

A

flows within the synovial cavity

acts as lubricant for smooth movement of the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Ligaments

A

bands of fibrous tissue that form joints by connecting

  1. bone to bone
  2. bone to cartilage

complex hinge joints (knee) are made up of a series of ligaments permitting movement in different directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Bursa

A

fibrous sac that acts as a cushion to ease movement in areas that are subject to friction (shoulder, elbow, knee because tendon passes over bone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe the number of bones in the skeleton?

A

adult skeleton = 206 bones (range of 206 to 350)

divided into AXIAL and APPENDICULAR skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Axial Skeleton

A

protects the major organs of the

  1. nervous
  2. respiratory
  3. circulatory

80 bones in the head and body organized into 5 parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the parts of the Axial Skeleton?

A
  1. bones of the skull
  2. the ossicles of the middle ear
  3. hyoid bone (between chin and thyroid)
  4. rib cage
  5. vertebral column
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Appendicular Skeleton

A

allows for body movement

protects organs of the

  1. digestion
  2. excretion
  3. reproduction

126 bones divided into two parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the parts of the Appendicular Skeleton?

A
  1. upper extremities (shoulders, arms, forearms, wrists, hands)
  2. lower extremities (hips, thighs, legs, ankles, feet)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Appendage

A

anything attached to a major part of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Appendicular meaning?

A

referring to an appendage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Extremity

A

terminal end of the body (arm and leg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Bones of the Skull

A

8 bones that form the cranium
14 bones that form the face
6 bones in the middle ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Bones of the Skull

A

8 bones that form the cranium
14 bones that form the face
6 bones in the middle ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Bones of the Cranium

A

cranium = portion of the skull enclosing and protecting the brain

joined together by jagged fibrous joints (sutures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the 8 bones of the cranium? and the meatus?

A 
1. frontal bone 
2/3. parietal bones 
4. occipital bone
5.6. temporal bones 
7.  sphenoid bone 
8.  ethmoid bone

external auditory meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Frontal bone?

A

the anterior portion of the cranium forming the forehead

houses frontal sinuses

forms

  1. the roof of the ethmoid sinuses
  2. nose
  3. part of the socket that protects the eyeball
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Parietal Bones

A

two of the largest bones of the skull

form the roof and upper sides of the cranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Occipital bone

A

forms the back part of the skull

forms the base of the cranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Temporal Bones

A

forms the sides and base of the cranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Sphenoid Bone

A

irregular and wedge-shaped bone at the base of the skull
makes contact with ALL other cranial bones

helps form

  1. the base of the cranium
  2. sides of the skull
  3. floors and sides of the eye sockets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

External Auditory Meatus

A

opening of the external auditory canal of the outer ear

= the canal is located within the temporal bone on each side of the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Meatus

A

external opening of a canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Ethmoid Bone

A

light and spongy bone located at the roof and sides of the nose

separates nasal cavity of the brain
forms portion of each orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Orbit

A

bony socket that surrounds and protects each eyeball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Auditory Ossicles

A

three tiny bones in each middle ear

  1. malleus
  2. incus
  3. stapes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Sinus

A

air-filled cavity

lighten weight of skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the 14 facial bones?

A 
1/2. nasal 
3/4. zygomatic 
5/6. maxillary 
7/8. palatine 
9/10. lacrimal 
11/12. inferior conchae 
13. vomer 
14. mandible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Nasal Bone

A

form upper part of the bridge of the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Zygomatic Bone

A

a.k.a cheeckbone

articulate with the frontal bone that makes up the forehead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Maxillary Bone

A

form ost of the upper jaw

a.k.a maxillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Palatine Bone

A

form anterior of the hard palate of the mouth

form the floor of the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Lacrimal Bone

A

make up part of the orbit at the inner angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Inferior Conchae

A

thin, scroll-like bones that form part of the interior of the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Vomer Bone

A

form base of the nasal septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Nasal Septum

A

cartilage wall that divides the two nasal cavities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Mandible

A

a.k.a jaw bone

only movable bone in the skull

attached to skull at the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Thoracic Cavity

A

a.k.a rib cage

bony structure protecting heart and lungs

consists of the

  1. ribs
  2. sternum
  3. upper portion of the spinal column from the neck to diaphragm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The Ribs

A

a.k.a costals
12 pairs that attach posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae

The first seven pairs are TRUE RIBS and attach anteriorly to the sternum
The next three pairs are FALSE RIBS and attach anteriorly to cartilage that connects them to sternum
The last two pairs are FLOATING RIBS and they attach posteriorly to vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Sternum

A

a.k.a breast bone

flat, dagger-shaped bone located in the middle of teh chest

connects with the ribs to form the front of the rib cage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the parts of the sternum?

