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Biology 2312 > Chapter 42 > Flashcards

Chapter 42 Flashcards

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1
Q

The vertebrate body has what four levels of organization?

A

cells, tissues, organs, organ systems

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2
Q

Humans have how many different types of cells?

A

210 different types of cells

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3
Q

What are tissues?

A

groups of cells that are similar in structure and function

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4
Q

Early in development, cells of the growing embryo differentiate into three fundamental embryonic tissues, which are called

A

germ layers

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5
Q

What are the four primary tissues in adults?

A

epithelial, connective, muscle, nerve

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6
Q

What are organs?

A

body structures composed of several different types of tissues that form a structural and functional unit

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7
Q

What is an organ system?

A

group of organs that cooperate to perform the major activities of the body

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8
Q

What is the inner tube of vertebrates?

A

the digestive tract, which runs from the mouth to the anus

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9
Q

What supports the outer tube of vertebrates?

A

internal skeleton made of jointed bones or cartilage

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10
Q

What is the outermost layer of the vertebrate body?

A

integument (skin) + accessories, such as hair/feathers/scales/sweat glands

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11
Q

How many identifiable cavities are there in the main vertebrate body?

A

two

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12
Q

What is the dorsal body cavity?

A

forms within a bony skull and a column of bones (vertebrae)

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13
Q

What is the ventral body cavity?

A

extends anteriorly from the area bounded by the rib cage and vertebral column posteriorly to the area contained within the ventral body muscles (abdominals) and the pelvic girdle

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14
Q

What is the thoracic cavity?

A

contains the heart and lungs

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15
Q

What is the abdominopelvic cavity?

A

contains many organs including the stomach, intestines, liver, kidneys, and urinary bladder

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16
Q

The ventral body cavity is broken by the diaphragm

A

anteriorly into the thoracic cavity and posteriorly into the abdominopelvic cavity

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17
Q

What is a coelom?

A

fluid-filled body cavity completely formed within the embryonic mesoderm layer of some animals

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18
Q

Contrast the coelom in vertebrates and invertebrates.

A

Compared to invertebrates, the coelom in vertebrates is constricted, folded, and subdivided

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19
Q

In the abdominopelvic cavity, the coelomic space is called the

A

peritoneal cavity

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20
Q

What is the pericardial cavity?

A

space within the mesodermal layers around the heart

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21
Q

What are the pleural cavities?

A

thin spaces around the lungs

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22
Q

What is the epithelium?

A

membrane that covers every surface of the vertebrate body

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23
Q

Epithelial membranes are derived from

A

any of the three germ layers

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24
Q

The three germ layers, from innermost to outermost, are

A

endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm

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25
Q

For land vertebrates, why is the impermeability of the epidermis important?

A

it offers essential protection from dehydration and airborne pathogens

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26
Q

How does the epithelial lining of the digestive tract function as a barrier?

A

allows for the selective entry of the products of digestion while providing a barrier to toxic substances

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27
Q

How does the epithelium of the lungs function as a barrier?

A

allows for the rapid diffusion of gases into and out of blood

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28
Q

What is a characteristic of all epithelia in terms of spatial arrangement?

A

all epithelial cells are tightly bound together, with very little space between them

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29
Q

How thick are most epithelial membranes?

A

one or a few cell layers thick

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30
Q

Give an example of a gland made of epithelial tissue that can readily regenerate.

A

the liver

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31
Q

How often is the epidermis renewed?

A

every two weeks

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32
Q

How often is the epithelium inside the stomach renewed?

A

every two to three days

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33
Q

Why is epithelial regeneration important?

A

it constantly renews the surface and also allows quick replacement of the protective layer should damage or injury occur

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34
Q

How do epithelial tissues attach to underlying connective tissues?

A

by a fibrous membrane

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35
Q

The secured side of the epithelium is called

A

basal surface

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36
Q

The free side of the epithelium is called

A

apical surface

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37
Q

Why is having a basal/apical surface important for epithelial tissues?

A

it gives the tissues an inherent polarity

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38
Q

What are the two general classes of epithelial membranes?

A

simple (single layer of cells) and stratified (multiple layers of cells)

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39
Q

What kind of cells are flat?

A

squamous cells

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40
Q

What kind of cells are about as wide as they are tall?

A

cuboidal cells

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41
Q

What kind of cells are taller than they are wide?

A

columnar cells

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42
Q

How thick are simple epithelial membranes?

