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Chapter-4 Flashcards

1
Q

The nature of war has changed and Airmen embrace change and innovation. How has the Air Force changed? (67)

A

It’s become a smaller, leaner and more capable force.

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2
Q

In the past, Airmen may have not understood or consistently applied __ . (67)

A

Doctrine.

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3
Q

Why must planning and employment of Air Forcedoctrine be understood and repeatable today? (67)

A

Because of the complex integration of our fighting elements, the meshing of joint and combined doctrine, and the uncertainty inherent in rapidly developing contingency operations.

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4
Q

Which publication is the premier statement of AirForce beliefs, the cornerstone of identity and the source of doctrine? (67)

A

AFDD 1, Air Force Basic Doctrine, Organization and Command. (It expresses our service’s identity.)

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5
Q

How does the Air Force present forces to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)? (67)

A

As Air and Space Expeditionary Forces (AEF).

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6
Q

List the three main principles that determine an Airand Space Expeditionary Force’s (AEF) structure and execution. (67)

A

1) Transparency; 2) predictability; and 3) equitability.

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7
Q

__ means every Airman should see and understandthe when, why and how about Air and Space Expeditionary Forces (AEF). (67)

A

Transparency. (Including their original structure, how AEFs deploy today and our future goals.)

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8
Q

Aligning Air and Space Expeditionary Forces (AEF)__ determines who goes first, defines battle rhythmand organizes structure during surges to support combatant commanders. (67)

A

AEF pairs/blocks.

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9
Q

__ operations are now routine, demanding cooperation, coordination and integration of all US military services. (67)

A

Joint operations. (Joint warfare is team warfare.)

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10
Q

Define Air Force doctrine. (67)

A

A statement of officially sanctioned beliefs, war fighting principles and terminology that describes and guides the proper military use of air, space and cyberspace power.

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11
Q

Doctrine provides a common frame of reference regarding the best way to do what? (67)

A

Prepare and employ Air Force forces.

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12
Q

Doctrine shapes how the Air Force organizes, trains, equips and sustains its forces. T/F (67)

A

True. (It prepares us for future uncertainties.)

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13
Q

Which statement is false - doctrine provides common understandings on which to base decisions; doctrine guides military forces’ actions in support of national objectives through fundamental principles; or doctrine provides unique terminology for air and space forces? (67)

A

It’s false that doctrine provides unique terminology for air and space forces. (It provides common terminology.)

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14
Q

Should you apply doctrine judiciously or follow it tothe letter? ( 67)

A

Use it judiciously. (Don’t dismiss it out of hand, but don’t follow it blindly.)

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15
Q

Doctrine gives Airmen an informed starting point for making decisions during continuous deployments. It solves up to __ % of basic issues. (67-68, 68-Note)

A

90%. (These issues include “What is my mission?”, “What should my organization look like?” and “What are the lines of authority?”)

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16
Q

Many things remain constant between operations;the remainder are usually tailored to a specific operation. T/F (68, 68-Note)

A

True.

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17
Q

Explain the differences between good and bad doctrine. (68)

A

Good doctrine informs, provides a sound departure point, allows flexibility and must be intelligently applied. Bad doctrine overly restricts creativity, can be corrupted by parochialism and other biases within or between services and can result in inefficiency and ineffectiveness.

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18
Q

Is doctrine about warfighting or about the physics ofthe domain within which a system operates? (68)

A

Warfighting.

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19
Q

Doctrine ties specific weapon systems to specifictasks or effects. T IF ( 68)

A

False. (It focuses on the desired outcome, not the platform.)

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20
Q

Doctrine focuses on the best means to obtainwarfighting effects, regardless of the domain by integrating air, space and __ domains. (68)

A

Cyberspace.

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21
Q

Does doctrine carve up the operational environment into service ownership or functional ownership? (68)

A

Neither. (It focuses on using domains properly, not who owns the domains.)

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22
Q

How does doctrine help organize a total, tailored,decisive Joint Force? (68)

A

Doctrine explains preferred organizational structures and effective command structures.

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23
Q

Describe how a Joint Force must be organized toachieve unity of effort and unity of command. (68)

A

It must have a single, cohesive organization with clearly defined lines of command and commanders with requisite authorities at appropriate levels.

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24
Q

Organizing according to doctrine helps the rapid__ of joint and service organizations during rapidlyevolving situations. (68)

A

Standup.

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25
Q

From a command and control viewpoint, segregation is the simplest, most efficient way to manage elements of a diverse Joint Force. T/F (68-69)

A

False. (Synergy and integration of effort are required.)

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26
Q

To achieve the Joint Force Commander’s (JFC) objectives, should Airmen have access to the entire theater of operations or should they be restricted from areas for fire support coordination measures? (68-69)

A

Airmen should have access to the entire theater of operations.

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27
Q

Segregating the operational environment into smaller areas of operation may create competition and reduce combat effectiveness for what type of capabilities? (69)

A

For scarce, high-demand, low-density capabilities.

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28
Q

Airmen should __ , not just synchronize, jointoperational planning. (69)

A

Integrate.

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29
Q

___ arranges military actions to produce maximumrelative combat power at a decisive place and time.(69)

A

Synchronization. (It deconflicts time and space between different units and helps prevent fratricide.)

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30
Q

__ arranges military forces and their actions sothey operate by engaging as a whole. (69)

A

Integration. (It considers priority and effect to efficiently and effectively use scarce resources.)

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31
Q

Does integration of forces work from the top downor from the bottom up? (69)

A

It starts at the top with a single cohesive plan and works downward. (Synchronization is bottom-up.)

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32
Q

Is synchronization or integration a “sum of theparts” model? (69)

A

Synchronization. (Integration may produce geometric results.)

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33
Q

Good doctrine doesn’t focus on the relative value of one service over another. What does it focus on instead? (69)

A

The right capability to best accomplish the mission. (It’s about what’s important, not who’s important.)

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34
Q

What should the proper mix of service componentswithin a Joint Force be tailored to? (69)

A

To the task. (Operations can be land-centric, air-centric or maritime-centric.)

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35
Q

What are the three levels of airpower doctrine? (69)

A

1) Basic; 2) operational; and 3) tactical.

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36
Q

Which publication is the Airman’s basic doctrine?(69)

A

AFDD I.

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37
Q

Which level of doctrine states the fundamental,broad and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use, presentation and organization of Air Force capabilities? (69)

A

Basic doctrine. (It is the foundation for all Air Force doctrine and sets the tone and vision for future doctrine.)

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38
Q

Basic doctrine describes and guides the “____properties” of airpower from the Airman’s perspective. (69)

A

Elemental properties.

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39
Q

Which level of doctrine describes the organization of Air Force forces in more detail and applies basic doctrine’s principles to military actions? (69)

A

Operational doctrine.

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40
Q

Which publications contain operational doctrine?(69)

A

AFDD X-0 series publications - AFDD 2-0, 3-0, 4-0 and 6-0.

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41
Q

Operational doctrine guides the organization andemployment of forces within what four contexts? (69)

A

Within 1) distinct objectives; 2) force capabilities; 3) broad functional areas; and 4) operational environments.

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42
Q

Operational doctrine develops missions and tasksthat must be executed through __ doctrine. (69)

A

Tactical doctrine.

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43
Q

How do the Air Force Tactics, Techniques and Procedures 3-series manuals codify tactical doctrine? (69)

A

As TIP.

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44
Q

Tactical doctrine describes the proper employmentof specific Air Force assets to accomplish detailed objectives. Does it deal with employing assets individually or in concert with other assets? (69)

A

Both individually and in concert. (It is closely associated with employment of technology and emerging tactics.)

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45
Q

__ considers particular objectives and conditions,and describes how Air Force assets accomplish the tactical objectives. (69)

A

Tactical doctrine.

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46
Q

Which level of doctrine changes relatively slowly?Which may change rapidly? (69)

A

Basic doctrine changes slowly. Tactical doctrine may change rapidly.

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47
Q

What are the four key doctrine concepts? (70-75)

A

1) The Airman’s perspective; 2) Principles of war; 3) Tenets of airpower; and 4) Air Force functions.

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48
Q

What term did General Henry H. “Hap” Arnoldcoin for the unique Airman’s perspective? (70)

A

Airmindedness.

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49
Q

What unique aspects of airpower does the Airman’s perspective reflect? (70)

A

The range, speed and capabilities of airpower, as well as its unique threats and survival imperatives.

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50
Q

Control of the vertical dimension is generally a neeessary precondition for control of the surface. T IF (70)

A

True.

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51
Q

Describe the first mission of an air force. (70)

A

To defeat or neutralize enemy air forces so friendly land, sea, air and space operations can proceed unhindered - and to protect its own military forces and critical vulnerabilities from air attack.

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52
Q

Airpower is an inherently __ force, for both warand non-lethal activities. (70)

A

Strategic. (War and peace are decided, organized, planned, supplied and commanded at the strategic level.)

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53
Q

Airpower can simultaneously exploit the principlesof __ and __J quickly concentrating power at anypoint. (70)

A

Mass and maneuver.

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54
Q

Airpower dominates the fourth dimension, time. Bycompressing events, how does it affect the adversary? (70)

A

It produces physical and psychological shock.

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55
Q

Airpower applies force against which facets of anenemy’s power - diplomatic, informational, military,economic or social? (70)

A

Against any or all, simultaneously or separately. (Airpower can act independently or integrated with surface power.)