A
  1. manubrium
  2. body of the sternum (gladiolus)
  3. xiphoid process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Manubrium

A

bony structure that forms the upper portion of the sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Body of the Vertebrae

A

bony structure that forms the middle portion of the sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Xiphoid Process

A

structure made of cartilage

forms the lower portion of the sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Xiphoid meaning

A

straight sword (Greek word)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Pectoral Girdle

A

a.k.a shoulder girdle as it is formed by the shoulders

supports the arms and the hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Girdle

A

a structure that encirlces the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the bones of the shoulder?

A

Clavicle
Scapula
Acromion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Clavicle

A

a.k.a collar bone

slender bone connecting the manubrium (of sternum) and the scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Scapula

A

a.k.a shoulder blade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Acromion

A

extension of the scapula that forms the highest point of the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the parts of the arm?

A

Humerus
Radius
Ulna
Olecranon Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Humerus

A

bone of the upper arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Radius

A

the smaller and shorter bone of the forearm

thumb side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Ulna

A

larger and longer bone of forearm

the proximal end of the ulna articulates with the distal end of the humerus to form the elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Olecranon Process

A

a.k.a funny bone

large projection on the upper end of the ulna
forms the point of the elbow
exposes a nerve that tingles when struck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The Wrist

A

formed of 8 carpals

form a narrow bony passage called the carpal tunnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Carpal Tunnel

A

where the nerves and tendons of the fingers pass through to reach the hand

Example: Carpal Tunnel Syndrone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Palm

A

fomrmed by 5 metacarpals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Fingers

A

Formed by 14 phalanges

Fingers

  1. distal phalanges
  2. middle phalanges
  3. proximal phalanges

Thumb

  1. distal phalanges
  2. proximal phalanges
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Spinal Column

A

a.ka vertebral column

protects the spinal cord
supports head and body

26 vertebrae (vertebra)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Body of the Vertebra

A

anterior portion of the vertebra

solid and provides strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Lamina

A

the posterior portion of the vetrebrae
where the transverse and spinous processes extend from
serves as attachment for muscles and tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Vertebral Foramen

A

opening in the middle of the vertebra
allow the spinal cord to pass through
protects the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Intervertebral Disks

A

made of cartilage

separate and cushion vertebrae from each other
act as shock absorbers
allow for movement of spinal column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Cervical Vertebrae

A

7 vertebrae
form the neck
C1 - C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Thoracic Vertebrae

A

12 Vertebrae
Each vertebrae has a pari of ribs attached to it
Forms the outward curve of the spine
T1-T12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Lumbar Vertebrae

A

5 vertebrae
form inward curve of lower spine
largest and strongest vertebrae beraing most of the body’s weight
L1-L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Lumbar Meaning

A

relating to the part of the back and sides between the ribs and the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Sacrum

A

slightly curved and triangular-shaped bone near base of lumbar spine

is composed of 5 bones that fuse in the young child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Coccyx

A

a.k.a tailbone

form end of the spine
made up of 4 vertebrae that are fused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Coccyx meaning

A

Cuckoo (Greek Word)

shape resembled a cuckoo’s beak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Pelvis

A

a.k.a bony pelvis

protects the internal organs
supports the elowe rorganas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Pelvic Girdle

A

the Pelvis includes it

cup-shaped ring at the lower end of the trunk

  1. ilium
  2. ichium
  3. pubis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Ilium

A

broad and blade-shaped bone that forms the back and sides of the public bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Sachroiliac

A

slightly movable joint between the sacrum and posterior portion of the ilium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Ischium

A

form lower posterior portion of public bone

bear body weight when sitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Pubis

A

form anterior portion of pubic bone

below urinary bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Describe the formation of the pelvic girdle?

