chapter 9 oral manifestations of systemic diseases Flashcards

1
Q

excess hormone production by the anterior pituitary; caused by pituitary adenoma;

A

hyperpituitarism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

____ results if it hyperpituitary occurs before the closure of long bones

A

gigantism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

results when hypersecretion(hyperpituitarism) occurs during adult life

A

acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

poor vision, light sensitivity, enlargement of hands and feet, increase in rib size

A

hyperpituiarism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

enlargement of maxilla and mandible could cause separation of teeth and malocclusion; frontal bossing, enlagement of nasal bones may lead to deepening of voice

A

hyperpituitarism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

thickened lips and macroglossia

A

hyperpituitarism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

common cause is graves disease-autoimmune disorder in which a substance is produced that abnormally stimulates thyroid gland; other causes: hyperplasia of the gland, benign and malignant tumors of thyroid, pituitary gland disease , metastatic tumor

A

hyperthyroidism(thyrotoxicosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

rosy complexion, erythema of palms, excessive sweating, fine hair, softened nails; exophthalmos; anxiety, weakness, restlessness, and cardiac problems

A

hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

premature exfoliation of deciduous teeth in children and premature eruption of permanent teeth; osteoporosis; caries and perio develop rapidly; burning tongue

A

hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a decreased output of thyroid hormone causes developmental disturbances, autoimmune disease, iodine deficiency, drugs, and pituitary disease

A

hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

when hypothy occurs in infancy and childhood

A

cretinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when hypothy occurs in older children and adults

A

myxedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

in infants, thickened lips, enlarged tongue, delayed eruption of teeth
adults: enlarged tongue

A

hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

increases the uptake of dietary calcium from the gi tract and is able to move calcium from bone to circulating blood when necessary

A

parathyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia

A

hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

may have join stiffness and pain; lethargy and coma with severe disease; loss of lamina dura, mottled bone;

radiolucencies; appear to be central giant cell
bone may have mottled appearance and loss of lamina dura

A

hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

brown tumor

A

hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

caused by rapid osteoclastic activity due to hyperparathyroidism, resulting in a local destructive phenomenon ; ends of long bones, pelvis and ribs, mandible

A

brown tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

______ is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

kidney failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

bones, stones, abdominal groans, psychic moans and fatigue overtones

A

hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

a chronic disorder of carb metabolism characterized by abnormally high blood glucose levels

A

diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

a severe hyperglycemia can lead to

A

diabetic coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ketone can be produced by the breakdown of

A

fatty acids- ketoacidosis lowers ph of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

dark, thick, velvety skin in body folds and creases

A

acanthosis nigricans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

thought to be autoimmune disease; insulin producing cells of pancreas are destroyed; 3-5% of all diabetic patients have this type;

A

insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

acute onset with polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia; require insulin all their lives

A

insulin dependent diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

low insulin can lead to

A

ketoacidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

insulin resistance, 95% of all diabetic patients have this type of diabetes; obese; patients 35 to 40 years of age or older

A

non insulin dependent diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

___ decreases the number of receptors for insulin binding in sensitive tissues like fat or muscle

A

obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

atherosclerosis, ulceration and gangrene; retinopathy

A

non insulin dependent diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

candidiasis, mucormycosis

A

non insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

bilateral parotid gland enlargement, xerostomia, accentuated response to plaque; slow wound healing; hyperplastic and erythematous gingiva; periodontal breakdown; very high levels of pro-inflammatory mediators

A

diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

this test is used to assess and monitor blood glucose levels over a 3 month period; patients need a goal of less than 6.5% to cut long term complications of diabets

A

hba1c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

primary adrenal cortical insufficiency; to compensate, pituitary gland increases production of acth

A

addison disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

acth causes stimulation of melanocytes; bronzing of the skin may occur, as well as melanotic macules on oral mucosa

A

addison disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

a reduction in the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood; most often related to decrease in number of rbc’s

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

a deficency in a substance required for the normal development of rbc commonly from vitamins