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56
Q

How does airpower create a smaller cultural footprint than surface forces when deployed? (70)

A

It can operate from bases over the horizon or from a few in country bases.

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57
Q

Speed, range and flexibility make airpower the most versatile component of military power. What is this versatility derived from? (70)

A

The inherent characteristics of air forces and how they are organized and controlled.

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58
Q

All six aspects of airpower are essential, interdependent and rely on the performance of Airmen. List these aspects. (70)

A

1) Capabilities; 2) people; 3) weapons; 4) bases; 5) logistics; and 6) all supporting infrastructure.

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59
Q

Weapon choice is key. How should weapons be selected? (70)

A

Based on their ability to influence an adversary’s capability and will.

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60
Q

Airpower mobility eliminates the need to considerthe availability and operability of suitable bases during employment planning and execution. T/F (70)

A

False. (Supporting bases are essential to launch, recover and sustain airpower and can dominate planning and execution.)

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61
Q

Airpower’s unique characteristics require it to be__ controlled by Airmen. (70)

A

Centrally

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62
Q

With regard to airpower, why must Airmen take abroader view of war? (70)

A

Because the weapons they command have effects at broader levels of war. (It can quickly intervene anywhere for strategic or tactical purposes.)

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63
Q

Which key doctrine concept encompasses “thoseaspects of warfare that are universally true and relevant,” providing general guidance on achieving military victory? (71)

A

Principles of war.

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64
Q

Unity of command is one of the nine principles ofwar. List the other eight. (71-73)

A

2) Objective; 3) offensive; 4) mass; 5) maneuver; 6) economy of force; 7) security; 8) surprise; and 9) simplicity.

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65
Q

Unity of command (a principle of war) concentrateseffort for all objectives under how many commanders? (71)

A

One.

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66
Q

Which principle of war shapes priorities and avoidsfragmenting force elements? (71)

A

Objective. (It directs operations toward a defined and attainable goal that contributes to strategic, operational and tactical aims.)

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67
Q

In application, objective (as a principle of war) refers to __ of effort. (71)

A

Unity of effort. (Political and military goals should be complementary and clear.)

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68
Q

Name the principle of war that seizes, retains andexploits the initiative. (71)

A

Offensive.

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69
Q

The offensive principle of war holds that the _must be seized quickly, retained and fully exploited, so joint forces can dictate operations. (71)

A

Initiative.

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70
Q

Airpower is best used defensively. T/F (71)

A

False. (Success in war is generally only attained while on the offensive.)

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71
Q

What aspects of attacking airpower forces give them a significant offensive advantage over surface forces and defending air forces? (71)

A

Speed and range.

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72
Q

Which principle of war concentrates combat powerat the most advantageous place and time to achieve decisive results? (71)

A

Mass.

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73
Q

Airpower achieves mass faster than surface forces.What do air and space forces rely on instead of overwhelming forces and materiel? (72)

A

Effectiveness of attack. (Using speed, range, flexibility, accuracy and lethality of precision weapons, and information technologies.)

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74
Q

In the past, mass was achieved when hundreds ofairplanes attacked one or two major targets daily, gradually attaining cumulative effects. How does that differ from today’s concept of mass using precision weapons? (72)

A

Today the platform-to-target ratio is inverted since modem precision weapons are far more destructive and permit a single aircraft to strike several targets.

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75
Q

Which principle of war places the enemy at a disadvantage through the flexible application of combat power in a multidimensional combat space? (72)

A

Maneuver.

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76
Q

How does airpower use maneuver (as a principle of war) to force the enemy to react? (72)

A

Airpower allows engagement anywhere, from any direction, at any time. (Simultaneously applying mass and maneuver is critical.)

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77
Q

The principle of war “ __ of force” judiciouslyemploys and distributes forces, allocating minimum essential resources to secondary efforts. (72)

A

“Economy of force.”

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78
Q

Guard against __ , using excessive force that canprevent gaining or maintaining an operation’s legitimacy and support. (72)

A

Overkill.

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79
Q

What is the greatest vulnerability of airpower employment? (72)

A

Its misuse or misdirection, which can reduce its effectiveness more than enemy action.

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80
Q

Which principle of war’s goal is to never let the enemy acquire an unexpected advantage? (72)

A

Security. (Gaining and maintaining appropriate control over air, space and cyberspace domains.)

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81
Q

Where is airpower most vulnerable to attack? (72)

A

On the ground. (Fixed bases are especially vulnerable.)

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82
Q

Describe four conditions that increase the need forsecurity when forces operate during peace support or crisis situations. (72)

A

1) Austere and unimproved locations; 2) small units; 3) crowded urban setting; or 4) threats from individuals, groups, military or paramilitary units.

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83
Q

Security may be obtained by staying beyond the enemy’s reach. T/F (72)

A

True. (Airpower is uniquely capable of this.)

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84
Q

Security must embrace both physical security andsecurity of the __ environment. (73)

A

Information environment. (With advanced communications and computer technologies, this is even more crucial.)

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85
Q

Attacking the enemy at a time, place or in a mannerfor which they are not prepared demonstrates which principle of war? (73)

A

Surprise. (Air forces achieve surprise more readily than surface forces.)

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86
Q

Which principle of war avoids unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning and conducting operations? (73)

A

Simplicity.

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87
Q

List two ways to overcome complexity in keepingwith simplicity as a principle of war. (73)

A

Any two of the following: 1) simple and direct guidance, plans and orders; 2) common equipment; 3) common understanding of service and joint doctrine; 4) joint exercises and training that make procedures familiar; and 5) unambiguous organizational and command relationships.

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88
Q

The __ of airpower are fundamental guidingtruths specific to airpower. (73)

A

Tenets.

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89
Q

Persistence is one of the seven tenets of airpower.List the other six. (73-75)

A

2) Centralized control and decentralized execution; 3) flexibility and versatility; 4) synergistic effects; 5) concentration; 6) priority; and 7) balance.

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90
Q

The tenets of airpower are interconnected, overlapping and often interlocking. Which tenet is the keystone of success? (73)

A

Centralized control and decentralized execution.

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91
Q

As with the principles of war, why is an Airman’sexpertise required to apply the tenets of airpower? (73)

A

Because it requires informed judgment, skillful blending to tailor tenets to the ever-changing operational environment, and balancing the competing demands of principles and tenets.

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92
Q

Which tenet is the fundamental organizing principleof airpower? (73)

A

Centralized control and decentralized execution.

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93
Q

Who should control airpower to maintain a broad,strategic perspective? (73)

A

A single Airman.

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94
Q

Who does decentralized execution delegate authority to? (73)

A

To designated lower-level commanders and other tactical level decision makers.

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95
Q

List several benefits of decentralized execution. (73)

A

It 1) achieves effective span of control; 2) fosters disciplined initiative, situational responsiveness and tactical flexibility; and 3) allows subordinates to exploit opportunities in fluid situations.

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96
Q

Under decentralized execution, subordinates should be allowed to take the initiative, with what caveat? (74)

A

Their decisions should support the commander’s intent and meet campaign objectives.

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97
Q

The centralized control and execution tenet ofairpower provides a critical broad global or theater-wide focus while allowing operational flexibility to meet military objectives. (73)

A

Decentralized. (The most effective employment of air and space power.)

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98
Q

Give an example of a front-line decisionmaker whoshould make on-scene decisions during complex, rapidly unfolding operations under decentralized execution. (73)

A

Strike package leaders, air battle managers or forward air controllers.

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99
Q

Centralized execution will not stand up in a fullystressed, dynamic combat environment, despite modern data exploitation and automated decision aids. T/F (73)

A

True. (No one person can achieve and maintain detailed situational awareness with many simultaneous engagements throughout a large area.)

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100
Q

Should centralized execution become the norm forall air operations? (73-74)

A

No.

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101
Q

Which aspect of the tenet of flexibility and versatility exploits mass and maneuver simultaneously? (74)

A

Flexibility.

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102
Q

Explain the difference between flexibility and versatility as they relate to the tenets of air and space power. (74)

A

Flexibility allows a quick and decisive shift from one campaign objective to another. Versatility is the ability to effectively employ airpower at strategic, operational and tactical levels.

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103
Q

Which tenet of airpower properly applies coordinated force to produce effects that exceed those of individually employed forces? (74)

A

Synergistic effects.

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104
Q

Destroying a large number of targets through attrition warfare is rarely the key objective in modern war. What is? (74)

A

The precise, coordinated application of various elements of airpower and surface power to bring disproportionate pressure on enemy leaders to comply with our national will.

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105
Q

Air, space and cyberspace operations may be conducted continuously against a broad spectrum of targets. Airpower forces can visit and revisit wide ranges of targets nearly at will. These are examples of which tenet of airpower? (74)

A

Persistence.

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106
Q

Space systems offer potential persistent overheadaccess. What may do the same within the atmosphere? (74)

A

Unmanned aircraft systems.

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107
Q

What is the goal of the persistence tenet of airpower? (74)

A

To pressure enemies and deny them time to circumvent our strategic efforts.