A

Originally composed of three seperate bones that fuse to form the left and right pubic bones

the left and right pubic bones are held together by the pubic symphysis

118
Q

Symphysis

A

Place where two bones are closely joined

119
Q

Pubic Symphysis

A

cartilaginous joint uniting the left and right pubic bones

120
Q

Cartilaginous Joint

A

allows for slight movement between bones

121
Q

Acetabulum

A

a.k.a hip socket

a large circular cavity in each side of the pelvis
articulates with the head of the femur to form hip joint

122
Q

The Femur

A

largest bone in the body
a.k.a thigh bone

the head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum (hip socket)
the femoral neck is the narrow area just below the head of the femur

123
Q

Parts of the Knee

A

patella
popliteal
crucial ligaments

124
Q

Patella

A

a.k.a kneecap

bony anterior of the knee

125
Q

Popliteal

A

posterior of the knee where ligaments, vessels, and muscles related to the joint are connected

126
Q

Cruciate Ligaments

A

allow for movement of the knee
anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
- shaped like a cross

127
Q

Tibia

A

a.k.a shinbone

largest anterior weight-boring bone of the lower leg

128
Q

Fibula

A

smaller of the two bones of the lower leg

129
Q

Ankle

A

joints that connect the lower leg and foot
made up of 7 short tarsal bones
= larger than tarsals of the wrist

130
Q

Malleolus

A

rounded bony projection on the tibia and fibula on the sides of each ankle joint

131
Q

Talus

A

ankle bone that articulates with the tibia and fibula

132
Q

Calcenus

A

a.k.a heel bone

largest of the tarsal bones

133
Q

The Foot

A

composed of 5 metatarsals that form the part of the foot to which toes are attached

134
Q

Phalanges

A

bones of the toes

Great Toe = two
Each other toe = three

135
Q

Chiropractor

A

DC (doctor of chiropractric)

specializes in the manipulative treatment of disorders originating from the misalignment of the spine

136
Q

Manipulative Treatment

A

manually adjusting position of the bones

137
Q

Orthopedic Surgeon

A

a.k.a orthopedist

physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases and disorders of the bones, joints, and muscles

138
Q

Osteopath

A

Doctor of Osteopathy (DO)

traditional forms of medical treatment and spinal manipulation to treat health problems

139
Q

Osteopathy

A

the practice that an osteopathy uses

or any bone disease

140
Q

Podiatrist

A

Doctor of Podiatry (DP) or Doctor of Podiatric Medicine (DPM)
specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of food disorders

141
Q

Rheumatologist

A

physician who specializes in the diagnosis of arthritis and disorders characterized by the inflammation in the joints and connective tissue
(osteoporosis, fibromyalgia, tendinitis)

142
Q

Ankylosis

A

loss or absence of mobility in a joint due to disease, injury, or surgical procedure

143
Q

Ankyl

A

crooked, bent or stiff

144
Q

Mobility

A

capable of movement

145
Q

Adhesive Capsulitis

A

a.k.a frozen shoulder
painful ankylosis of the shoulder

due to adhesions forming in the synovial capsule surrounding the shoulder, making the joint become thick and tight.

146
Q

Capsul

A

little box

147
Q

Arthrosclerosis

A

stiffness of the joints

specifically in the elderly

148
Q

Baker’s cyst

A

a.k.a popliteal cyst

fluid-filled sac behind the knee

result of a condition such as rheumatoid arthritis triggering the production of excess synovial fluid.

named after British Surgeon William Baker

149
Q

Bursitis

A

inflammation of a bursa

150
Q

Chondromalacia

A

abnormal softening of cartilage

151
Q

Costochrondritis

A

inflammation of the cartilage connecting the rib to the sternum

152
Q

Hallux Valgus

A

a.k.a bunion

abnormal enlargement of the joint at the base of the great toe

153
Q

Hallux and Vagus meaning

A

big toe

bent

154
Q

Hemarthrosis

A

blood within the joint
due to
1. a joint unury
2. spontaneously in patients taking blood-thinning medications
3. spontaneously in patients with a blood-clotting disorder (hemophilia)

155
Q

Polymyalgia Rheumatica

A

inflammatory disorder of the muscles and joints

characterized by
pain and stiffness in the necks, shoulders, upper arms, hips, and thighs

156
Q

Rheumatica

A

Latin word for Rheumatism

- obsolete term for arthritis and disorders causing pain in joints and supporting tissue