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

suppression of bone marrow stem cells

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

pallor of skin and oral mucosa, angular cheilitis, erythema and atrophy of oral mucosa; loss of filiform(1st) and then fungiform papillae

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

an insuficient amount of iron is supplied to bone marrow for red blood cell development

A

iron deficiency anema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

plummer vinson syndrome; dysphagia, atrophy of upper alimentary tract and predisposition of developing oral cancer; angular cheilitis, pallor, erythematous, smooth, painful tongue

A

iron defiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

low hemoglobin content and reduced hematocrit; rbc appear smaller than normal(microcytic) and light in color(hypochromic)

A

diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

autoimmune disease, caused by a defiency of intrinsic factor- secreted by parietal cells in stomach, necessary for absorption of vit b-12

A

pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

megaloblastic rbc; abnormally large and immature megaloblasts with nuclei; schilling test detects an inability to absorb oral b12

A

pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

dietary deficiencies; malnutrition; may be found with alcoholism or pregnancy; indistinguishable from pernious anemia

A

folic acid and vit b12 deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

meditarranean or cooly anemia

A

thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

group of inherited disorders of hemoglobin synthesis

A

thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

yellow skin, pallor, fever, malaise, and weakness; prominant cheek bones, depression of bridge of nose, or prominent maxilla and protrusion or flaring of maxillary anterior teeth

A

thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

salt and pepper patern

A

thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

rbc develop sickle shape when there is decreased o2; person has weakness, shortness of breath, fatigue, joint pain, and nausea

A

sickle cell anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

loss of trabeculation and large, irregular marrow spaces appear; hair on end pattern; trabeculae radiate outward

A

sickle cell anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

sensitivity to wheat gluten; injury to intestinal mucosa; malabsorption of nutrients resulting in anemia

A

celiac sprue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

diarrhea, nervousness, paresthesia; painful, burning tongue, atrophy of papillae, ulceration of oral mucosa

A

celiac sprue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

a severe depression of bone marrow activity causes a decrease in all circulating blood cells(pancytopenia); primary ____ cause is unknown; secondary is a result of a drug or chemical agent; leukopenia and thrombocytopenia

A

aplastic anemia

55
Q

infection, spontaneous bleeding, petechiae, and purpuric spots

A

aplastic anema

56
Q

increase in the number of circulating red blood cells (absolute or relative)

A

polycythemia

57
Q

a neoplastic proliferation of bone marrow stem cells causes an abnormally high number of circulating red blood cells; unknown cause; impaired blood flow, poor circulation; men; between age 40 and 60 is onset ; headache, dizziness, itching; thrombi

A

primary polycythemia(polycythemia vera)

58
Q

increase in rbc caused by physiological response to decreased oxygen– causes an increase in erythropoietin by kidneys, which increase rbc’s

may be due to pulmonary disease, heart disease, living at high altitude, or elevation in carbon monoxide

A

secondary polycythemia

59
Q

caused by a decrease in plasma volume; causes may include diuretics, vomiting, diarrhea, or excessive sweating;

A

relative polycythemia

60
Q

deep red to purple; gingiva may be edematous and bleed easily; submucosal petechiae, ecchymosis, and hematoma formation may be present

A

polycythemia

61
Q

disorders of wbc

A

agranulocytosis, cyclic neutropenia, leukemia

62
Q

a significant reduction in circulating neutrophils

A

agranulocytosis

63
Q

can result from a problem in development of neutrophils or accelerated destruction of neutrophils

A

agranulocytosis

64
Q

the cause is unknown, may be an immunological disorder

A

primary agranulocytosis

65
Q

a result of chemicals or drugs

A

secondary agranulocystosis

66
Q

sudden onset of fever, chils, jaundice(icterus), weakness, and sore throat

A

agranulocytosis

67
Q

what is normal wbc count

A

5,000-10,000

68
Q

reduction in wbc with agranulocytosis

A

1,000

69
Q

a cyclic decrease in the number of circulating neutrophilic leukocytes

A

cyclic neutropenia

70
Q

malignant neoplasms of hematopoietic stem cells; excessive number of abnormal white blood cells in circulating blood