A

one cell thick

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43
Q

What are simple squamous membranes composed of?

A

squamous epithelial cells

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44
Q

Where can simple squamous epithelia be found? (2)

A

lungs, blood capillaries

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45
Q

Where can simple cuboidal epithelia be found? (2)

A

kidney tubules, several glands

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46
Q

Where can simple columnar epithelia be found?

A

airways of the respiratory tract, inside of most of the gastrointestinal tract

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47
Q

What are goblet cells?

A

specialized cells to secrete mucus that are interspersed among columnar epithelial cells of mucous membranes

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48
Q

The apical surface of columnar epithelial cells of the respiratory airways contains

A

cilia, which move mucus and dust particles toward the throat

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49
Q

The apical surface of columnar epithelial cells in the small intestine contains

A

microvilli, which increase the surface area for food absorption

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50
Q

The glands of vertebrates form from

A

invaginated epithelia

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51
Q

What is an exocrine gland?

A

gland that releases its secretion through a duct, such as a sweat gland or a digestive gland

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52
Q

How does the exocrine gland work?

A

The duct channels the product of the gland to the surface of the epithelial membrane and thus to the external environment

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53
Q

Give three examples of exocrine glands.

A

sweat, sebaceous, salivary glands

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54
Q

What are endocrine glands?

A

ductless glands; connections with the epithelium from which they are derived are lost during development

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55
Q

Where do hormones secreted by the endocrine gland go?

A

hormones enter blood capillaries and circulate throughout the body instead of going to an epithelial membrane

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56
Q

How thick are stratified epithelial membranes?

A

two to several cell layers thick

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57
Q

How are stratified epithelial membranes named?

A

they are named according to features of their apical cell layers

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58
Q

The epidermis is what type of membrane?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

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59
Q

In terrestrial vertebrates, the epidermis is further characterized as

A

a keratinized epithelium because its upper layer consists of dead squamous cells and is filled with a water-resistant protein called keratin

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60
Q

What increases the deposition of keratin in the skin?

A

repeated abrasion (which causes calluses)

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61
Q

The water-resistant property of keratin is evident when comparing

A

the skin to the lips, because the lips are covered by a nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium that can easily become dried/chapped

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62
Q

What are the four types of simple epithelium?

A

squamous, cuboidal, columnar, pseudostratified columnar

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63
Q

What is the one type of stratified epithelium?

A

squamous

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64
Q

What is the typical location of simple squamous epithelium? (3)

A

lining of lungs, capillary walls, blood vessels

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65
Q

What is the function of the simple squamous epithelium?

A

cells form thin layer across which diffusion can readily occur

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66
Q

What are characteristic cell types of simple squamous epithelium? (1)

A

epithelial cells

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67
Q

What is the typical location of simple cuboidal epithelium? (2)

A

lining of some glands/kidney tubules; covering of ovaries

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68
Q

What is the function of simple cuboidal epithelium? (2)

A

cells rich in specific transport channels; functions in secretion and absorption

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69
Q

What are characteristic cell types of simple cuboidal epithelium?

A

gland cells

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70
Q

What is the typical location of simple columnar epithelium? (2)

A

surface lining of stomach, intestines; parts of respiratory tract

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71
Q

What is the function of simple columnar epithelium?

A

thicker cell layer; provides protection and functions in secretion and absorption

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72
Q

What are characteristic cell types of simple columnar epithelium?

A

epithelial cells

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73
Q

What is the typical location of simple pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

A

lining of parts of the respiratory tract

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74
Q

What is the function of simple pseudostratified columnar epithelium? (3)

A

secretes mucus; dense with cilia that aid in movement of mucus; provides protection

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75
Q

What are the characteristic cell types of simple pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

A

gland cells; ciliated epithelial cells

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76
Q

What is the typical location of stratified squamous epithelium? (2)

A

outer layer of skin; lining of mouth

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77
Q

What is the function of stratified squamous epithelium?

A

tough layer of cells; provides protection

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78
Q

What are the characteristic cell types of stratified squamous epithelium?

A

epithelial cells

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79
Q

Where do connective tissues derive from?

A

embryonic mesoderm

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80
Q

What are the two major classes of connective tissues?

A

connective tissue proper; special connective tissues

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81
Q

What are the two further divisions of connective tissue proper?

A

loose connective tissue; dense connective tissue

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82
Q

What are the three types of special connective tissue?

A

cartilage, blood, bone

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83
Q

What is the common structural feature of connective tissue?