157
Q

Sprain

A

occur when ligament that connects bones to a joint is wrenched or torn

158
Q

Synovitis

A

inflammation of the synovial membrane resulting in swelling and pain of the affected joint

caused by

  1. arthritis
  2. trauma
  3. infection
  4. irritation produced by damaged cartilage
159
Q

Dislocation

A

a.k.a luxation

total displacement of a bone from joint

160
Q

Sublaxation

A

partial displacement of a bone from its joint

161
Q

Arthritis

A

inflammatory condition of one or more joints

- more than 100 types with different causes

162
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

a.k.a wear-and-tear arthritis
associated with aging

is a degenerative joint disease (characterized by wearing away fo articular cartilage within joints)

characterized by hypertrophy of bone and formation of osteophytes (bone spurs)

163
Q

Degeneration

A

breaking down or impairment of body part

164
Q

Spondylosis

A

spinal osteoarthritis

degenerative disorder causing loss of normal spinal structure and function

165
Q

Gout

A

gouty arthritis

characterized by deposits of uric acid crystals in the joints (beginning with the big toe)

joints turn warm, red ,and excruciatingly sensitive

166
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

a.k.a RA

a chronic autoimmune disorder in which joints and some organs of other body systems are attacked

attacks synovial membranes –> causing them to become inflamed and thickened –> the joints become swollen, painful, and immobile

167
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

form of RA that causes inflammation of the joints between the vertebrae

is a chronic inflammatory back disorder known as spondylarthropathies

168
Q

Juvenile RA

A

JRA

autoimmune disorder impacting those 16 or younger
symptoms: stiffness, pain, joint swelling, skin rash, fever, slowed growth, fatigue

most children ougrow it

169
Q

Herniated Disk

A

a.k.a slipped or ruptured disk

breaking apart of intervertebral disk resulting in pressure on spinal nerve roots

170
Q

Lumbago

A

a.k.a low back pain

pain of lumbar region of the spine

171
Q

Ago

A

diseased condition

172
Q

Spondylolisthesis

A

forward slipping movement of the body of one of the lower lumbar vertebrae onto the vertebrab or sacrum below it

173
Q

Listhesis

A

slipping

174
Q

Spina Bifida

A

spinal canal fails to close completely around the spinal cord to protect it

due to

  • a congenital defect that occurs during early pregnancy
  • lack of nutrient folic acid during early stages of pregnancy
175
Q

Bifida

A

split

176
Q

Kyphosis

A

abnormal increase in the outward curvature of the thoracic spine fro ma side-view

associated with aging
a.k.a humpback or dowager’s hump

177
Q

Kyph

A

hump

178
Q

Lordosis

A

abnormal increase in the forward curvature of the lumbar spine

a.k.a swayback

179
Q

Lord

A

bent backwards

180
Q

Scoliosis

A

abnormal lateral (sideways) curvature of the spine

181
Q

Scoli

A

curved

182
Q

Avascular Necrosis

A

a.k.a osteonecrosis

area of bone tissue death caused by insufficient blood flow
commonly occurs in the hip joint, requiring hip replacement

183
Q

Craniostenosis

A

malformation of the skull due to premature closure of cranial sutures

184
Q

Osteitis

A

a.k.a ostitis

inflammation of a bone

185
Q

Osteomalacia

A

a.k.a adult rickets

abnormal softening of bone in adults
due to lack of vitamin D, calcium, phosphate

186
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

inflammation of bone marrow and adjacent bone

caused by a bacterial infection that originates in another part of the body and spreads to bone via blood

187
Q

Paget’s Disease

A

chronic bone disease of unknown cause (idiopathic)
named after Sir James Paget

characterized by the abnormal breakdown of bone (in the pelvis, skull, spine and legs) and abnormal bone formation

the new bone is structurally enlarged, misshapen, and weak

188
Q

Periostitis

A

inflammation of the periosteum

associated with shin splints

189
Q

Rickets

A

deficiency disease occurring in children
characterized by defective bone growth due to a lack of vitamin D (which is necessary to maintain calcium and phosphate levels)

uncommon in the US with increasing incidence

190
Q

Short Stature

A

a.k.a dwarfism

condition resulting from the failure of the bones of the limbs to grow to an appropriate length compared to the size of the head and trunk
- caused by over 200 conditions

must be 4’10 or shorter
called little people

191
Q

Talipes

A

a.k.a clubfoot

any congenital deformity of the foot involving the talus

192
Q

Primary bone cancer

A

rare malignant tumor originating in the bone

Example: Ewing’s sarcoma
= tumor occurring in bones of the upper arm, leg, pelvis, or rib
= peak incidence is 10 to 20 years of age

