Chapter 4 Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

The bone is covered on the outer surfaces by a fibrous membraned called:

A

periosteum

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2
Q

The hollow, tubelike structure within the diaphysis is the:

A

medullary cavity

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3
Q

A weblike arrangement of marrow-filled spaces separated by thin bone is:

A

cancellous bone

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4
Q

The secondary ossification center in a long bone is the:

A

epiphysis

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5
Q

Growth of outer bone diameter is dependent upon:

A

osteoblasts

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6
Q

Bone that develops within the connective tissue is called:

A

Intramembranous ossification

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7
Q

Which type of cell is associated with bone formation and resorption?

A

Osteoclastic

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8
Q

A vertebra with characteristics of more than one major division of the spine is called:

A

A transitional vertebra

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9
Q

Herniation of the meninges in the lumbar or cervical region is known as a:

A

meningocele

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10
Q

A rare hereditary bone dysplasia involving the bone resorption mechanism of calcified cartilage is:

A

Osteopetrosis

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11
Q

An inherited disorder of connective tissue characterized by multiple fractures is:

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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12
Q

The most common form of dwarfism, caused by decreased enchondral bone formation, is:

A

Achondroplasia

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13
Q

For brittle bone disease, the radiographer should:

A

decrease the exposure factors

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14
Q

The disease process that begins as an inflammation of the synovial membrane causing synovial proliferation is called:

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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15
Q

The most common form of degenerative arthritis that has osteophyte development is:

A

osteoarthritis

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16
Q

Which of the following results when a pyogenic organism enters the joint through the blood, direct extension, or trauma?

A

Infectious arthritis

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17
Q

The fluid-filled sacs located near joints may become inflamed, which results in:

A

bursitis

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18
Q

To best demonstrate early changes in osteomyelitis, the modality of choice is:

A

nuclear medicine

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19
Q

A disorder that begins as a bone abscess that travels through the medullary cavity and outward to lift the periosteum is known as:

A

osteomyelitis

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20
Q

Osteomyelitis is correctly characterized as:
A) the result of bacteria
B) pyogenic
C) a postoperative complication
D) all of the above

A

D) all of the above

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21
Q

A disease process usually caused by accelerated bone resorption results in:

A

osteoporosis

22
Q

To assess bone material content from a qualitative approach, the best imaging is:

A

dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

23
Q

Insufficient mineralization of the adult skeleton appearing, as a loss of bone density, is:

A

osteomalacia

24
Q

Body weight on weight-bearing loss may bend or bow as a result of softened bones in cases of:

A

osteomalacia

25
Q

Blood levels with an increased uric acid leading to deposits of crystals in the joints and cartilage is:

A

gout

26
Q

To demonstrate degenerative knee joint narrowing most accurately requires the image to be:

A

weight-bearing standing AP and lateral

27
Q

In Paget’s disease, the beginning phase involves bone:

A

destruction

28
Q

The most common initial site of Paget’s disease is the:

A

pelvis

29
Q

Proliferation of fibrous tissue within the medullary cavity is:

A

fibrous dysplasia

30
Q

A pattern of lytic and sclerotic new bone growth, with a flattening of the femoral head, associated with periosteal new bone is suggestive of:

A

ischemic necrosis

31
Q

A true osteochondroma grows laterally from the epiphysis and:

A

must exhibit a cortex and medullary portion

32
Q

Lobulated borders from endosteal scalloping, containing focal areas of high signal intensity on T2-weighted MR images, are suggestive of an:

A

enchondroma

33
Q

The bone lesion typically seen as a small (<1cm) round area with a lucent center (nidus) is a(n):

A

osteoid osteoma

34
Q

An expansile lucent lesion demonstrating a sharp demarcation from normal adjacent bone having a thin sclerotic rim is an:

A

unicameral cyst

35
Q

A cyst-like lesion causing ballooning and possibly having internal septations is a(n):

A

aneurysmal bone cyst

36
Q

Malignant bone lesions cause soft-tissue swelling and:

A

Cortical bone erosion causing a poorly defined margin

37
Q

A classic sunburst pattern of bony spicules that extend in a radiating fashion is a characteristic radiographic appearance of:

A

osteogenic sarcomas

38
Q

Primary malignant tumors arising from the bone marrow of long bones in children and young adults usually causing localized pain are indicative of:

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

39
Q

The classic radiographic appearance of multiple punched-out osteolytic lesions scattered throughout the skeletal system is suggestive of:

A

multiple myeloma

40
Q

For detecting asymptomatic bone metastases, the modality of choice is:

A

radionuclide bone scan

41
Q

Discontinuity of two or more fragments is considered a(n):

A

Complete fracture

42
Q

A fracture resulting from a weakness in the bone caused by a tumor or infection is known as what type of fracture?

A

Pathologic

43
Q

The healing of fracture fragments in a faulty position is:

A

malunion

44
Q

Suspected nonaccidental trauma is another name for:

A

battered-child syndrome

45
Q

A fracture usually caused by falling on an outstretched hand resulting in posterior displacement of the distal fragment of the radius is a:

A

Colles’ fracture

46
Q

A fracture of the arch of C2 anterior to the inferior facet usually associated with anterior subluxation of C2 and C3 is known as a:

A

Hangman’s fracture

47
Q

Forward displacement of one vertebra on the other resulting in back pain caused by cleft in the pars interarticularis is:

A

Spondylolisthesis

48
Q

Which imaging modality is most commonly used to demonstrate rotator cuff tears?

A

MRI

49
Q

Which imaging modality is used to demonstrate tears in the menisci of the knees?

A

MRI

50
Q

A tumor grows parallel to the bone and points away from the adjacent joint. What common benign bone tumor is it?

A

Osteochondroma