A

leukemia

71
Q

onset is sudden; very immature cells(blast cells) and a rapidly fatal course if not treated;

A

acute leukemias

72
Q

involves immature lymphocytes primarily affects children and young adults; good prognosis

A

acute lymphoblastic leukemia

73
Q

involves immature granulocytes; primarily affects adolescents and young adults; not as good prognosis

A

acute myeloblastic leukemia

74
Q

weakness, fever, enlargement of lymph nodes, and bleeding; general loss of cells produced by the bone marrow occurs; gingival enlargement; anug; bleeding gums, petechiae, and ecchymosis

A

acute leukemias

75
Q

laboratory findings include elevated white blood cell count , anemia, and low platelet count

A

acute leukemias

76
Q

slow onset(primarily affects adults); easy fatigability, weakness, weight loss, anorexia; pallor of lips and gingiva, gingival enlargement, petechiae, ecchymosis, gingival bleeding, and atypical perio disease

A

chronic leukemia

77
Q

a cancer of blood forming organs that is characterized by rapid growth of immature white blood cells

A

leukemia

78
Q

hemorrhage, ulceration, gingival enlargement, spongy texture, and MAGENTA COLORATION OF GINGIVA; enlargement of lymph nodes, symptoms of anemia

A

leukemia

79
Q

bleeding disorders

A

hemostasis, purpura, hemophilia

80
Q

pinpoint

A

petechiae

81
Q

up to one cm

A

purpura

82
Q

> 1cm

A

ecchymosis

83
Q

this is a deep bleed/brown to black in color due to the blood clotting

A

hematoma

84
Q

blood vessel is damaged; vasoconstriction of vessels occurs in an attempt to stop the flow of blood; platelets adhere to damaged surface and aggregate to form a temporary clot, fibrin must be produced to bind the platelets and stop the bleeding permanently; fibrin is converted to fibrinogen by a cascade of circulating proteins called clotting factors or coagulation factors; this helps form the final clot

A

hemostasis

85
Q

cessation of bleeding

A

hemostasis

86
Q

defects may be caused by abnormalities of either platelets of coagulation factors

A

hemostasis

87
Q

to determine the number of platelets

A

platelet count

88
Q

normal platelet count

A

150,000 to 400,000

89
Q

spontaneous gingival bleeding may occur if the count if less than

A

20,000

90
Q

platelet count less than 100,000

A

thrombocytopenia

91
Q

bleeding time

A

1-6 min

92
Q

prothrombin time

A

11-16 secs

93
Q

partial thromboplastin time

A

25-40 secs

94
Q

measures the adequacy of platelet function, not platelet number; how long it takes to form a temporary clot

A

bleeding time

95
Q

measures the patient’s ability to form a final clot through the extrinsic pathway; calcium and a tissue factor are added to the patients plasma

A

prothrombin time(PT)

96
Q

the ratio of PT to thromboplastin activity; this is a more accurate and standardized expression for the determination of PT

A

inr- international normalized ratio

97
Q

normal is usually between 11 and 16 secs

A

prothrombin time

98
Q

measures the patients ability to form a final clot through the intrinsic pathway; addition of kaolin and cephalin to the patients plasma

A

partial thromboplastin time(PTT)

99
Q

values less than 3 are considered normal; patients on anticoags may have __ values of 4 to 5

A

inr values; PT

100
Q

measures the other way by which clot formation occurs; prolongation to 45 to 50 secs may be associated with bleeding problems; over 50 secs may be severe

A

partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

101
Q

a reddish blue or purplish discoloration of skin or mucosa from spontaneous extravasation of bleed; may be due to a defect or deficiency in blood platelets; blood may ooze from gingival margins

A

purpura

102
Q

a bleeding disorder that results from a severe reduction in circulating platelets