193
Q

Malignant

A

becoming progressively worse or life threatening

194
Q

Secondary Bone Cancer

A

describes tumors that have metastasized to bones from other organs (breasts and lungs)

195
Q

Myeloma

A

type of cancer occuring in blood-making cells of red bone marrow
causes pathologic fractures and is fatal

196
Q

Myeloma

A

type of cancer occuring in blood-making cells of red bone marrow
causes pathologic fractures and is fatal Myel

196
Q

Myeloma

A

type of cancer occuring in blood-making cells of red bone marrow
causes pathologic fractures and is fatal

196
Q

Myeloma

A

type of cancer occuring in blood-making cells of red bone marrow
causes pathologic fractures and is fatal Myelbone marrow

196
Q

Myeloma

A

type of cancer occuring in blood-making cells of red bone marrow
causes pathologic fractures and is fatal Myelbone marrow Osteochondroma

197
Q

Osteochondroma

A

benign bony projection covered with cartilage

is a type of tumor called exotosis

198
Q

Benign

A

non life threatening

does not re-occur

199
Q

Osteoporosis

A

marked loss of bone density
increase in bone porosity

associated iwth aging

200
Q

Por

A

small opening

201
Q

Osteopenia

A

thinner-than-average bone density
does not have osteoporosis but is at a greater-than-average risk of developing it

risk factors: aging, smoking, drinking, a lack of calcium in the skin
risk group: young women who do not consume enough calories

202
Q

Osteoporosis fractures

A

Compression
Colle’s fracture
Osteoporotic hip fracture

203
Q

Compression Fracture

A

a.k.a vertebral risk fracture
bone is pressed together or compressed on itself

due to

  1. spontaneous collapse of weakened vertebrae
  2. injury

results in

  1. pain
  2. loss of height
  3. spinal curvature known as kyphosis
204
Q

Colle’s Fracture

A

named for Irish surgeon Abraham Colles

a.k.a fractured wrist

at the lower end of the radius when a person tries to stop a fall by landing on his or her hands.

205
Q

Osteoporotic Hip Fracture

A

a.k.a broken hip

caused by weakening of bones due to osteoporosis.
may occur spontaneously or due to fall

complications include

  1. loss of function
  2. loss of mobility
  3. loss inf independence
  4. death
206
Q

Osteoporotic

A

pertaining to or caused by porous condition of bones

207
Q

Fracture

A

a.k.a broken bone

described in terms of complexity

208
Q

What are the types of fractures?

A
  1. closed
  2. open
  3. comminuted
  4. greenstick
  5. oblique
  6. pathologic
  7. spiral
  8. stress
  9. transverse
209
Q

Closed Fracture

A

a.k.a simple fracture or complete fracture

bone is broken but there is no open wound in the skin

210
Q

Open Fracture

A

a.k.a compound fracture

bone is broken and there is an open wound in the skin

211
Q

Comminuted Fracture

A

bone is splintered or crushed

212
Q

Comminuted

A

crushed into small pieces

213
Q

Greenstick Fracture

A

a.k.a incomplete fracture
bone is bent and partially broken
common in children

214
Q

Oblique Fracture

A

occur at angle across bone

215
Q

Pathologic Fracture

A

weakened bone breaks under normal strain

due to bones being weakened by osteoporosis OR disease process such as cancer

216
Q

Spiral Fracture

A

bone has been twisted apart

occurs as a result of a severe twisting motion (sports injury)

217
Q

Stress Fracture

A

overuse injury

small crack in the bone due to chronic, excess impact

218
Q

Transverse Fracture

A

straight across the bone

219
Q

Fat Embolus

A

forms when a long bone is fractured and fat from yellow bone marrow is released into the bloodstream

220
Q

Embolus

A

foreign matter circulating in the blood that can become lodged and block the blood vessel

221
Q

Crepitation

A

a.k.a crepitus

grating sound heard when ends of a broken bone move together

222
Q

Crepitation (other meaning)