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108
Q

Give an example of a persistent operation. (74)

A

Examples include I) maintaining a continuous flow of materiel to peacetime distressed areas; 2) constantly monitoring adversaries to ensure they cannot conduct actions counter to those agreed upon; 3) assuring targets are kept continually out of commission; or 4) ensuring resources and facilities are denied to an enemy or provided to an ally during a specified time.

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109
Q

Why is the tenet concentration crucial for Airmen?(74)

A

Because concentrating power at the decisive time and place is crucial and Airmen must guard against inadvertently diluting and fragmenting airpower due to high demand.

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110
Q

Why must airpower be prioritized? (74)

A

So demands for forces don’t overwhelm air commanders.

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111
Q

Prioritizing applies the Airman’s strategic perspective along with which other tenet and which three principles? (74-75)

A

The tenet of concentration and the principles of mass, offensive and economy of force.

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112
Q

List the five considerations an air component commander should balance against the risk to friendly airpower forces. (75)

A

1) Combat opportunity; 2) necessity; 3) effectiveness; 4) efficiency; and 5) accomplishing assigned objectives.

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113
Q

Who is uniquely and best suited to determine theproper theater-wide balance between offensive and defensive operations and among strategic, operational and tactical applications? (75)

A

An Airman.

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114
Q

To describe what airpower brings to the nation,Airmen should first understand the __ among roles,missions and functions. (75)

A

Distinctions. (Although the terms are interchangeable, each has a specific meaning.)

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115
Q

Roles are broad and enduring purposes for whichthe Services were established by law. What is the role of the Air Force? (75)

A

To organize, train and equip aviat10n forces primarily for prompt and sustained offensive and defensive air operations.

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116
Q

Missions are the tasks assigned by the President orSecDef to the Combatant Commanders (CCDR). What do the CCDRs do with them? (75)

A

They I) develop mission statements, operational objectives and concepts of operations; and 2) assign specific tasks to subordinate commanders, who develop component mission statements, objectives and concepts of operations at their level.

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117
Q

Functions are the specific responsibilities that enable the Services to fulfill their legally established roles. What are Air Force functions based on? (75)

A

The statutory responsibilities outlined in I 0 US Code (U.S.C.) and DoDD 5100.01, Functions of the Department of Defense and its Major Components. (They are known as “organize, train and equip” activities.)

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118
Q

What do the “organize, train and equip” statutoryresponsibilities specifically include? (75)

A

1) Recruiting; 2) organizing; 3) supplying; 4) equipping; 5) training; 6) servicing; 7) mobilizing; 8) demobilizing; 9) administering; 10) maintaining; 11) construction, outfitting and repair of military equipment; 12) construction, maintenance and repair of buildings, structures and utilities; 13) acquisition, management and disposal; and 14) management of real property or natural resources.

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119
Q

The Air Force recently streamlined its six distinctivecapabilities and 17 operational functions into __ core functions that outline how the Air Force contributes to national security. (75)

A
  1. (Not 13.)
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120
Q

What are the 12 Air Force core functions? (75-81)

A

1) Nuclear Deterrence Operations (NDO); 2) Air Superiority; 3) Space Superiority; 4) Cyberspace Superiority; 5) Command and Control (C2); 6) Global Integrated Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (JSR); 7) Global Precision Attack; 8) Special Operations; 9) Rapid Global Mobility; 10) Personnel Recovery (PR); 11) Agile Combat Support (ACS); and 12) Building Partnerships.

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121
Q

The 12 Air Force core functions, by themselves, arenot doctrinal constructs. T/F (75)

A

True

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122
Q

The purpose of the Nuclear Deterrence Operations(NDO) core function is to operate, maintain and minimize use of secure nuclear forces. T/F (75)

A

False. (The purpose is to operate, maintain and secure nuclear forces to deter adversaries from acting against vital US interests. Failing that, it is to respond with appropriate nuclear options.)

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123
Q

What are the three subelements of Nuclear Deterrence Operations (NDO)? (75-76)

A

1) Assure/Dissuade/Deter; 2) Nuclear Strike; and 3) Nuclear Surety.

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124
Q

Describe the Assure/Dissuade/Deter subelement ofNuclear Deterrence Operations (NDO). (75-76)

A

It maintains and presents deterrent capabilities through visible demonstrations and exercises, which 1) assure allies; 2) dissuade others from acquiring, proliferating or delivering WMDs; and 3) deter adversaries.

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125
Q

The Nuclear Strike subelement of Nuclear Deterrence Operations (NDO) is the ability of nuclear forces to rapidly and accurately devastate what kind of targets? (76)

A

Targets the enemy holds dear.

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126
Q

The Nuclear Surety subelement of Nuclear Deterrence Operations (NDO) ensures the accuracy of nuclear operations. T/F (76)

A

False. (It assures their safety, security and effectiveness.)

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127
Q

What is the core function Air Superiority? (76)

A

The degree of dominance in air battle that permits land, sea, air and special operations without prohibitive interference by the opposing force.

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128
Q

Name the three subelements of Air Superiority. (76)

A

I) Offensive Counterair (OCA); 2) Defensive Counterair (DCA); and 3) Airspace Control.

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129
Q

Define the Offensive Counterair (OCA) subelement of Air Superiority. (76)

A

Offensive operations to destroy, disrupt or neutralize enemy aircraft, missiles, launch platforms and supporting structures and systems, before and after launch, as close to the source as possible.

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130
Q

The Defensive Counterair (DCA) subelement of AirSuperiority is all the defensive measures designed to detect, identify, intercept, destroy or negate enemy forces attempting to penetrate or attack through enemy airspace. T/F (76)

A

False. (Enemy forces must be attempting to penetrate or attack through friendly airspace.)

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131
Q

The Airspace Control subelement of Air Superiorityis a process used to increase __ by promoting safe, efficient and flexible use of airspace. (76)

A

Operational effectiveness.

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132
Q

The __ core function is the degree of dominancein space that permits land, sea, air, space and special operations without prohibitive interference. (76-77)

A

Space Superiority.

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133
Q

The Space Superiority core function consists of thesubelements: Space Force Enhancement, Space Force Application and Space Control. T/F (77)

A

True.

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134
Q

The Space Force Enhancement subelement of Space Superiority is the combat support operations and force multiplying capabilities from space systems. What do they improve? (77)

A

The effectiveness of military forces. (They also support other intelligence, civil and commercial users.)

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135
Q

The Space Force Application subelement of SpaceSuperiority is combat operations in, through and from space to influence the __ and __ of the conflict.(77)

A

Course and outcome.

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136
Q

The Space Control subelement of Space Superiority consists of combat support operations and force multiplying capabilities from space systems. T/F (77)

A

False. (It consists of operations to ensure freedom of action in space and, when directed, deny access to adversaries.)

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137
Q

The Cyberspace Superiority core function is the operational advantage in, through and from cyberspace to do what? (77)

A

Conduct operations at a given time and domain without prohibitive interference.

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138
Q

Name the three subelements of the Cyberspace Superiority core function. (77)

A

1) Cyberspace Force Application; 2) Cyberspace Defense; and 3) Cyberspace Support.

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139
Q

The Cyberspace Force Application subelement ofCyberspace Superiority is combat operations in, through and from cyberspace to achieve military objectives and influence __ . (77)

A

The conflict’s course and outcome by taking decisive action against approved targets.

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140
Q

The Cyberspace Defense subelement of Cyberspace Superiority passively, actively and dynamically employs capabilities to respond to imminent or ongoing actions against which organizations? (77)

A

The Air Force and its protected networks, portion of the Global Information Grid or expeditionary communications.

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141
Q

The Cyberspace Support subelement of Cyberspace Superiority ensures information integrity and availability in, through and from Air Force-controlled __ and its interconnected analog and digital portion of battle space. (77)

A

Infrastructure,

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142
Q

Inherent in the mission of the Cyberspace Supportsubelement of Cyberspace Superiority is the ability to do what? (77)

A

Establish, extend, secure, protect and defend in order to sustain assigned networks and missions, including protection measures against supply chain components; critical Command and Control (C2) networks and communication links; and nuclear C2 networks.

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143
Q

The core function, Command and Control (C2), isthe exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces to accomplish the mission. T/F (77)

A

True.

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144
Q

List and briefly describe the three subelements ofCommand and Control (C2). (77-78)

A

1) Strategic Level C2 determines national or multinational security objectives and guidance, and develops resources to accomplish them; 2) Operational Level C2 plans, conducts, sustains and assesses campaigns and major operations to accomplish strategic goals; and 3) Tactical Level C2 is where individual battles and engagements are fought

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145
Q

What is the core function, Global Integrated Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (JSR)? (78)

A

The synchronization and integration of the planning and operation of sensors, assets and processing, exploitation, dissemination systems across the globe to conduct current and future operations,

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146
Q

Name the five subelements of the Global IntegratedIntelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (JSR) core function. (78)

A

1) Planning and Directing; 2) Collection; 3) Processing and Exploitation; 4) Analysis and Production; and 5) Dissemination and Integration.

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147
Q

The Planning and Directing subelement of GlobalIntegrated Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR) determines intelligence requirements, develops intelligence architecture and prepares a collection plan. What other activity does it perform? (78)

A

It issues orders and requests to information collection agencies.

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148
Q

The Collection subelement of Global Integrated Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR) acquires information. To whom is it provided? (78)

A

Processing elements,

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149
Q

Describe the Processing and Exploitation subelement of Global Integrated Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (JSR). (78)

A

The conversion of collected information into suitable forms to produce intelligence.

