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P & P I > Chapter 5 WS > Flashcards

Chapter 5 WS Flashcards

1
Q

what is relative survival rate?

A

Compares survival among cancer patient with that of people not diagnosed with cancer. It represents the percentage of cancer patients who are alive after a designated time period (usually 5 years) relative to persons without cancer. It includes patients who have been cured and those who have relapsed or are still in treatment.

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2
Q

List the types of imaging modalities:

A
  • nuclear medicine studies
  • Positron emission tomography (PET),
  • mammography,
  • computed tomography (CT),
  • magnetic resonance imaging (MRI),
  • ultrasound, and
  • new molecular imaging technologies
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3
Q
  1. According to the American Cancer Society (ACS), what two things are the most important and effective strategies of saving lives from cancer, diminishing suffering and eliminating cancer as a major health problem.
A

prevention and early detection

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4
Q

List 7 cancers that the ACS has early detection recommendations for:

A
  • breast
  • colon,
  • rectum,
  • cervix,
  • prostate,
  • testes, and
  • skin
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5
Q
  1. What is the relative survival rate for people with cancers for which the ACS has specific early detection recommendations?
A

81%

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6
Q

What is considered the most preventable cause of death in our society?

A

smoking

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7
Q

an objective finding as perceived by the examiner (ex. rash, mass that can be felt, unusual color of patient’s skin

A

sign

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8
Q

a subjective indication of a disease or a change in condition as perceived by the patient (ex. pain, numbness, dysphagia, dyspnea, difficulty sleeping, lack of appetite

A

symptom

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9
Q

Set of signs or symptoms that arise from a common cause.

A

syndrome

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10
Q

the identification of a disease or condition

A

diagnosis

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11
Q

based on the patient’s complaints and medical history and the physician may make a preliminary diagnosis with no hard evidence

A

subjective diagnosis

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12
Q

type of diagnosis that’s based on results from medical procedures and tests (ex. lab reports, biopsies)

A

objective diagnosis

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13
Q

“i see”

“i understand”

A

minimal response

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14
Q

“i se you are very angry”

“it is very scary”

A

reflecting feelings

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15
Q

“how bad did it hurt?”

“this only bothers you at night?”

A

clarifications

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16
Q

“you will feel better soon”

“done worry, everything will be alright”

A

social cliches

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17
Q

“you should not be having sex outside of marriage”

“someone your age should be more responsible”

A

imposing values

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18
Q

“i wish i had a nickle for every time i heard this”

“this is just part of the aging process”

A

devaluing the patients feelings or response

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19
Q

age, race, gender, marital status, and current occupation

A

demographic data

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20
Q

symptoms, current illness, and current condition

A

chief complaints

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21
Q

childhood illnesses, allergies, immunizations, injuries, prior hospitalizations, psychological problems, medication

A

medical history

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22
Q

illnesses, causes of death, genetic disorders, and mental disorders

A

family history

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23
Q

occupation, lifestyle, and sexual activity and preferences

A

personal history

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24
Q

What is the reason for obtaining demographic data?

A

Because certain disease conditions are found to be more prevalent for groups according to age, gender, race, and national origin.

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25
Q

what is Gastric Reflux?

A

the backflow of contents of the stomach into the esophagus

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26
Q

What is a paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

A collection of symptoms that result from substances or hormones produced by the tumor, and they occur remotely from the tumor. This sometimes occurs with lung cancer

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27
Q

3 cancers that may have a genetic risk.

A 
Leukemia (may develop in more than one sibling),
 breast cancer (if mother had breast cancer, daughter may be at higher risk),
Colon Cancer (increased risk if a family history)
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28
Q

what questions may be asked regarding a patient’s personal history?

A

Dietary, exercise, alcohol, cigarette, and drug habits. Also, sexual activity, frequency, and preferences. Past occupations.

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29
Q

What would the doctor be interested in the patient’s past occupations?

A

To determine if the patient was employed in an occupation that carried the risk of exposure to asbestos, disease, certain chemicals or other carcinogens.

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30
Q

the use of sight to observe

A

inspection

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31
Q

a swelling of the tissue caused by the accumulation of excessive amounts of fluid.

