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Radiologic Pathology > Chapter 8 Nervous System > Flashcards

Chapter 8 Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

The central nervous system is composed of the:
a) spinal nerves and ganglia.
b) brain and spinal cord.
c) brain and cranial nerves.
d) spinal cord and spinal nerves.

A

Brain and spinal cord

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2
Q

Which of the following are components of the central nervous system?
a) Brain and spinal cord
b) Spinal cord and twelve pairs of cranial nerves
c) Brain and twelve pairs of cranial nerves
d) Brain

A

Brain and spinal cord

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3
Q

Which of the following are components of the peripheral nervous system?
a) Spinal cord
b) Thirty-one pairs of spinal nerves
c) Thirty-one pairs of spinal nerves and Autonomic nerves
d) Spinal cord and autonomic nerves

A

Thirty-one pairs of spinal nerves and Automatic nerves

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4
Q

Which of the following supplies the striated skeletal muscles?
a) Meningeal cranial nerve
b) Hypoglossal cranial nerve
c) Autonomic nervous system
d) Somatic nervous system

A

Somatic nervous system

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5
Q

The smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular epithelial tissue are controlled by the:
a. olfactory cranial nerve.
b. vagus cranial nerve.
c. autonomic nervous system.
d. somatic nervous system.

A

Autonomic nervous system

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6
Q

The basic unit of the nervous system is the:
a) neuron.
b) glioma.
c) meningi.
d) corpus callosum.

A

Neuron

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7
Q

What is the myelin sheath?
a) The basic unit of the nervous system
b) The innermost layer of the protective covering of the CNS
c) A fatty insulation covering of the axon
d) A long, threadlike extension of the nerve cell

A

A fatty insulation covering of the axon

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8
Q

Deterioration of the myelin sheath is a characteristic abnormality of:
a) meningitis.
b) neoplasm.
c) osteomyelitis.
d) multiple sclerosis.

A

Multiple sclerosis

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9
Q

The largest part of the brain is the:
a) cerebellum
b) cerebrum
c) medulla
d) pons

A

Cerebrum

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10
Q

Which portion of the brain lies between the cerebrum and the spinal cord?
a) Brainstem
b) Cerebellum
c) Basal ganglia
d) Diencephalon

A

Brainstem

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11
Q

What are the basal ganglia?
a) The portion of the brain between the cerebrum and the spinal cord
b) The portion of the brain between the cerebrum and the midbrain
c) Islands of gray matter deep within the white matter of the cerebrum
d) Islands of white matter deep within the gray matter of the cerebellum

A

Islands of gray matter deep within the white matter of the cerebrum

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12
Q

Which of the following are parts of the basal ganglia? a) Globus pallidus
b) Caudate nuclei
c) Putamen
d) Globus pallidus, caudate nuclei, and putamen

A

Globus pallidus, caudate nuclei, and putamen

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13
Q

The midbrain consists of the:
a) pons and medulla.
b) brain and spinal cord.
c) cerebrum and corpus callosum.
d) thalamus and hypothalamus.

A

Pons and medulla

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14
Q

Which portion of the brain lies between the cerebrum and the midbrain?
a) Brainstem
b) Diencephalon
c) Corpus callosum
d) Choroid plexus

A

Diencephalon

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15
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?
a) A link between mind and body and is the reward center for primary devices
b) Coordinates skeletal muscles to maintain equilibrium and balance
c) To control position and automatic movements
d) A relay station that receives sensory impulses before sending them to the cerebral cortex

A

A relay station that receives sensory impulses before sending them to the cerebral cortex

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16
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?
a) To control position and automatic
movements
b) A link between mind and body and is the reward center for primary drives
c) Coordinates skeletal muscles to maintain equilibrium and balance
d) Center of control for nonvital functions, such as coughing, sneezing, hiccupping, etc.

A

Coordinates skeletal muscles to maintain equilibrium and balance

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17
Q

The inner protective layer of the central nervous system is composed of three layers. The tough, outermost covering is called the:
a) dura mater
b) arachnoid membrane
c) pia mater
d) myelin sheath

A

Dura mater

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18
Q

Which of the following is an extension of the dura mater that projects downward into the longitudinal fissure to separate the cerebral hemispheres?
a. Tentorium cerebelli
b. Tentorium cerebri
c. Falx cerebelli
d. Falx cerebri

A

Falx cerebri

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19
Q

What is the function of the tentorium cerebelli?
a) Separate the cerebral hemispheres.
b) Separate the cerebellar hemispheres.
c) Separate the cerebral occipital lobe from the cerebellum.
d) Separate the cerebellum from the temporal lobes of the cerebrum.