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150
Q

The Analysis and Production subelement of GlobalIntegrated Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR) only involves interpreting data and preparing intelligence products in support of user requirements. T/F (78)

A

False. (It also involves integrating, evaluating and analyzing source data,)

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151
Q

Delivering and applying intelligence to missions,tasks and functions describes which of Global Integrated Intelligence, Surveillance, Reconnaissance’s (ISR) subelements? (78)

A

Dissemination and Integration,

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152
Q

The Global Precision Attack core function is the ability to hold at risk or strike any target rapidly and persistently, creating swift, decisive and precise effects across a single targeted domain. T/F (78)

A

False. (The effects are created across multiple domains.)

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153
Q

Name the three subelements of the Global Precision Attack core function. (78)

A

1) Strategic Attack; 2) Air Interdiction; and 3) Close Air Support.

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154
Q

The Strategic Attack subelement of Global Precision Attack is offensive action selected to achieve strategic objectives. (78)

A

National.

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155
Q

The Air Interdiction subelement of Global PrecisionAttack consists of air operations to divert, disrupt, delay or destroy the enemy’s military potential or to achieve Joint Force Commander (JFC) objectives. When must this be done? (78)

A

Before enemy forces can be effective.

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156
Q

Air action by fixed- and rotary-winged aircraftagainst targets in close proximity to friendly forces makes up the __ subelement of Global Precision Attack. (78)

A

Close Air Support.

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157
Q

Which subelement of Global Precision Attack doesnot necessitate that friendly forces integrate their fire and movement with air missions? Which subelement does? (78)

A

Air Interdiction; Close Air Support.

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158
Q

Describe the Special Operations core function. (78)

A

Operations conducted in hostile, denied or politically sensitive environments to achieve military, diplomatic, informational and economic objectives by employing military capabilities without conventional force requirements.

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159
Q

How do special operations differ from conventionaloperations? (79)

A

They differ in degree of physical and political risk, operational techniques, mode of employment, independence from friendly support and dependence on detailed operational intelligence and indigenous assets.

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160
Q

List the ten subelements of the Special Operationscore function. (79)

A

1) Agile Combat Support; 2) Aviation Foreign Internal Defense; 3) Battlefield Air Operations; 4) Command and Control (C2); 5) Information Operations; 6) Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (lSR); 7) Military Information Support Operations; 8) Precision Strike; 9) Specialized Air Mobility; and 10) Specialized Refueling.

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161
Q

What does the Special Operations subelement, Agile Combat Support, create, prepare, deploy, employ, sustain and protect? (79)

A

Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC) Airmen, assets and capabilities.

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162
Q

The Aviation Foreign Internal Defense subelement of Special Operations directly executes US security and foreign policy as lead airpower elements that shape the battlefield. What operations do they conduct? (79)

A

Stability operations that enable global reach and strike.

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163
Q

The Battlefield Air Operations subelement of Special Operations includes unique __ provided by Special Operations Forces (SOF) Battlefield Airmen. (79)

A

Combat-proven abilities.

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164
Q

In the Battlefield Air Operations subelement of Special Operations, Special Operations Forces (SOF) Battlefield Airmen integrate, synchronize and control manned and unmanned capabilities to achieve difficult objectives. T/F (79)

A

False. (They achieve tactical, operational and strategic objectives.)

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165
Q

The Command and Control (C2) subelement of Special Operations includes a commander’s authority and direction over assigned and attached forces by trained, organized and __ C2 elements. (79)

A

Equipped.

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166
Q

Describe the Information Operations subelement ofSpecial Operations. (79)

A

Integrated employment of influence, electronic warfare and network warfare operations to influence, disrupt, corrupt or usurp adversarial decisionmaking while protecting one’s own.

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167
Q

The Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance(ISR) subelement of Special Operations is the synchronization and integration of various processes to provide actionable intelligence, weather, environmental awareness and prediction. T/F (79)

A

True.

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168
Q

What five processes does the Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) subelement of Special Operations synchronize and integrate with platforms and sensors? (79)

A

l) Planning and direction; 2) collection; 3) processing and exploitation; 4) analysis; and 5) production and dissemination.

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169
Q

The Military Information Support Operationssubelement of Special Operations includes planned operations to convey selected information and indictors to influence foreign __ and __ . (79)

A

Attitudes and behavior.

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170
Q

The Precision Strike subelement of Special Operations is the integrated capability to find, fix, track, target, engage and assess targets. What does it use to do so? (79)

A

A weapons system or combination of systems.

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171
Q

Define the Specialized Air Mobility subelement ofSpecial Operations. (79)

A

Rapid global infiltration, exfiltration and resupply of personnel,equipment and materiel using specialized systems andtactics.

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172
Q

The Specialized Refueling subelement of Special Operationsinvolves rapid, __ refueling using specializedsystems and tactics. (79)

A

Global.

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173
Q

What is the core function Rapid Global Mobility?

A

The timely deployment, employment, sustainment, augmentation and redeployment of military forces and capabilities across the Range of Military Operations (ROMO).

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174
Q

Name the three subelements of the core functionRapid Global Mobility. (79-80)

A

1) Airlift; 2) Air Refueling; and 3) Aeromedical Evacuation.

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175
Q

The Airlift subelement of Rapid Global Mobilityinvolves transporting and delivering forces and materiel through the air to support strategic, operational or __ objectives. (79)

A

Tactical.

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176
Q

Define the Air Refueling subelement of Rapid Global Mobility. (80)

A

Refueling by another aircraft inflight.

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177
Q

In the Aeromedical Evacuation subelement of Rapid Global Mobility, patients are transported by air to and between Medical Treatment Facilities (MTF). T/F (80)

A

True

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178
Q

The core function, Personnel Recovery (PR), is thesum of military, diplomatic and civil efforts to recover and reintegrate __ personnel. (80)

A

Isolated.

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179
Q

Name the five subelements of the core function, PersonnelRecovery (PR). (80)

A

1) Combat Search and Rescue; 2) Civil Search and Rescue; 3) Disaster Response; 4) Humanitarian Assistance Operations; and 5) Medical Evacuation/Casualty Evacuation.

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180
Q

What is the purpose of the Tactics, Techniques andProcedures (TTP) in the Combat Search and Rescue subelement of Personnel Recovery (PR)? (80)

A

Recovering isolated personnel during combat.

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181
Q

Which subelement of Personnel Recovery (PR) is the Air Force’s primary method of recovering isolated personnel during combat? (80)

A

Combat Search and Rescue.

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182
Q

The Personnel Recovery (PR) subelement, CivilSearch and Rescue, uses resources to search for and rescue distressed persons on land or at sea in what type of environment? (80)

A

A permissive one.

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183
Q

The Personnel Recovery (PR) subelement, DisasterResponse, consists of flexible, rapidly deployable ground rescue forces who assist US government agencies and embassies during disasters. T/F (80)

A

False. (It include air and ground forces.)

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184
Q

The Humanitarian Assistance Operations Vsubelement of Personnel Recovery (PR) includes programs to relieve or reduce results of disasters or human pain, disease, __ or privation. (80)

A

Hunger.

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185
Q

Humanitarian assistance provided by US forces islimited in __ and __ . (80)

A

Scope and duration.

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186
Q

The Medical Evacuation/Casualty Evacuationsubelement of Personnel Recovery (PR) details the use of predesignated, temporarily equipped and staffed evacuation crafts. What kind of medical care do they provide?(80)

A

En route medical care.

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187
Q

The Medical Evacuation/Casualty Evacuationsubelement of Personnel Recovery (PR) involves the __ movement of casualties aboard ships, land vehicles or aircraft. (80)

A

Unregulated.

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188
Q

The Agile Combat Support (ACS) core functionfields, protects and sustains Air Force forces across the Range of Military Operations (ROMO) to achieve individual effects. T IF (80)

A

False. (It achieves joint effects.)

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189
Q

What are the seven subelements of the Agile Combat Support (ACS) core function? (80-81)

A

I) Ready the Total Force; 2) Prepare the Battlespace; 3) Position the Total Force; 4) Protect the Total Force; 5) Employ Combat Support Forces; 6) Sustain the Total Force; and 7) Recover the Total Force.

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190
Q

List the three mission elements of the Agile CombatSupport (ACS) subelement, Ready the Total Force. (80)

A

1) Organizing, training and equipping forces; 2) establishing quality of life and maintaining core security; and 3) fielding and planning for use of operational and support forces to meet global mission requirements.

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191
Q

What are the three mission elements of the AgileCombat Support (ACS) subelement, Prepare theBattlespace? (80)

A

I) Assessing, planning and posturing for rapid employment; 2) prepositioning resources and conditioning locations to meet closure timing; and 3) establishing sustainment levels for potential operations.

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192
Q

The Agile Combat Support (ACS) subelement, Position the Total Force, includes the mission elements: 1) preparing to deploy, deploying, receiving and bedding down tailored and prioritized forces; 2) establishing initial operations and support cadres in a joint operations area; and 3) distributing prepositioned resources. Name the other three. (80)

A

4) Establishing initial reachback connectivity; 5) securing operation locations; and 6) preparing for mission operations.

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193
Q

What are the key focus areas of the Agile CombatSupport (ACS) subelement, Protect the Total Force? (81)

A

Personnel, critical assets and information.