A

edema

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32
Q

The abnormal accumulation of blood factors in a blood vessel that causes a clot

A

thrombosis

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33
Q

The abnormal accumulation of blood in tissue from a blood vessel that has ruptured

A

hematoma

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34
Q

the use of touch to acquire info about the patient

A

palpation

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35
Q

The act of striking or tapping the patient gently Ex. making a fist and pounding it gently over the kidney area

A

percussion

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36
Q

The act of listening to sounds within the body. Ex. using a stethoscope to listen to lungs, heart, arteries, stomach, and bowel sounds.

A

ausculation

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37
Q

what is included in vital signs

A

Temperature, pulse, respirations, blood pressure and a pain assessment

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38
Q

oral temp

A

96.8 - 98.6

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39
Q

pulse

A

60 - 100 bpm

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40
Q

respiration

A

12-18 breaths per minute

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41
Q

blood pressure

A

90-140 systolic, 60-80 diastolic

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42
Q

what is systolic bp

A

The pressure in the blood vessels during the contraction of the heart and is the first sound heard through a stethoscope when blood pressure is taken

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43
Q

what is diastolic bp

A

It represents the pressure in the blood vessels during the relaxation phase of heart after the contraction. It is the last sound heard through the stethoscope when the blood pressure is taken.

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44
Q

Where is the most common site for taking blood pressure

A

the upper arm near where the brachial artery crosses he elbow joint

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45
Q

what is considered the 5th vital sign

A

pain

46
Q

what is screening

A

Testing individuals who do not have any symptoms for a particular disease.

47
Q

4 cancers whose mortality rates have been reduced due to screening

A

colorectal
breast
uretine cervix
lung

48
Q

number of new cases of a disease during a period of time.

Probability that a disease will develop in a disease-free patient during an interval.

A

incidence

49
Q

the total number of cases of a disease at a certain time.

Probability of disease in the entire population at any point in time.

A

prevalence

50
Q

Why would screening for esophageal cancer not be beneficial for the U.S. population?

A

Because the population at risk for esophageal cancer is very low, it would not be beneficial in terms of outcome and cost effectiveness

51
Q

what are mass screening based on

A

Specific results, cost effectiveness, and risk to patient.

52
Q

recommended an annual mammogram screening at what age?

A

40 years

53
Q

most effective technology available for the detection of breast cancer?

A

high quality mammography

54
Q

What other technologies and techniques assist with traditional mammography to improve the detection and diagnosis of breast cancer.

A

Ultrasound,
digital mammography,
MRI, PET, and
image-guided biopsy.

55
Q

For higher risk women, at what age does the ACS recommend an annual mammogram screening

A

30 years

56
Q

And what other imaging modality is recommended along with the mammogram?

A

MRI

57
Q

What type of contrast is used with an MRI screening of a breast?

A

gadolinium

58
Q

what is the sentinel node

A

The first lymph node to receive draining fluid from breast tumors and, therefore, the first to collet cancer cells.

59
Q

What is injected to identify the sentinel node?

A

blue dye or technetium 99

60
Q

why are cancers that are estrogen receptor positive and/or progesterone receptor positive associated with a more favorable prognosis?

A

bc pateint normally respond to hormone therapy

61
Q

leading cause of cancer deaths in the US

A

lung cancer

62
Q

What did the National Lung Screening Trial reveal?

A

That low-dose CT screening is beneficial for high risk patients (heavy smokers). It showed 20% fewer lung cancer deaths among current and former heavy smokers who were screened with spiral CT compared with standard chest x-ray

63
Q

what are the two most common methods used to screen for prostate cancer?

A

digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA blood test

64
Q

According to the ACS’s guidelines for prostate screening, at what age should annual PSA testing and DRE be offered?

A

geginning at age 50

65
Q

What is the physician able to do with digital mammography that can’t be done with film/screen mammography?

A

The contrast can be manipulated with digital mammography allowing the physician to lighten or darken a portion of the image as well as magnify areas of concern.