A

any unusual crackling sound or sensation within the body

describes the popping or clicking sound heard in movement of some joints

223
Q

Callus

A

forms when bone heals
a bulging deposit around the area of the break
this tissue eventually becomes bone

224
Q

Callus (other meaning)

A

thickening of skin caused by repeated rubbing

225
Q

Radiograph

A

a.k.a x-ray
use of x-radiation to visualize bone fractures and abnormalities

done on children to determine the age of bone growth –> which can diagnose a growth problem

226
Q

Arthroscopy

A

visual examination of the internal structure of a joint with an arthroscope

227
Q

Bone Marrow Biopsy

A

diagnostic test used after abnormal types or numbers of red or white blood cells are found in a CBC test

228
Q

Bone Marrow Aspiration

A

use of syringe to withdraw tissue from red bone marrow
used to
1. obtain tissue for diagnostic purpose
2. collect bone marrow for medical procedure (stem cell transplant)

229
Q

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

A

image soft tissue structures such as the interior of a complex joint
not as effective with hard tissues (bone)

230
Q

What are two additional bone diagnostic procedures?

A

Bone Scan

Arthrocentesis

231
Q

What are 2 Bone Density Testing procedures?

A

Ultrasonic Bone Density Testing

Dual X-ray Absorptiometry

232
Q

Bone Density Testing (BDT)

A

determine loss or change in bone density

used to diagnose conditions including osteoporosis, osteomalacia, osteopenia, and Paget’s disease

233
Q

Ultrasonic Bone Density Testing

A

screening test for osteoporosis or conditions that cause loss of bone mass

sound waves are used to take measurements of the calcaneus (heel) bone. If the results indicate risk, definitive testing is recommended

234
Q

Dual X-ray Absorptiometry (DXA)

A

low exposure radiographic measurement of spine and hips to measure bone density
more accurate than ultrasonic bone density testing

235
Q

Bone Marrow Transplant (BMT)

A

treat certain type sof cancers (leukemia and lymphoma) which affect bone marrow

  1. bone cancer and bone marrow are destroyed with high-intesnity radiation and chemotherapy
  2. healthy bone marrow stem cells are transferred to recipient
  3. The bone marrow stem cells migrate to spongy bone and multiply to form cancer-free red bone marrow
  4. They eventually develop into blood cells
236
Q

Allogenic Bone Marrow Transplant

A

Use healthy bone marrow cells from acompatible donor (sibling)

Danger of rejection of transplant unless perfect match

237
Q

Allogenic

A

originating within other

238
Q

Autologous Bone Marrow Transplant

A

patient receives his or her own bone marrow cells which have been harvested, cleaned, treated, and stored before the remaining bone marrow is destroyed

239
Q

Autologous

A

originating within an indiviudal

240
Q

Orthotic

A

mechanical appliance designed to control, correct, or compensate for impaired limb function

Example:
shoe insert
leg brace
splint

241
Q

Prosthesis

A

substitute for diseased or missing body part

Example: leg that has been amputated

242
Q

Arthrodesis

A

a.k.a surgical anklyosis

surgical fusion of two bones to stiffen a joint (ankle, elbow, or shoulder)
to treat severe arthritis or a damaged joint

243
Q

Desis

A

to bind

244
Q

Arthrolysis

A

surgical looosening of an anklyosed joint

245
Q

Lysis

A
  1. loosening or setting free
  2. breaking down or destruction
  3. indicate pathologic state or therapeutic procedure
246
Q

Arthroscopic Surgery

A

minimally invasive procedure for the treatment of interior of a joint

Example: torn cartilage can be removed with an arthroscope and instrument inserted through small incisions

247
Q

Chondroplasty

A

surgical repair of a damaged cartilage

248
Q

Synovectomy

A

surgical removal of a synovial membrane from a joint
performed endoscopically

Example: repair joint damage due to rheumatoid arthritis

249
Q

Arthroplasty

A

Surgical repair of a damaged joint (medical meaning)
Surgical placement of artifical joint (actual meaning)

procedures are named for involved joint and the amount f joint that is replaced

250
Q

Implant

A

the joint replacement part that is a prosthesis

251
Q

Name the types of Arthroplasty

A 
Total Knee Replacement 
Partial Knee Replacement 
Total Hip Replaement 
Hip Resurfacing 
Revision Surgery
252
Q