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194
Q

The Agile Combat Support (ACS) subelement, Employ Combat Support Forces, includes the mission elements: 1) engaging support forces in support of mission operations; 2) initializing, launching, recovering and regenerating operational elements; 3) executing support through __ relationships; and 4) commencing reachback operations to strategic levels of support. (81)

A

Supporting-supported

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195
Q

Name the two mission elements of the Agile Combat Support (ACS) subelement, Sustain the Total Force. (81)

A

1) Producing assured capacities and levels of support; and 2) accomplishing long-term mastery of an operational environment, peacetime and wartime.

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196
Q

How does the Agile Combat Support (ACS)subelement, Sustain the Total Force, accomplish longterm mastery of an operational environment? (81)

A

With persistent and effective materiel and personnel support through local and reachback processes.

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197
Q

What are the four mission elements of the AgileCombat Support (ACS) subelement, Recover the Total Force? (81)

A

1) preparing forces to remain in place, redeploy, relocate and be reconstituted to prescribed levels ofreadiness; 2) restoring operating locations and environments to planned conditions; 3) protecting the dynamic levels of force structure; and 4) ensuring mission elements can be effectively applied at the direction of national leadership.

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198
Q

The core function involves interacting withinternational Airmen and other relevant actors to develop, guide and sustain relationships for mutual benefit and security. (81)

A

Building Partnerships.

199
Q

Through words and deeds, most interaction in theBuilding Partnerships core function creates trust-based relationships for mutual benefit. T/F (81)

A

True

200
Q

What are the two subelements of the core function,Building Partnerships? (81)

A

1) Communicate; and 2) Shape.

201
Q

The Communicate subelement of Building Partnerships develops and presents information to domestic audiences to improve understanding. For what reason does it develop and present information to foreign adversary audiences? (81)

A

To affect perceptions, will, behavior and capabilities, thereby furthering US or global security.

202
Q

Define the Shape subelement of Building Partnerships. (81)

A

Conducting actlv1t1es to affect perceptions, will, behavior and capabilities of partners, military forces and relevant populations to further US and global security.

203
Q

Define Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF)doctrine. (81)

A

Those beliefs, distilled through experience and passed on from one generation of Airmen to the next, that guide what we do; codified practices on how best to employ air and space power.

204
Q

What is the mechanism for managing and scheduling forces for expeditionary use? (81)

A

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF).

205
Q

The Air Force organizes, deploys and employs using organizational principles based on __ . (81)

A

Doctrine.

206
Q

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is a means to provide forces and support on a rotational and more predictable basis. T/F (81)

A

True

207
Q

What kind of period do units undergo before entering another deployment/mobilization vulnerability period? (81)

A

A period of dwell.

208
Q

What are the four major elements of the Air andSpace Expeditionary Force (AEF) structure? (81-82)

A

1) A readily available force; 2) an enabler force; 3) in-place support; and 4) an institutional force.

209
Q

What major element of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) structure provides the Air Force’s sustainment capability to comply with federal law (10 US Code (U.S.C.))? (82)

A

An institutional force.

210
Q

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) is aforce management tool that establishes a predictable, standardized battle __ . (82)

A

Rhythm.

211
Q

What does a standardized battle rhythm ensure forrotational forces? (81)

A

That they are properly organized, trained, equipped and ready to sustain capabilities while responding to emerging crises.

212
Q

The Air Force supports global Combatant Commander (CCDR) requirements through a combination of what forces that may be forward deployed, transient or operating from home station? (81)

A

1) Assigned; 2) attached (rotational); and 3) mobility forces.

213
Q

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) operates on a __ -month life cycle. (81)

A

24-month.

214
Q

What does an Air and Space Expeditionary Force(AEF) life cycle include? (81)

A

Periods of 1) normal training; 2) preparation; and 3) deployment vulnerability. (Each tempo band operates under a different battle rhythm.)

215
Q

How long is the baseline Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) vulnerability period? (82)

A

Six months. (This facilitates readiness to respond to rotational and Operations Plan (OPLAN) requirements.)

216
Q

When are Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF)forces on-call? (82)

A

At any time during their postured vulnerability period.

217
Q

Are Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) forcesvulnerable for Operations Plan (OPLAN) requirements immediately following redeployment? (82)

A

Yes.

218
Q

0rganizing, equipping, resourcing and training are__ to generate ready forces for Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) operations. (82)

A

Synchronized.

219
Q

How long are the blocks for tempo bands “B”through “E”? (82)

A

Six months.

220
Q

What are the deploy-to-dwell ratios for tempo bands “B” through “E”? (82)

A

I :4, I :3, I :2 and 1: 1, respectively.

221
Q

Tempo bands and enabler forces contain both active component and Air Reserve Component (ARC) forces. TIF (82)

A

True

222
Q

Blocks are 6-month vulnerability periods within theAir and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) tempo bands when forces possess necessary capabilities to meet __ requirements. (82)

A

Combatant Commander (CCDR).

223
Q

What does the Air Force identify as key components of the readily available force when fulfilling the SecDers requirements? (82)

A

Enabler and institutional forces.

224
Q

A(n) force includes common user assets thatprovide support to authorized organizations within and outside the DoD. (82)

A

Enabler force.

225
Q

List two common user assets included in an enabler force.(82)

A

Any two of the following forces: 1) global mobility; 2) Special Operation Forces (SOF); 3) personnel recovery; 4) space; and 5) other uniquely categorized.

226
Q

Most High Demand/Low Supply (HD/LS) assets arepostured as enabler forces and rotate as operational requirements dictate. What two other systems are included in this posturing? (82)

A

The National Air Mobility System and Theater Air Control System {TACS).

227
Q

Enabler forces can easily align in one of the tempobands. T/F (82)

A

False. (However, every effort must be made to develop a sustainable plan.)

228
Q

A(n) __ force consists of those forces assigned toorganizations responsible to carry out the SECAF 10 US Code (U.S.C.) functions at the Air Force level. (82)

A

Institutional force.

229
Q

Who must grant a waiver for institutional forces toposture Unit Type Codes (UTC) in the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) capability library? (82)

A

Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

230
Q

Even though institutional force organizations do notrepresent a __ capability, the individuals assigned to them are inherently __ . (82)

A

Warfighting; deployable.

231
Q

What aligns how forces are apportioned, assignedand allocated to support the National Defense Strategy (NDS) and Joint Force availability requirements and assessments? (82)

A

Global Force Management (GFM).

232
Q

Global Force Management (GFM) presents comprehensive insight into the global availability of US military forces and capabilities. What proposed changes does it help senior decisionmakers quickly and accurately assess? (82)

A

The impact and risk of proposed changes to allocation, assignment and apportionment.

233
Q

What are the two supporting processes for the Global Force Management (GFM) allocation process? (82)

A

1) Rotational force allocation in support of Combatant Commander (CCDR) annual force needs; and 2) Emergent force allocation in support of CCDR emerging or crisis based requests for capabilities and forces.

234
Q

The Air Force supports Global Force Management(GFM) through the __ construct. (82)

A

Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF).

235
Q

Tempo bands synchronize with two -monthGlobal Force Management (GFM) cycles and manages forces through GFM assignment, allocation and apportionment. (82)

A

12-month.

236
Q

Define Unit Type Code (UTC). (82)

A

A potential capability focused on accomplishing a specific mission that the Air Force or other military service provides.

237
Q

A(n) __ capability is aligned into a tempo bandbased on requirements relative to its assigned rotational capability for each vulnerability period. (82)

A

Unit Type Code (UTC).

238
Q

Who approves tempo band placement recommendations? (82)

A

The applicable Headquarters Air Force (HAF), Deputy Chief ofStaff(DCS) and equivalents.

239
Q

The Air Force presents required capabilities to theJoint Force Commander (JFC) as __ . (83)

A

Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).

240
Q

The Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force(AETF) is in response to what kind of tasking? (83)

A

Operational.

241
Q

The Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force(AETF) provides task-organized, integrated package with the appropriate balance of what four things? (83)

A

I) Force; 2) sustainment; 3) control; and 4) force protection.

242
Q

Name the three components of an Air and SpaceExpeditionary Task Force (AETF). (83)

A

1) A single, clearly designated commander; 2) appropriate Command and Control (C2) mechanisms; and 3) tailored and fully supported forces.

243
Q

In what four ways can the Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) be task organized? (83)

A

As a(n) 1) Numbered Expeditionary Air Force (NEAF); 2) Air Expeditionary Wing (AEW); 3) Air Expeditionary Group (AEG); or 4) Air Expeditionary Squadron (AES).

244
Q

Does an Air Expeditionary Wing (AEW) or an AirExpeditionary Group (AEG) normally establish and operate an air base? (83)

A

An AEW. (It also exercises Command and Control (C2) of subordinate units at geographically separated locations.)

245
Q

How is an Air Expeditionary Wing (AEW) structured?(83)

A

According to the Air Force combat wing structure.

246
Q

How many Air Expeditionary Wings (AEW) arenormally at a single location? (83)

A

One.

247
Q

The __ is normally the smallest and independentlydeployable Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force(AETF). (83)

A

Air Expeditionary Group (AEG).

248
Q

Normally deployed as a tenant unit, what is an AirExpeditionary Group (AEG) not normally capable ofdoing? (83)

A

Establishing and operating a base.