A

all have abundant extracellular material because their cells are spaced widely apart

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84
Q

The extracellular material in connective tissue is called

A

the matrix

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85
Q

What does bone matrix do?

A

contains crystals that make the bones hard

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86
Q

What is the blood matrix?

A

plasma, the fluid portion of the blood

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87
Q

The matrix of connective tissue consists of

A

protein fibers and ground substance

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88
Q

What is ground substance?

A

the fluid material between cells and fibers containing a diverse array of proteins and polysaccharides

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89
Q

During the development of loose/dense connective tissue, what produces and secretes the extracellular matrix?

A

fibroblasts

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90
Q

Loose connective tissue contains what immune system cells? (2)

A

mast cells and macrophages

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91
Q

Loose connective tissue consists of

A

cells scattered within a matrix that contains a large amount of ground substance

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92
Q

How is the ground substance of loose connective tissue strengthened?

A

strengthened by a loose scattering of collagen, elastin, and reticulin

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93
Q

How does collagen increase the strength of the ground substance of loose connective tissue?

A

supports the tissue by forming a meshwork

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94
Q

How does elastin increase the strength of the ground substance of loose connective tissue?

A

makes the tissue elastic

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95
Q

How does reticulin increase the strength of the ground substance of loose connective tissue?

A

supports the network of collagen

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96
Q

Gelatin in desserts consists of

A

extracellular material extracted from the loose connective tissue of animals

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97
Q

What is another name for adipose cells?

A

fat cells

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98
Q

Why are adipose cells important?

A

important for nutrient storage

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99
Q

Where do adipose cells occur?

A

loose connective tissue

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100
Q

What is adipose tissue?

A

large groups of adipose cells

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101
Q

Where does adipose tissue develop? (3)

A

under the skin, in bone marrow, around the kidneys

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102
Q

Each adipose cell contains

A

a droplet of triglycerides within a storage vesicle

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103
Q

When adipose cells are needed for energy, what happens?

A

adipose cell hydrolyzes its stored triglyceride and secretes fatty acids into the blood for oxidation by the cells of the muscles/liver/other organs

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104
Q

Can adipose cells divide?

A

no, the number of adipose cells in an adult is fixed

105
Q

When a person gains weight, how do adipose cells change?

A

adipose cells become larger

106
Q

When a person loses weight, how do adipose cells change?

A

adipose cells shrink

107
Q

Does dense connective tissue have more or less ground substance than loose connective tissue?

A

less ground substance

108
Q

Is dense connective tissue more strong than loose connective tissue?

A

Yes, dense connective tissue is stronger than loose connective tissue

109
Q

Dense connective tissue primarily contains

A

tightly packed collagen fibers

110
Q

What are the two types of dense connective tissue?

A

regular and irregular

111
Q

What are the collagen fibers in dense regular connective tissue like?

A

the fibers line up in parallel

112
Q

Give an example of dense regular connective tissue.

A

tendons

113
Q

What are the collagen fibers in dense irregular connective tissue like?

A

have many different orientations

114
Q

Where can dense irregular connective tissue be found?

A

tough coverings that package organs, such as the capsules of the kidneys and the adrenal glands

115
Q

What is the typical location of loose connective tissue? (2)

A

beneath skin; between organs

116
Q

What is the function of loose connective tissue? (5)

A

provides support/insulation/food/storage/nourishment for epithelium

117
Q

What are characteristic cell types of loose connective tissues? (4)

A

fibroblasts; macrophages; mast cells; fat cells

118
Q

What is the typical location of dense connective tissue? (5)

A

tendons; sheath around muscles; kidney; liver; dermis of skin

119
Q

What is the function of dense connective tissue?

A

provides flexible, strong connections

120
Q

What are characteristic cell types of dense connective tissue?

A

fibroblasts

121
Q

What s the typical location of cartilage? (5)

A

spinal disks; knees and other joints; ear; nose; tracheal rings

122
Q

What is the function of cartilage? (3)

A

provides flexible support, shock absorption, reduction of friction on load-bearing surfaces

123
Q

What are characteristic cel types of cartilage?

A

chondrocytes

124
Q

What is the typical location of bone?

A

most of skeleton

125
Q

What is the function of bone? (2)

A

protects internal organs; provides rigid support for muscle attachments

126
Q

What are characteristic cell types of bones?

A

osteocytes

127
Q

What is the typical location of blood?