66
Q

what conditions increase the risk of colon cancer

A

1) a personal history of colorectal cancer or adenomatous polyps
2) A personal history of inflammatory bowel disease (ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease)
3) A strong family history of colorectal cancer or polyps
4) known family history of a hereditary colorectal cancer syndrome such as familial adenomatous polyposis or hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer

67
Q

true or False: The ACS recommends that beginning at age 50, all men should be screened for prostate cancer using a DRE and serum PSA.

A

false

68
Q

what age should cervical cancer screening occur

A

21

69
Q

how often should women between the ages of 21 and 29 have a pap test

A

every 3 years

70
Q

what strains of HPV are responsible for 70% of cervical cancers

A

HPV 16 and HPV 18

71
Q

What is the difference between a blood study and a blood chemistry test?

A

Blood studies are concerned with blood cells, whereas blood chemistry tests examine chemicals in the blood.

72
Q

white blood cells

A

5,000 - 10,000

73
Q

red blood cells

A

3.90 - 5.40 milliom

74
Q

platelets

A

150,000 - 425, 000

75
Q

hemoglobin

A

12 - 16 g/dL

76
Q

hematocrit

A

37-47%

77
Q

neutrophils

A

42-72%

78
Q

lymphocytes

A

17-45%

79
Q

monocytes

A

3 - 10%

80
Q

eosinophils

A

0 - 4%

81
Q

basophils

A

0 - 2%

82
Q

What are radiopharmaceuticals or radionuclides?

A

An isotope that undergoes radioactive decay. It gives off radiation, often in the form of gamma rays.

83
Q

How may a radionuclide be administered?

A

Injected, swallowed, or inhaled, depending on the diagnostic procedure.

84
Q

What are the three most common imaging devices used with radionuclides

A

gamma camera, rectilinear scanner, and pet scanner

85
Q

In addition to showing anatomy, what else does a PET image

A

Can view organ’s function and blood flow. Chemical changes that take place in tissue.

86
Q

What is a patient injected with prior to a PET scan?

A

A combination of sugar (glucose) and a small amount of radioactive material. The radioactive sugar accumulates in the tumor which is then detected by the scanner.

87
Q

Which is less expensive, a CT scan or an MRI scan?

A

CT

88
Q

Does MRI use ionizing radiation

A

no

89
Q

which modality is best to use to see bone CT or MRI

A

CT

90
Q

which is best to use to see soft tissue

A

MRI

91
Q

Does ultrasound use ionizing radiation?

A

no

92
Q

What does ultrasound use to create image?

A

high frequency sound waves

93
Q

What are exfoliative cells?

A

Cells that have been scraped off deliberately or sloughed off naturally.

94
Q

What does “negative margin” mean with regard to an excisional biopsy?

A

No disease was found at the edges of the biopsy specimen.

95
Q

What does “positive margin” mean with regard to an excisional biopsy?

A

Disease was found at the edge of the specimen and that the tumor has directly invaded beyond the area biopsied.

96
Q

What is a tumor marker?

A

A molecule that can be detected in serum, plasma, or other body fluid.

97
Q

What is the difference between histologic type and histologic grade?

A

Histologic type is the cell type, histologic grade refers to the differentiation of the cell.

ex. histologic type may be squamous cell carcinoma and the histologic grade indicates the closeness of the cells’ resemblance to normal squamous cells.

98
Q

grade not assessable

A

GX

99
Q

well differentiated

A

G1

100
Q

moderately differentiated

A

G2

101
Q

poorly differentiated

A

G3

102
Q

undifferentiated

A

G4

103
Q

primary tumor not assessable

A

TX

104
Q

no evidence of primary tumor

A

T0

105
Q

carcinoma in situ

A

Tis

106
Q

increasing size and/or local extent of the primary tumor

A

T1, T2, T3, T4

107
Q

regional lymph nodes not assessable

A

NX

108
Q

no regional lymp node mets

A

N0

109
Q

increasing involvement of regional lymph nodes

A

N1, N2, N3

110
Q

presence of distant mets not assessable

A

MX

111
Q

no distant mets

A

M0

112
Q

distant mets

A

M1

P & P I (24 decks)

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