249
Q

If deployed as an independent group, as part of alarger Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) with other Air Expeditionary Groups (AEG) and/or Air Expeditionary Wings (AEW), the AEG commander normally reports to whom? (83)

A

The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR).

250
Q

What is the basic warfighting organization of the AirForce and the building block of the Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)? (83)

A

The Air Expeditionary Squadron (AES).

251
Q

How many life cycles does the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) schedule encompass? (83)

A

Two 12-month life cycles that align with the Global Force Management (GFM) cycle and coincide with FYs.

252
Q

What do functional areas revalidate prior to the beginning of every Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) cycle? (83)

A

Their tempo band alignment. (Realigning forces if necessary.)

253
Q

How often is a new 24-month Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) schedule established? (83)

A

Every 12 months.

254
Q

Designated warfighting capabilities are grouped into force packages identified by __ . (83)

A

Unit Type Codes (UTC).

255
Q

Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) forces canbe postured as ready to deploy to support Combatant Commander’s (CCDR) worldwide requirements, home station requirements or __ support for CCDRs. (83)

A

Reach back.

256
Q

How do force providers of designated warfightingorganizations posture the maximum number of manpower authorizations? (83)How do force providers of designated war fighting organizations posture the maximum number of manpower authorizations? (83)

A

As standard deployable Unit Type Codes (UTC).

257
Q

Unit Type Codes (UTC) in bands “B” through “E”and enablers have different battle rhythms that may fall outside the base’s two Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) vulnerability periods. T/F (83)

A

True.

258
Q

Personnel who are not assigned to war fighting organizations have an Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) association in the __ equivalent to a 6-month availability window. (83)

A

Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

259
Q

At any given time, how many Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) blocks from each tempo band are in the AEF vulnerability period? (83)

A

One. (They will meet known rotational expeditionary and emerging operational requirements.)

260
Q

If not deployed, forces aligned to the Air and SpaceExpeditionary Forces (AEF) in the vulnerability period remain in ___ status for the duration of their AEF vulnerability period. (84)

A

On-call status.

261
Q

If tasked, can deployment extend outside of a force’s vulnerability period? (84)

A

Yes. (In such cases, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center Directorate of Casualty Matters (HQ AFPC/DPW) coordinates with supported component HQ to synchronize deployments with Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) vulnerability periods.)

262
Q

Regardless of Air and Space Expeditionary Force(AEF) vulnerability period, which AEF forces are vulnerable for Operations Plan (OPLAN) tasking at all times - including the period immediately following redeployment? (84)

A

All AEF forces. (If the SecDef determines the need to reach forward.)

263
Q

All Airmen have an Air and Space ExpeditionaryForce (AEF) __ corresponding to an AEF vulnerability period and they deploy during that vulnerability period, unless reaching forward. (84)

A

Air and Space Expeditionary Force Indicator (AEFI). (Determined by their commander.)

264
Q

Under what conditions can the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) surge? (84)

A

When requirements exceed available forces within the vulnerability period.

265
Q

Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) surgemethods include reaching forward. Name three other surge methods. (84)

A

2) Reaching deeper; 3) rebanding capability; and 4) mobilizing Air Reserve Component (ARC) forces.

266
Q

Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) surgesrequire forces to deploy/employ during what periods? (84)

A

During normal training and/or predeployment training periods.

267
Q

Reaching forward should be used for an ___ _in requirements. (84-Tbl)

A

Initial increase.

268
Q

If an “initial increase” will endure, what should thatcapability area do? (84-Tbl)

A

Reband during the next Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) schedule.

269
Q

Surge operations can make all Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) blocks and enablers available. How can this severely curtail Air Force capabilities? (84)

A

It requires a sustained period to reconstitute forces after the surge.

270
Q

What surge operations can only be used if directedby Headquarters Air Force Operations, Plans and Requirements Directorate (HAF/A3/5 )? (84)

A

Those used to support exercises or rotations.

271
Q

Describe the maximum sustainable utilization ratethat maintains total Air Force unit readiness category levels 1 and 2. (84)

A

One deployment period followed by a dwell period that is twice as long (I :2).

272
Q

A unit that has the resources and is trained for full wartime missions is at readiness category level __ . (84-85)

A

Level 1.

273
Q

Describe a unit classified at readiness category level 2. (85)

A

It has the resources and is trained for most of the wartime missions.

274
Q

Functional areas aligned in which tempo bandshould consider involuntary recall of Air Reserve Component (ARC) forces when demand exceeds postured capabilities within the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) vulnerability window? (85)

A

Band “D.”

275
Q

Functional areas that entered surge operations must be __ .(85)

A

Reconstituted. (This is the restoration of combat capability following operations.)

276
Q

Who develops and executes a reconstitution plan?(85)

A

The 1) Headquarters Air Force (HAF) Functional Area Manager (FAM); 2) MAJCOM; 3) Air Reserve Component (ARC); and 4) Air Force Personnel Center Directorate of Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) and Personnel Operations (AFPC/DPW).

277
Q

When will the Air Force War and Mobilization Division (AF/A5XW) work with the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) to provide an overall assessment and Course of Action (COA)? (85)

A

Where reconstitution is necessary for multiple functional areas across the AEF construct. (It is provided to the Air Force Crisis Action Team (AFCAT) or Air Force Operations Group (AFOG) for Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF) approval.)

278
Q

Response to crises and expeditious reconstitution to a rotational posture is not critical to the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept. T/F (85)

A

False. (It is critical and should have the least possible impact on the AEF schedule.)

279
Q

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) provides Airmen a degree of predictability in each Global Force Management (GFM) cycle. Does this guarantee Airmen the same predictability from one period to the next? (85)

A

No.

280
Q

How many Air and Space Expeditionary Force(AEF) vulnerability periods are Airmen assigned to in a tempo band? (85)

A

Only one. (This mirrors the AEF block their unit’s Unit Type Codes {UTC) are aligned with.)

281
Q

Under what condition will inbound Airmen (PCS orPermanent Change of Assignment (PCA)) have to deploy again with less than the dwell for their capability tempo band? (85)

A

Only if the wing commander or equivalent approves an exception.

282
Q

How soon may Airmen, who are temporarily disqualified during their Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) vulnerability periods, be used when they return? (85)

A

Immediately when they return to deployable status, to fill out-of-cycle requirements or short-notice individual augmentation requests. (Unit commanders may also realign them with an upcoming vulnerability period, with wing commander approval.)

283
Q

____ may seek Airmen to voluntarily deploy outsidethe Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) vulnerability period to fill temporarily nondeployable positions. (85)

A

Unit commanders.

284
Q

What are the four requirements for two individualsto switch Air and Space Expeditionary Force Indicators (AEFI)? (85)

A

l) They must be from the same unit; 2) they must have they same qualifications; 3) the unit’s needs are still met; and 4) the wing commander approves it.

285
Q

How many approved requests for an Air and SpaceExpeditionary Force Indicator (AEFI) swap should be allowed? (85)

A

One approved request per individual, per Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) schedule. (Wings must report these changes to the MAJ COM Vice Commander (CV).)

286
Q

What should the US Air Force assignment processcoincide with, as much as possible? (85)

A

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) battle rhythm.

287
Q

Commanders try to schedule what three things during the three-month period immediately following an Airman’s deployment eligibility period or return from deployment? (85)

A

1) PCS and Permanent Change of Assignment (PCA) departure dates; 2) terminal leave dates for retirement; and 3) separation dates.

288
Q

On what records will the US Air Force assignmentprocess formally track Air and Space ExpeditionaryForce (AEF) deployments? (85)

A

On individual personnel records.

289
Q

The US Air Force assignment process will providevisibility of individuals to whom? (85)

A

To all commanders.

290
Q

Commanders must try to __ PME and Developmental Education (DE) timing with Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) vulnerability periods. (85)

A

De-conflict.

291
Q

A scheduled Air and Space Expeditionary Force(AEF) deployment is justification for operational deferment from PME/Developmental Education (DE). T/F (85-86)

A

False.

292
Q

When should Airmen not be relieved from deployedduty for PME or Developmental Education (DE)? (86)

A

When alternate school start dates would allow deployment.

293
Q

List several topics you must understand to operatesuccessfully as members of a joint team. (86)

A

The 1) foundations of joint doctrine; 2) doctrine that governs unified direction of armed forces; 3) functions of the DoD and its major components; 4) principles for joint command and control; 5) joint command doctrine; 6) methods of joint planning; 7) guidance for multinational operations; and 8) interagency, intergovernmental and nongovernmental organizations you coordinate with.

294
Q

The armed forces fulfill their roles, m1ss10ns andfunctions within the American system of __ -militaryrelations. (86)

A

Civil-military.

295
Q

The armed forces serve under the civilian control ofwhom? (86)

A

The President of the United States, as Commander in Chief (CINC)

296
Q

The armed forces must be a fully integrated jointteam across the range of military operations. With whom must we work together? (86)

A

1) Military forces of allies and coalition partners; 2) US and foreign government agencies; 3) state and local government agencies; and 4) intergovernmental and nongovernmental organizations.

297
Q

Joint warfare is team warfare and requires effectiveintegration. Will all forces be equally represented? (86)

A

No. Joint Force Commanders (JFC) choose the capabilities needed.

298
Q

Joint doctrine represents what works best. Whatcommonalities does it promote? (86)

A

Common values and a common perspective on planning, training and conducting military operations.