A

circulatory system

128
Q

What is the function of blood? (3)

A

functions as highway of immune systems; carries nutrients and waste; primary means of communication between organs

129
Q

What are characteristic cell types of blood? (2)

A

erythrocytes, leukocytes

130
Q

The ground substance in cartilage forms from

A

a type of glycoprotein called chondroitin

131
Q

Describe the strength of cartilage. (4)

A

firm/flexible; does not stretch; tougher than either loose or dense connective tissue; has great tensile strength

132
Q

Cartilage makes up the entire skeleton of which animals? (2)

A

modern agnathans and cartilaginous fishes

133
Q

In adult vertebrates, where is cartilage mostly found? (5)

A

joint surfaces of bones; tip of the nose; outer ear; backbone disks; larynx

134
Q

Where do chondrocytes live?

A

within spaces called lacunae within the cartilage ground substance?

135
Q

What are lacunae?

A

spaces within the ground substance of cartilage within which chondrocytes live

136
Q

How do chondrocytes in lacunae stay alive?

A

they receive oxygen and nutrients by diffusion through the cartilage ground substance from surrounding blood vessels

137
Q

What is another name for bone cells?

A

osteocytes

138
Q

The extracellular matrix in bones becomes hardened because of

A

crystals with calcium phosphate

139
Q

What are canaliculi?

A

tiny canals through which osteocytes extend cytoplasmic processes toward neighboring osteocytes

140
Q

In the course of fetal development, how do appendages form?

A

first modeled in cartilage, but then the cartilage matrix calcifies and living bone replaces the dying/degenerating cartilage

141
Q

What is another name for red blood cells?

A

erythrocytes

142
Q

What is another name for white blood cells?

A

leukocytes

143
Q

What is another name for platelets?

A

thrombocytes

144
Q

What makes muscle cells unique?

A

relative abundance and organization of actin and myosin filaments within them

145
Q

What are the three kinds of muscle?

A

smooth, skeletal, and cardiac

146
Q

What are the two striated muscles?

A

skeletal and cardiac muscles

147
Q

Which two muscles are involuntary?

A

cardiac and smooth muscles

148
Q

What was the earliest form of muscle to evolve?

A

smooth muscle

149
Q

In vertebrates, where does smooth muscle occur?

A

viscera

150
Q

What is another name for smooth muscle?

A

visceral muscle

151
Q

Smooth muscle tissue is arranged into

A

sheets of long, spindle-shaped cells, with each cell containing a single nucleus

152
Q

Skeletal muscles are usually attached to

A

bones by tendons

153
Q

Skeletal muscle is made up of

A

long muscle cells called muscle fibers, which have multiple nuclei

154
Q

What neuron stimulates muscle fibers?

A

motor neurons

155
Q

Each muscle fiber contracts by means of substructures called

A

myofibrils, which contain highly ordered arrays of actin and myosin myofilaments

156
Q

What is responsible for giving muscle fiber its striated appearance?

A

actin and myosin myofilaments

157
Q

How are skeletal muscle fibers produced?

A

by the fusion of several cells, end-to-end (which is why they have multiple nuclei)

158
Q

Cardiac muscle consists of

A

smaller, interconnected cells, each with a single nucleus

159
Q

What are intercalated disks?

A

interconnections between adjacent cardiac cells that appear as a dark line under a microscope

160
Q

The dark lines of intercalated disks are actually

A

regions where gap junctions link adjacent cells

161
Q

The interconnections in cardiac muscle enable cardiac muscle cells to

A

form as a single functioning unit

162
Q

What usually regulates the rate of impulse activity in cardiac muscle?

A

the nervous system

163
Q

What is the typical location of smooth muscle? (3)

A

walls of blood vessels, stomach, and intestines

164
Q

What is the function of smooth muscle?

A

powers rhythmic, involuntary contractions commanded by the central nervous system

165
Q

What is the typical location of skeletal muscle?

A

voluntary muscles

166
Q

What is the function of skeletal muscles?

A

powers walking, lifting, talking, and all voluntary movement

167
Q

What is the function of cardiac muscle? (2)

A

highly interconnected cells; promotes rapid spread of signal initiating contraction

168
Q

What are the two major types of cells in nerve tissue?

A

neurons and neuroglia

169
Q

Generally speaking, neurons are specialized to

A

produce and conduct electrochemical events (impulses)

170
Q

Neurons consist of what three parts?

A

a cell body, dendrites, and an axon

171
Q

What contains the nucleus of a neuron?