A

Separate the cerebral occipital lobe from the cerebellum

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20
Q

The ventricles of the brain are filled with:
a) air.
b) cerebrospinal fluid.
c) blood.
d) lymph.

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

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21
Q

Where is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) formed?
a) In the meninges
b) In the diploë of the skull
c) In the corpus callosum
d) In the choroid plexus

A

In the choroid plexus

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22
Q

Networks of capillaries in the ventricles that form CSF are known as:
a) choroid plexuses.
b) meninges.
c) diploë.
d) falx cerebri.

A

Choroid plexuses

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23
Q

What is the function of the arachnoid villi?
a) Separate the cerebellar hemispheres.
b) Protect the CNS.
c) Absorption of CSF into venous blood.
d) Secrete CSF

A

Absorption of CSF into venous blood

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24
Q

An acute inflammation of the pia mater and arachnoid is called:
a) encephalitis.
b) meningitis.
c) subdural empyema.
d) supradural empyema.

A

Meningitis

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25
Q

A brain abscess is usually the result of a:
a) trauma.
b) osteomyelitis.
c) herpes simplex virus.
d) chronic infection of sinuses, middle ear, or mastoids or systemic infection (i.e., pneumonia).

A

chronic infection of sinuses, middle ear, or mastoids or systemic infection (i.e., pneumonia).

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26
Q

What is the most common cause of a subdural empyema?
a) Spread of infection from frontal or
ethmoid sinuses
b) Osteomyelitis
c) Herpes simplex virus
d) Scalp infection

A

Spread of infection from frontal or ethmoid sinuses

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27
Q

What is the most common primary malignant brain tumor?
a) Dendroma
b) Glioma
c) Acoustic neuroma
d) Meningioma

A

Glioma

28
Q

Which of the following types of gliomas are slow growing and tend to calcify?
a) Astrocytomas
b) Glioblastomas
c) Medulloblastomas
d) Oligodendrocytomas

A

Oligodendrocytomas

29
Q

Which of the following is the most common type of glioma?
a) Oligodendrocytoma
b) Glioblastoma multiforme
c) Astrocytoma
d) Ependymoma

A

Astrocytoma

30
Q

Which of the following is a slow-growingm benign tumor that occurs on the eigth cranial nerve?
a) Acoustic neuroma
b) Pineal tumor
c) Glioblastoma
d) Oligodendrocytoma

A

Acoustic neuroma

31
Q

What are the most common primary malignancies that metastasize to the brain?
a) Liver and lung
b) Prostate and breast
c) Pancreas and kidneys
d) Lung and breast

A

Lung and breast

32
Q

Which of the following is the primary imaging modality used to examine head injuries (trauma)?
a. Radiography
b. CT
c. MRI
d. Ultrasound

A

CT

33
Q

Which of the following is caused by arterial bleeding in the cranium?
a) Epidural hematoma
b) Subdural hematoma
c) Intraventricular hemorrhage
d) Subcerebellar hemorrhage

A

Epidural hematoma

34
Q

Which of the following is caused by venous bleeding in the cranium?
a) Intracerebral hematoma
b) Medullocerebellar hematoma
c) Subdural hematoma
d) Epidural hematoma

A

Subdural hematoma

35
Q

What is the most common facial bone fracture?
a) Maxillae
b) Nasal bones
c) Zygoma
d) Mandible

A

Nasal bones

36
Q

Which fracture separates the zygoma from the other facial bones?
a) Le Fort
b) Blow-out
c) Depressed
d) Tripod

A

Tripod

37
Q

Which of the following facial fractures is usually caused by a direct blow to the orbit?
a) Stellate fracture
b) Le Fort fracture
c) Blow-out fracture
d) Tripod fracture

A

Blow-out fracture

38
Q

Which projection is useful in demonstrating fractures of the zygomatic arches?
a) SMV
b) Parietoacanthial (Waters’)
c) AP
d) Lateral

A

SMV

39
Q

Which of the following involves bilateral and horizontal fractures of the maxillae?
a) Stellate fracture
b) Le Fort fracture
c) Blow-out fracture
d) Tripod fracture

A

Le Fort fracture

40
Q

What term is used to denote the sudden and dramatic development of a focal neurologic deficit?
a. Stroke
b. Arteriovenous malformation (AVM)
c. Hematoma
d. Aneurysm

A

Stroke

41
Q

Paralysis on one side of the body is termed:
a) paraplegia.
b) quadriplegia.
c) hemiplegia.
d) dysplegia.