299
Q

Integrity is one of the five values that impact jointoperations and are proven vital for operational success. Name the other four. (86)

A

2) Competency; 3) physical courage; 4) moral courage; and 5) teamwork.

300
Q

Joint warfighters must be skilled in thinking strategically, optimizing __ capabilities, applying strategic and operational warfare, and having a __ perspective. (86)

A

Joint capabilities; joint perspective.

301
Q

National ______ direction leads to unified action ofarmed forces. (86)

A

Strategic.

302
Q

What four factors govern national strategic direction? (86)

A

1) The Constitution; 2) federal law; 3) US Government (USG) policy on internationally-recognized law; and 4) national interests.

303
Q

Effective unified action of armed forces results inunity of __ . (86)

A

Unity of effort.

304
Q

At the strategic level, unity of effort requires coordination among and between what entities? (86)

A

1) Government departments and executive agencies; 2) executive and legislative branches; 3) Nongovernmental Organizations (NGO); 4) Intergovernmental Organizations (IGO) ; 5) the private sector; and 6) allied or coalition nations.

305
Q

What term broadly refers to synchronizing, coordinating and/or integrating the activities of governmental and nongovernmental entities with military operations to achieve unity of effort? (86)

A

Unified action.

306
Q

The President and SecDef exercise authority andcontrol of the armed forces through what two distinct branches of the chain of command? (86, 87-Fig)

A

1) The operational branch; and 2) administrative branch.

307
Q

Describe the operational chain of command. (86)

A

It runs from the President through the SecDefto the Combatant Commanders (CCDR) for missions and forces assigned to them.

308
Q

The administrative chain of command runs from the President through the SecDefto whom? (86)

A

To the Secretaries of the military departments.

309
Q

The administrative chain of command is used forwhat purposes? (86)

A

For purposes other than operational direction of forces assigned to the Combatant Commands (COCOM).

310
Q

The Secretaries of the military departments exercise authority through their own service __ over service forces not assigned to the Combatant Commander (CCDR) (i.e., forces in the training pipeline). (86-87)

A

Chiefs. (Service chiefs are directly responsible to the service Secretaries.)

311
Q

lnteroperability helps the forces, units and __ ofall the services operate together effectively. (87)

A

Systems.

312
Q

lnteroperability includes conducting joint trainingand exercises, as well as developing and using what three things? (87)

A

1) Joint doctrine; 2) joint Operations Plans (OPLAN); and 3) joint and/or interoperable communications and information systems.

313
Q

The DoD is composed of what nine components? (87)

A

The 1) Office of SecDef (OSD); 2) military departments; 3) Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS); 4) Joint Staff; 5) Combatant Commands (COCOM); 6) IG of the DoD; 7) DoD agencies; 8) DoD field activities; and 9) other offices, agencies, activities and commands established by law, the President or the SecDef.

314
Q

The DoD maintains and employs armed forces tofulfill what three aims? (87)

A

To 1) support and defend the Constitution against all enemies, foreign and domestic; 2) ensure, by timely and effective military action, the security of the US, its possessions and areas vital to its interest; and 3) uphold and advance US national policies and interests.

315
Q

List the seven components of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS). (87)

A

The 1) Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS); 2) Vice Chairman of the JCS; 3) Chief of Staff, US Army (CSA); 4) Chief of Naval Operations (CNO); 5) Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF); 6) Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC); and 7) Joint Staff.

316
Q

Who may invite the Commandant of the CoastGuard to join Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) meetings or discussions? (87)

A

The Chairman, Joint Chiefs ofStaff(CJCS) or service chiefs.

317
Q

The commanders of the geographic commands areeach assigned a geographic __ . (87)

A

Area of Responsibility (AOR).

318
Q

Name the six geographic commands. (87)

A

1) US Central Command (USCENTCOM); 2) US European Command (USEUCOM); 3) US Pacific Command (USP ACOM); 4) US Southern Command (USSOUTHCOM); 5) US Northern Command (USNORTHCOM ); and 6) US Africa Command (USAFRICOM

319
Q

The President or the SecDef may direct forces fromany geographic area. T/F (87)

A

True.

320
Q

Commanders of the functional commands directlysupport the President or the SecDef. Who do they normally coordinate with? (87)

A

With the Geographic Combatant Command (GCC) of the Area of Responsibility (AOR) where an operation is conducted.

321
Q

List the functional commands. (87)

A

1) US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM); 2) US Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM); and 3) US Special Operations Command (USSOCOM).

322
Q

Commanders of the functional commands supportGeographic Combatant Commanders (GCC). Who can designate them as the supported Combatant Commander (CCDR) for an operation? (87)

A

The SecDef.

323
Q

Unity of __ means all forces operate under a singlecommander with authority to direct them toward acommon purpose. (87)

A

Unity of command.

324
Q

Unity of __ requires coordination and cooperationamong all forces toward a common objective. (87-88)

A

Unity of effort.

325
Q

Unity of effort does not necessarily require forces to be part of the same command structure. T IF (88)

A

True.

326
Q

What four types of authorities are exercised through the operational chain of command? (88, 89-Fig)

A

1) Combatant Command (COCOM); 2) Operational Control (OPCON); 3) Tactical Control (TACON); and 4) support command.

327
Q

Combatant Command (COCOM) is a CombatantCommander’s (CCDR) authority. To whom can it bedelegated or transferred? (88)

A

It cannot be delegated or transferred.

328
Q

A Combatant Commander (CCDR) exercises Combatant Command (COCOM) over forces that accomplish what four functions? (88)

A

1) Organize and employ commands and forces; 2) assign tasks; 3) designate objectives; and 4) direct all aspects of military operations, joint training and logistics.

329
Q

Operational Control (OPCON) provides authority toorganize and employ commands and forces to accomplish assigned missions. Who can exercise OPCON or delegate it within the command? (88)

A

Commanders at or below the Combatant Command (COCOM) level.

330
Q

Which other command authority is inherent inCombatant Command (COCOM)? (88)

A

Operational Control (OPCON). (It includes authority over all aspects of military operations and joint training to accomplish assigned missions.)

331
Q

Tactical Control (TACON) is inherent in which othercommand authority? (88)

A

Operational Control (OPCON).

332
Q

Tactical Control (T ACON) may be delegated to orexercised by commanders at what echelons? (88)

A

Commanders at or below the level of Combatant Command (COCOM).

333
Q

Tactical Control (T ACON) is command over whatforces? (88)

A

Assigned or attached forces or commands, or military capabilities or forces available for tasking.

334
Q

Tactical Control (T ACON) is limited to detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area. T/F (88)

A

True.

335
Q

When one organization should aid, protect, complement or sustain another force, a superior commander establishes a relationship between subordinate commanders. (88)

A

Support. (The support relationship is vague, flexible and conveys priorities to commanders and staff.)

336
Q

Commanders at what levels may exercise supportauthority? (88)

A

Commanders at or below the Combatant Command (COCOM) level.

337
Q

Who establishes support command relationships? (88)

A

The common superior commander. (He or she ensures both the supported commander and supporting commanders understand the degree of authority the supported commander is granted.)

338
Q

Who designates support relationships between Combatant Commanders (CCDR)? (88)

A

The SecDef. (Also support relationships within a Combatant Command (COCOM).)

339
Q

What authority does the administrative chain ofcommand exercise? (88, 89-Fig)

A

Administrative Control (ADCON).

340
Q

Administrative Control (ADCON) is direction orauthority over __ or other organizations for administration and support. (88)

A

Subordinate.

341
Q

List five “organize, train and equip” functions underAdministrative Control (ADCON) authority. (88)

A

Any five of the following: 1) organization of service forces; 2) control of resources and equipment; 3) personnel management; 4) unit logistics; 5) individual and unit training; 6) readiness; 7) mobilization; 8) demobilization; 9) discipline; and 10) other matters not included in operational missions.

342
Q

Does Administrative Control (ADCON) flow throughservice channels or through joint channels? (88)

A

Through service channels. (It is a service command authority.)

343
Q

Who assigns all National Guard and Reserve forcesto the Combatant Commands (COCOM), unless specifically exempted? (88)

A

The SecDef.

344
Q

National Guard and Reserve forces are only available for operational missions under what two conditions? (88)

A

When 1) mobilized for specific periods according to law; or 2) ordered to active duty (after their parent service validates them for employment).

345
Q

Joint Forces are established on a geographic area or functional basis. They can be established at what three levels? (88)

A

1) Unified commands; 2) subordinate unified commands; or 3) Joint Task Forces (JTF).

346
Q

Joint Forces are commanded by a __ . (88)

A

Joint Force Commander (JFC).

347
Q

The Joint Force Commander (JFC) can be one ofwhat three types of commanders? (88)

A

A 1) Combatant Commander (CCDR); 2) subunified commander; or 3) Joint Task Force (JTF) commander.

348
Q

Joint Force Commanders (JFC) exercise commandauthority or operational control over a Joint Force. T/F (88)

A

True.

349
Q

Who establishes unified commands and specifiedcommands with broad continuing missions? (88-89)

A

The President. (Through the SecDef with advice and assistance of the Chairman, Joint Chiefs ofStaff(CJCS).)

350
Q

A __ command has a single commander and iscomposed of forces from two or more military departments. (88)

A

Unified command.