A

the cell body

172
Q

What are dendrites?

A

thin, highly branched extensions that receive incoming stimulation and conduct electrical impulses to the cell body

173
Q

What is the axon?

A

single extension of the cytoplasm that conducts impulses away from the cell body

174
Q

What do neuroglia do?

A

do not conduct impulses, but instead support and insulate neurons and eliminate foreign materials in and around neurons

175
Q

Neuroglia cells associate with axons to produce

A

an insulating covering called a myelin sheath

176
Q

How is a myelin sheath produced?

A

produced by successive wrapping of the membranes around the axon

177
Q

Gaps in the myelin sheath are known as

A

nodes of Ranvier

178
Q

What is the purpose of nodes of Ranvier?

A

serve as sites for accelerating an impulse

179
Q

The nervous system is divided into what 2 domains?

A

the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS)

180
Q

The central nervous system includes (2)

A

the brain and the spinal cord

181
Q

The peripheral nervous system includes (2)

A

nerves and ganglia

182
Q

Nerves consist of

A

axons in the PNS that are bundled to gether

183
Q

Ganglia are collections of

A

neuron cell bodies

184
Q

The CNS is generally responsible for

A

integrating and interpreting input, such as the input from the senses

185
Q

The PNS is generally responsible for

A

communicating signals to and from the CNS and to the rest of the body

186
Q

What is the typical location of sensory neurons? (3)

A

eyes; ears; surface of skin

187
Q

What is the function of sensory neurons? (2)

A

receive information about the body’s condition and external environment; send impulses from sensory receptors to the CNS

188
Q

What are characteristic cell types of sensory neurons? (2)

A

rods + cones; muscle stretch receptors

189
Q

What is the typical location of motor neurons? (2)

A

brain and spinal cord; axons extending through the body

190
Q

What is the function of motor neurons? (2)

A

stimulate muscles and glands; conduct impulses out of the CNS toward muscles and glands

191
Q

What are the characteristic cell types of motor neurons?

A

motor neurons

192
Q

What is the typical location of interneurons? (2)

A

brain and spinal cord

193
Q

What is the function of interneurons? (2)

A

integrate information; conduct impulses between neurons within CNS

194
Q

What are the characteristic cell types of interneurons?

A

interneurons

195
Q

The general nervous system consists of (4)

A

brain, spinal cord, nerves, sensory organs

196
Q

What is the relationship between the sensory and nervous systems?

A

the sensory system is a subset of the nervous system

197
Q

What does the endocrine system do?

A

issues chemical signals that regulate and fine-tune chemical processes taking place in other organ systems

198
Q

The musculoskeletal system consists of what two interrelated organ systems?

A

muscular system + skeletal system

199
Q

The digestive system is responsible for

A

absorbing nutrients and eliminating solid wastes

200
Q

The circulatory system is responsible for (2)

A

pumping and distributing blood; carrying nutrients and other substances throughout the body

201
Q

The respiratory system is responsible for (2)

A

acquiring oxygen and expelling carbon dioxide

202
Q

The urinary system is responsible for

A

tightly regulating the concentration of bodily fluids

203
Q

What is the body’s first line of defense against external threats?

A

integumentary system

204
Q

What is the integumentary system?

A

intact skin

205
Q

What is the body’s second line of defense against external threats?

A

immune system

206
Q

What is formed when gametes fuse?

A

zygote

207
Q

Specialization of cell function is only possible when

A

extracellular conditions stay within narrow limits, including things like temperature/pH

208
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

dynamic constancy of the internal environment

209
Q

How does negative feedback work?

A

if conditions deviate too far from a set point, biochemical reactions are initiated to change conditions back toward the set point

210
Q

What is the set point?

A

the normal, existing point (analogous to the temperature setting on a thermostat)

211
Q

What is the stimulus?

A

deviation from a set point

212
Q

What is the sensor?

A

constantly monitors conditions

213
Q

What is the integrating center?

A

compares conditions to a set point based on a desired value

214
Q

What is the effector?

A

causes change to compensate for deviation

215
Q

What is the response?

A

move system towards set point

216
Q

Draw out the diagram at the top of page 876.

A

draw

217
Q

What is the standard human body temperature?

A

98.6 F

218
Q

What part of the brain is responsible for monitoring body temperature?

A

the hypothalamus

219
Q

How does the hypothalamus respond to increases in body temperature? (2)

A

promotes the dissipation of heat through sweating; dilation of blood vessels

220
Q

What is the purpose of antagonistic effectors?

A

affords a finer degree of control than by simply switching one effector on and off

221
Q

Give two examples of positive feedback mechanisms.

A

blood clotting, childbirth

222
Q

What is Q10?

A

the ratio between rates of a reaction at two temperatures that differ by 10 C

223
Q

What is the equation for Q10? (pg. 877)

A

write out

224
Q

For most enzymes, the Q10 value is

A

2, which means for every 10 C increase in temperature, the reaction rate doubles

225
Q

Most organisms have a Q10 metabolic rate of

A

2 or 3

226
Q

In some intertidal invertebrates, the Q10 metabolic value is

A

1

227
Q

Body heat =

A

heat produced + heat transferred

228
Q

What is radiation?

A

the transfer of heat by electromagnetic radiation, such as from the Sun

229
Q

Does radiation require direct contact?

A

no

230
Q

Heat transferred from hotter bodies to colder bodies is transferred via

A

radiation

231
Q

What is conduction?

A

the direct transfer of heat between two objects, usually from a hotter object to a colder object

232
Q

What is convection?

A

the transfer of heat by the movement of a gas or liquid

233
Q

Animals that regulated their body temperature about a set point were called

A

homeotherms

234
Q

Animals that allowed their body temperature to conform to the environment were called

A

poikilotherms

235
Q

Homeotherms were colloquially called

A

warm-blooded

236
Q

Poikilotherms were colloquially called

A

cold blooded

237
Q

What are endotherms?

A

animals that use metabolism to generate body heat and maintain their temperatures above the ambient temperature

238
Q

What are ectotherms?

A

animals with a relatively low metabolic rate that do not use metabolism to produce heat

239
Q

Which type of therm has a lower thermal conductivity?

A

endotherms, because of insulating mechanisms

240
Q

What are heterotherms?

A

animals that lie between endotherms and exotherms

241
Q

What is countercurrent heat exchange?

A

allows the cooler blood in the veins to be warmed through the radiation of heat from the warmer blood in the arteries

242
Q

Countercurrent heat exchange can be found in which animals?

A

tuna, swordfish, and some sharks

243
Q

Which type of therm has low metabolic rates?

A

ectotherms

244
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of being an ectotherm?

A

advantage is that they only need a low intake of energy, but are not capable of sustaining high-energy activity

245
Q

Dilating blood vessels has what effect on heat dissipation?

A

the dilation of blood vessels increases heat dissipation

246
Q

What is thermogenesis?

A

the use of normal energy metabolism to produce heat

247
Q

What are the two forms of thermogenesis?

A

shivering and non-shivering

248
Q

What happens in non-shivering thermogenesis? (3)

A

fat metabolism is altered to produce heat instead of ATP; takes place throughout the body; stored in brown fat in some mammals

249
Q

What happens in shivering thermogenesis? (2)

A

uses muscles to generate heat without producing useful work; involves the use of antagonistic muscles to produce little net movement but hydrolysis of ATP which generates heat

250
Q

Describe the sequence of events that occurs when the hypothalamus detects a temperature increase. (5)

A

neurons in hypothalamus detect change; leads to stimulation of heat-losing center in hypothalamus; nerves cause dilation of peripheral blood vessels; other nerves stimulate production of sweat; production of hormones that stimulate metabolism is inhibited

251
Q

Describe the sequence of events that occurs when the hypothalamus detects a temperature drop. (4)

A

antagonistic effects are produced by hypothalamus; under control of heat-promoting center; nerves constrict blood vessels and discourage sweating; adrenal medulla produces epinephrine + anterior pituitary produces TSH, which both stimulate metabolism

252
Q

What is a pyrogen?

A

a substance that causes a rise in temperature

253
Q

What is fever?

A

a result of resetting the body’s normal set point to a higher temperature

254
Q

What kind of bacteria are host to pyrogens?

A

gram-negative bacteria have components in their cell walls called endotoxins that act as pyrogens

255
Q

Pyrogens act on what?

A

the hypothalamus

256
Q

How can fevers be beneficial?

A

higher temperatures can inhibit bacteria growth

257
Q

What is torpor?

A

a state of dormancy that results when endotherms reduce metabolic rate and body temperature

258
Q

How is torpor useful?

A

reduces the need for food intake because torpor reduces metabolism

259
Q

What is hibernation?

A

an extreme state of torpor that can last for months

Biology 2312 (11 decks)

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