A

Hemiplegia

42
Q

A focal neurologic defect that completely resolves within 24 hours is known as a:
a) stroke.
b) AVM.
c) aneurysm.
d) transient ischemic attack (TIA).

A

Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

43
Q

Which of the following is used to initially screen patients suspected of a transient ischemic attack?
a) CT
b) Computed tomography angiography (CTA)
c) Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)
d) Color-flow Doppler ultrasound

A

Color-flow Doppler ultrasound

44
Q

A rupture of a berry aneurysm is a major cause of:
a) Huntington’s disease.
b) Alzheimer’s.
c) Subarachnoid hemorrhage.
d) TIA.

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

45
Q

What is the most common cause of nontraumatic intraparenchymal hemorrhage in persons under age 20?
a. AVM
b. TIA
c. Stroke
d. Aneurysm rupture

A

AVM

46
Q

A condition in which brain impulses are disturbed and that causes symptoms ranging from loss of consciousness to violent seizures is:
a. Huntington’s disease.
b. Epilepsy.
c. Parkinson’s disease.
d. Multiple sclerosis.

A

Epilepsy

47
Q

Which of the following CNS degenerative disorders has the CT pathologic hallmark of atrophy of the caudate nucleus and putamen, causing focal dilatation of the frontal horns?
a) Huntington’s disease
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig)
d) Alzheimer’s

A

Huntington’s disease

48
Q

Which of the following degenerative neurologic diseases causes widespread selective atrophy and loss of motor nerves that eventually leads to paralysis and death?
a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Normal aging
c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou
Gehrig)
d. Alzheimer’s

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig)

49
Q

Viral inflammation of the brain is termed:
a) Encephalitis.
b) Meningitis.
c) Brain abscess.
d) Subdural empyema.

A

Encephalitis

50
Q

Which type of primary brain tumor usually arises in the walls of the fourth ventricle in children and in the lateral ventricles in adults?
a. Glioblastoma
b. Astrocytoma
c. Medulloblastoma
d. Ependymoma

A

Epedymoma

51
Q

Which benign CNS tumor arises from arachnoid lining cells and is attached to the dura?
a) Oligodendrocytoma
b) Meningioma
c) Ependymoma
d) Astrocytoma

A

Meningioma

52
Q

Which type of skull fracture can cause separation of the suture?
a) Diastatic
b) Le Fort
c) Stellate
d) Depressed

A

Diastatic

53
Q

Where is the most common site for traumatic arteriovenous fistulas to arise in the CNS?
a. The superior ophthalmic artery and cavernous sinus
b. The superior ophthalmic artery and internal carotid artery
c. The internal and external carotid arteries
d. The internal carotid artery and cavernous
sinus

A

The internal carotid artery and cavernous sinus

54
Q

What position is recommended to obtain facial bone radiographic images to evaluate facial trauma?
a. Supine
b. Upright
c. Prone
d. Recumbent lateral

A

Upright

55
Q

What position is recommended to obtain trauma images of the facial bones when the patient cannot be positioned upright?
a. Dorsal decubitus
b. Recumbent lateral
c. Supine
d. Prone

A

Dorsal decubitus

56
Q

(T/F) The cerebellum is the largest portion of the brain

A

False

57
Q

(T/F) The middle meningeal layer is the arachnoid membrane

A

True

58
Q

(T/F) Cerebrospinal fluid is formed in the arachnoid villi

A

False

59
Q

(T/F) Encephalitis is most commonly caused by the herpes simplex virus

A

True

60
Q

(T/F) Sinus infections can spread to the brain and cause an empyema or abscess

A

True

61
Q

(T/F) MRI is considered the best imaging modality for suspected brain tumors

A

True

62
Q

(T/F) The most common type of primary brain tumor is a glioma

A

True

63
Q

(T/F) The nasal bones are the most commonly fractured facial bones.

A

True

64
Q

(T/F) Radiography of the skull for fractures is essential to the diagnosis of associated brain injury

A

False

65
Q

(T/F) Bilateral fractures are common in the mandible

A

True

Radiologic Pathology (7 decks)

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