A

thrombocytopenia purpura

103
Q

cause is unknown

A

idiopathic throm purpura

104
Q

an autoimmune type process;

A

immune thrombo

105
Q

often associated with drugs

A

secondary thrombo purpura

106
Q

spontaneous purpuric or hemorrhagic lesions on the skin; patients may bruise easily, may have blood in urine and have frequent nosebleeds

A

thrombocytopenia purpura

107
Q

spontaneous bleeding occurs when platelets fall to less than

A

20,000

108
Q

bleeding disorders that can result from either a defect in capillary walls or disorders of platelet function; vit C deficiency and infections or chemicals and allergy may be the cause of alterations in vascular walls; drugs, allergy, and autoimmune diseases may cause disorders of platelet function(aspirin and ibuprofen)

A

nonthrombocytopenic purpura

109
Q

an autosomal dominant disorder of platelet function

A

von williebrand disease

110
Q

spontaneous gingival bleeding, petechiae, ecchymosis, and hemorrhagic blisters- same as tp; platelet count is NORMAL; bleeding time is prolonged

A

nonthrombocytopenic purpura

111
Q

disorder of blood coagulation; results in severely prolonged clotting time; due to deficiency in plasma proteins involved in coagulation; therefore, patients cannot produce fibrin

A

hemophilia

112
Q

caused by a deficiency of plasma thromboplastinogen or factor VII

A

TYPE a hemophilia

113
Q

christmas disease; less common, the clotting defect is plasma thromboplastin or factor IX

A

type b hemophilia

114
Q

spontaneous gingival bleeding, petechiae, and ecchymosis(x linked recessive diseases

A

hemophilia

115
Q

the bleeding time and PT in hemophilia are

A

normal

116
Q

what is prolonged in hemophilia

A

PTT IS PROLONGED

117
Q

susceptible to bacterial infections; B cell or antibody

A

humoral response deficiency

118
Q

susceptible to viral, fungal infections and tuberculosis; t cell

A

cell mediated response deficiency

119
Q

of genetic origin; very rare(bruton disease, digeorge syndrome, severe combined immunodeficiency)

A

primary immunodeficiencies

120
Q

occurs as a result of an underlying disorder; malnutrition, viral infection, cancer, renal disease, and hodgkins disease; may occur with immunosuppressive drugs, drugs used along with radiation, chemotherapy

A

secondary immunodeficiencies

121
Q

prevention of rejection of renal transplants; treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

A

azathioprine

122
Q

prevention of rejection of renal transplants

A

cyclosporine

123
Q

cancer therapy

A

cyclophosphamide, methotrexate

124
Q

treatment of autoimmune disease(rheumatoid arthritis, pemphigus vulgaris, behcet syndrome, lupus erythematosus)

A

prednisone

125
Q

begins about the second week of therapy and subsides a few weeks after its completion; painful and appears as an erythematous and ulcerated mucosa; patients may have difficulty eating, pain on swallowing, and loss of taste

A

mucositis

126
Q

destruction of major salivary glands may result in

A

xerostomia in radiation therapy

127
Q

necrosis of the bone is site of radiation injury, because of decreased blood supply to bone; more common in mandible; potential sources of infection must be eliminated before initiating radiation therapy

A

osteoradionecrosis involving the mandible

128
Q

drugs used for cancer chemotherapy affect ___ cells of epithelium

A

basal

129
Q

mucositis, and oral ulceration; and decrease in all blood cells may occur(rbc-anemia, wbc- infections, platelets-bleeding problems)

A

chemotherapy

130
Q

suppresses the immune system and can lead to candidiasis and oral infections; antibiotics may increase risk of candidiasis

A

prednisone

131
Q

blood pressure drugs, antianxiety drugs, antipsychotic medications, and antihistamines can cause

A

xerostomia

132
Q

can cause tooth discoloration

A

tetracycline

133
Q

can cause gingival enlargement

A

phenytoin(dilantin-seizure meds), nifedipine(procardia), and cyclosporine-decrease immune system for transplants