Total Knee Replacement

A

a.k.a TKR or total knee arthroplasty

all parts of knee are replaced

253
Q

Partial Knee Replacement

A

a.k.a PKR

describe a procedure in which part of the knee is replaced

254
Q

Total Hip Replacement

A

a.k.a THR or total hip arthroplasty

performed to restore a damaged hip to full function

  1. lasting lining is fitted into acetabulum to restore smooth surface
  2. head of femur is removed and replaced with a metal ball attached to a metal shaft (that is fitted into the femur0
  3. these smooth surfaces restore hip joint function
255
Q

Hip Resurfacing

A

alternative to removing the femur in a THr

femur is restored to the hop by placing a metal cap over the head of the femur
–> this allows for it to move smoothly over a metal lining in the acetabulum

256
Q

Revision Surgery

A

replacement of a worn or failed implant

257
Q

What are the spinal column treatment procedures

A

Percutaneous Diskectomy
Percutaneous Vertebroplasty
Laminectomy
Spinal Fusion

258
Q

Percutaneous Diskectomy

A

performed to treat herniated intervertebral disk

thin tube is inserted through the skin of the back to suction out the ruptured disk or vaporize it with a laser

259
Q

Percutaneous

A

performed through the skin

260
Q

Percutaneous Vertebroplasty

A

performed to treat osteoporosis-related compression fractures

minimally invasive procedure in which bone cement is injected to stabilize compression fractures within the spinal column

261
Q

Laminectomy

A

surgical removal of a lamina or posterior portion of vertebra

262
Q

Spinal Fusion

A

technique to immobilize part of the spine by fusing two or more vertebrae

263
Q

What are the 8 bone treatment procedures?

A 
Craniectomy 
Craniotomy 
Cranioplasty 
Oteoclasis 
Ostectomy 
Osteorraphy 
Osteotomy
Periosteotomy
264
Q

Craniectomy

A

surgical removal of a portion of the skull

performed to treat craniostenosis or to relieve increased intracranial pressure due to swelling of brain

265
Q

Intracranial Pressure

A

amount of pressure in the skull

266
Q

Craniotomy

A

surgical incision or opening into the skull

to gain access to the brain to remove a tumor, relieve intracranial pressure, or obtain access for other surgical procedures

267
Q

Craniplasty

A

surgical repair of the skull

268
Q

Osteoclasis

A

surgical fracture of a bone to correct a deformity

269
Q

Clasis

A

to break

270
Q

Ostectomy

A

surgical removal of a bone

271
Q

Osteorraphy

A

surgical suturing or wiring together of bones

272
Q

Osteotomy

A

surgical cutting of a bone

through removing part or all of a bone
OR cutting into/through a bone

273
Q

Periosteotomy

A

an incision through the periosteum to the bone

274
Q

Closed reduction

A

a.k.a manipulation
attempted realignment of the bone involved in a fracture or joint dislocation

the affected bone is returned to normal anatomic alignment by the manually applied force, and is immobilized to maintain the realigned position during healing

275
Q

Open Reduction

A

realigns the bone parts

used when closed reduction is not practical, and surgical procedure is needed

276
Q

Immbolization

A

a.k.a stabilization

act of holding, suturing, fastening the bone in a fixed position with strapping or a cast

277
Q

Traction

A

pulling force exerted on a limb in the distal direction to return the bone or joint to normal alignment

278
Q

External Fixation

A

fracture treatment procedure
pins are placed through the soft tissue and bone so that an external appliance will hold the bone firmly in place during healing

appliance is removed after healing is complete

279
Q

Internal Fixation

A

a.k.a open reduction internal fixation or ORIF

fracture treatment procedure
plate or pins are placed directly into the bone to hold the pieces in place

not removed after the fracture after healing

280
Q

BDT

A

bone density testing

281
Q

CR

A

closed reduction

282
Q

Fx

A

fracture

283
Q

OA

A

osteoarthritis

284
Q

OP

A

osteoporosis

285
Q

PKR

A

partial knee replacement

286
Q

PMR

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

287
Q

RA

A

rheumatoid arthritis

288
Q

THA

A

total hip arthroplasty

289
Q

TKA

A

total knee arthroplasty

med term (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions