Chapter 9: Immunnodiagnostics Flashcards

1
Q

Meaning of allotype? (Examples)

A

an allelic difference in the same ab isotypes that differ between people (subtle difference amongst individuals in their immunoglobulins due to heterogeneity)

(a person receiving pooled gamma globulins might react to these allotypic differences in the constant regions which may result in a type III HSR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If an ab molecule is digested with papain, where does cleavage occur?

A

above the disulfide bonds that hold the heavy chains together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

General function of Papain and Pepsin.

A

proteolytic enzymes that aid in digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If an ab molecule is digested with pepsin where does cleavage occur?

A

generates one large fragment called F(ab’)2 and digested Fc fragment (think Pepsi in martini glass)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe this figure

A
  1. Start of infection the patient is in a state of ag excess
  2. As patient begins to make an adequate ab response, he enters equivalence zone; all available ag is complexed with ab, and neither free ag nor free ab can be detected in serum (zone of equivalence)
  3. Infection is resolved, patient enters ab excess zone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe polyclonal antiserum.

A

It is generally produced in an individual naturally and represents many different clones of B cells that are making ab to many different epitopes on an ag; therefore a heterogenous complex mixture of ab is produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe monoclonal ab.

A

produced by one clone of B cells with specificity for the exact same epitope on an ag. They are produced in the lab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Compare and contrast direct vs indirect serologic testing.

A

Direct serologic testing utilizes a known antiserum in order to detect an unknown ag, either foreign or self (they are qualitative and provide results relatively quickly)

Indirect serologic tests utilize ab from the patient that may be specific for either self or foreign ag (may be qualitative or quantitative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which is more specific owing to fewer false-positives? Direct or indirect serologic test?

A

indirect tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe agglutination test.

A

a variation on precipitation reactions.

Ag is a particulate ag such as RBCs or latex beads. Both will clump up to form a lattice of ab-bound particles in the presences of appropriate ab.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are latex bead agglutination tests available for the diagnosis of?

A

cerebrospinal infections such as Haemophilus, pneumococcus, meningococcus, and Cryptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

RBC agglutination reactions are important in what cases?

A

defining ABO blood groups, diagnosing EBV infection (the monospot test), and identifying Coombs test for Rh incompatibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Direct Coombs test

A

designed to identify maternal anti-Rh ab that are already bound to infant RBCs or antibodies bound to RBCs in patients with autoimmune hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Indirect Coombs test.

A

designed to identify Rh- negative mothers who are producing anti Rh ab of the IgG isotype, which may be transferred across the placenta harming Rh- positive fetuses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of graft rejection is caused by ABO incomaptibility?

A

hyperacute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe what the ABO blood groups are?

A

group of glycoprotein molecules expressed on the surface of erythrocytes and endothelial cells

17
Q

DFA stands for what?

A

direct fluorescent antibody test

18
Q

What is DFA used for?

A

used to detect and localize ag in the patient

19
Q

How is DFA used?

A

tissue sample is treated with ab against that particular ag that have been labeled with a fluorescent dye.

If ag is present in the tissues, the fluorescent-labeled ab will bind, and their binding can be detected with a microscope

20
Q

What does IFA stand for?

A

indirect fluorescent antibody test

21
Q

How is IFA used?

A

to detect pathogen-specific ab in the patient

22
Q

Describe the steps in utilization of IFA? Example of main use of this diagnostic tool?

A

a laboratory-generated sample of infected tissue is mixed with serum from the patient. A fluorescent labeled anti-immunoglobulin is then added.

If binding of ab from patient to the tissue sample occurs, then the fluorescent ab can be bound and detected by microscopy.

can be used to detect autoantibodies in autoimmune diseases

23
Q

ELISA stands for what?

A

enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

24
Q

How is ELISA performed for HIV testing?

A

ELISA is used with the p24 capsid ag you insert onto microtiter plates.

The serum from the patient is then added followed by addition of an enzyme labeled antihuman immunoglobulin.

Finally the chromogenic substrate is added and the production of a color change in the well can be observed

25
Q

Anti-human immunoglobulin is added from a rabbit to a test tube which contains a newborn’s RhD+ RBCs covered with maternal anti-Rh antibodies; the result agglutinates the newborn’s red cells. This is an example of which of the following?

A. ELISA test
B. Latex bead agglutination test
C. Direct Coombs test
D. Indirect Coombs test
E. Direct fluorescent antibody test

A

C. Direct Coombs test

26
Q

What does FACS stand for?

A

fluorescence activated cell sorting

27
Q

How is FACS performed?

A

by using ab against cell-surface markers conjugated to different fluorescent dyes, it is possible to analyze the relative numbers of cells present in a specific tissue location

28
Q

Be able to decipher what these different flow cytometric analysis charts mean.

A

last chart switch 2 and 3