351
Q

How many specified commands currently are designated? (89)

A

None.

352
Q

Commanders of unified commands may establishsubordinate unified commands (subunified commands) with whose authorization? (89)

A

The SecDef, through the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS).

353
Q

Who may constitute and designate a Joint Force as a Joint Task Force (JTF)? (89)

A

The SecDef, Combatant Commander (CCDR), subordinate unified commander or existing JTF commander.

354
Q

The operational branch of Joint Force organizationruns from the President or SecDef through the unified Combatant Commander (CCDR) to what two levels? (89- Fig)

A

Through the subunified commander to the Joint Task Force (JTF) commander.

355
Q

Is a Joint Task Force (JTF) established on a geographical basis or a functional basis? (89)

A

Either a geographical or functional basis.

356
Q

Joint Task Force (JTF) missions have a broad objective and require overall centralized logistical control. T/F (89)

A

False. (They have a specific limited objective and no need for overall centralized logistical control.)

357
Q

What does a service component command consist of? (89)

A

The service component commander and service forces assigned to that Combatant Commander (CCDR).

358
Q

Who commands a US Air Force service componentat any joint level, providing unity of command? (89)

A

A Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR).

359
Q

The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)commands forces through which chain of responsibility - operational or administrative? (89)

A

Both operational and administrative.

360
Q

Who normally delegates Operational Control(OPCON) of Air Force component forces to the Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)? (89)

A

The Joint Force Commander (JFC).

361
Q

The administrative chain only runs through servicechannels. Describe it. (89)

A

It runs from the unit, through the MAJCOM, to the Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF) and SECAF.

362
Q

The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)has complete Administrative Control (ADCON) of which forces? (89)

A

All assigned Air Force component forces.

363
Q

The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)has some Administrative Control (ADCON) responsibilitiesfor Air Force elements and personnel assigned toother joint force components. T/F (89)

A

True. (Such as liaisons.)

364
Q

Who commands an Air and Space ExpeditionaryTask Force (AETF)? (90)

A

The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR).

365
Q

The Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force(AETF) is a scalable organization containing what three elements? (90)

A

1) The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) (a single commander); 2) command and control mechanisms; and 3) tailored and fully supported forces.

366
Q

Should the Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force(AETF) first draw from the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) currently on rotation or from in-theater resources? (90)

A

Draw first from in-theater resources, then as needed from the AEF currently on rotation.

367
Q

Which elements should fully support Air and SpaceExpeditionary Task Force (AETF) forces, whether in theater or deployed from out of theater? (90)

A

Maintenance, logistical support, health services and administrative elements.

368
Q

How do forces form up within the Air and SpaceExpeditionary Task Force (AETF)? (90)

A

As expeditionary wings, groups, squadrons, flights, detachments or elements.

369
Q

A(n) __ may be regional or functional and alignswith the purpose of the unified command it supports. (90)

A

Air and Space Air Operations Center (AOC).

370
Q

Which of these does the Commander, Air ForceForces (COMAFFOR) exercise - Operational Control (OPCON), Tactical Control (TACON), Administrative Control (ADCON) or an Air Operations Center (AOC)? (90)

A

The COMAFFOR exercises all of these.

371
Q

The character of the Air and Space ExpeditionaryTask Force (AETF) operations center varies, depending on the nature of the forces. Which may not be an AETF operations center –a large, fixed Falconer Air Operations Center (AOC); the Tanker Airlift Control Center at Scott AFB; or the Air Force Space AOC at Vandenberg AFB? (90)

A

They may all be an AETF operations center, depending on the operation.

372
Q

The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)uses staff for “beds, beans and bullets” sustainment and long-range planning. (90)

A

Air Force Forces (AFFOR) staff (Also used for theater engagement operations outside the Air Operations Center’s (AOC) current operational focus and service responsibilities.)

373
Q

Air Operations Center (AOC) and Air Force Forces(AFFOR) staff size and function should be tailored according to the theater and operation. How can the forward footprint be reduced? (90-91)

A

By maximizing reachback and operating some elements “over the horizon.”

374
Q

Some humanitarian operations can make do with asmall control center that largely does scheduling and reporting. T/F (90)

A

True.

375
Q

Who can establish functional component commands? (91)

A

Combatant Commanders (CCDR), commanders of subordinate unified commands and Joint Force Commanders (JFC).

376
Q

List the four functional component commanders in a Joint Task Force (JTF) organization. (91-Fig)

A

1) Joint Force Land Component Commander (JFLCC) - land; 2) Joint Force Maritime Component Commander (JFMCC) - naval; 3) Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) - air and space; and 4) Joint Force Special Operations Component Commander (JFSOCC) - special ops.

377
Q

List the five possible commanders of the servicecomponents in a Joint Task Force (JTF) organization. (91-Fig)

A

1) Commander, Army Forces (COMARFOR); 2) Commander, Navy Forces (COMNA VFOR); 3) Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR); 4) Commander, Marine Corps Forces (COMMARFOR); and 5) Commander, Coast Guard Forces (COMCGFOR).

378
Q

How is a commander designated if air and spaceassets from more than one service are present within a Joint Force? (91)

A

The Joint Force Commander (JFC) normally designates a Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC).

379
Q

Which service component commander should bedesignated the Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC)? (91)

A

The one with the preponderance of air and space capabilities and the ability to plan, task and control joint air and space operations.

380
Q

In a coalition or alliance operation, the Joint ForceAir and Space Component Commander (JFACC) may be designated the __ . (91)

A

The Combined Force Air and Space Component Commander (CFACC).

381
Q

One person will normally be dual-hatted as Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) and Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander(JF ACC)/Combined Force Air and Space Component Commander (CFACC). T/F (91)

A

True.

382
Q

Because the Joint Force Air and Space ComponentCommander (JF ACC) and the Joint Force Commander (JFC) typically maintain the same joint operating area/ theater-wide perspective, the JFACC should be dual hatted as the JFC. T/F (92)

A

False. (They do share the same perspective, but should not be dual-hatted.)

383
Q

A Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)exercises Operational Control (OPCON) of Air ForceForces (AFFOR) and (as Joint Force Air and SpaceComponent Commander (JFACC)) exercises __ ofavailable Navy, Army, Marine and coalition air andspace assets. (92)

A

Tactical Control (TACON).

384
Q

Functional component commanders normally exercise of forces the Joint Force Commander (JFC) assigns to them. (92)

A

Tactical Control (TACON).

385
Q

Joint operation planning is conducted within thechain of command running from the President through the SecDef to the Combatant Commanders (CCDR) and their subordinate Joint Force Commanders (JFC). Who develops the plans? (92)

A

The CCDRs.

386
Q

Joint operations planning is a continuous processthat produces Operations Plans (OPLAN) that progress from very detailed to less detailed. Describe these plans. (92)

A

1) OPLANs - complete, detailed joint operations plans; 2) concept plans - abbreviated joint operation plans; and 3) base plans or commander’s estimates - less detailed operation plans. (Joint planning activities support these.)

387
Q

List the six activities that joint operation planningencompasses. (92)

A

Planning for 1) mobilization; 2) deployment; 3) employment; 4) sustainment; 5) redeployment; and 6) demobilization.

388
Q

Who primarily conducts joint operation mobilizationplanning, readying forces for war or other nationalemergency? (92)

A

Military departments and services. (Cooperating closely with supported commanders and their service component commanders.)

389
Q

Joint operation mobilization should not activate theReserve Component. T/F (92)

A

False. (It may activate all or part of the Reserve Component.)

390
Q

Who is responsible for joint operation deploymentplanning? (92)

A

The Combatant Commander (CCDR) and US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).

391
Q

Which type of joint operations planning applies force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area? (92)

A

Employment planning.

392
Q

Who has primary responsibility for joint operationemployment planning? (92)

A

The supported Combatant Commander (CCDR) and subordinateand supporting commanders.

393
Q

Joint operation employment planning provides thefoundation for, determines the scope of, and is limited by what three other planning activities? (92)

A

Mobilization, deployment and sustainment planning.

394
Q

Joint operation __ planning provides logistics and personnel services to maintain and prolong operations until the mission is successfully completed. (92)

A

Sustainment planning.

395
Q

Who are primarily responsible for joint operationsustainment? (92)

A

The supported Combatant Commander (CCDR) and their service component commanders. (Cooperating closely with the services, combat support agencies and supporting commands.)

396
Q

During joint operations planning, where does redeployment planning transfer units, individuals or supplies?(92)

A

From one area to another, to another location within the area for further employment, or to their original location and status.

397
Q

Joint operation redeployment planning is primarilythe responsibility of the supported commanders and their service component commanders. Who do they cooperate closely with? (92)

A

The supporting Combatant Commander (CCDR) and US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).

398
Q

Which type of joint operations planning includesreturning Reserve Component units, individuals andmateriels to their former status? (92)

A

Demobilization planning.

399
Q

Who is primarily responsible for joint operationsdemobilization? (92)

A

Military departments and services. (Cooperating closely with supported commanders and their service component commanders.)

400
Q

The Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) is the single joint and service planning system for preparing operation plans and associated planning documents. T /F (92)

A

False. (There are a multitude of systems.)

401
Q

Joint Operation Planning and Execution System(JOPES) is a system of joint policies, procedures and reportingstructures. What two types of systems support it?(92)

A

1) Communications systems; and 2) computer systems.

402
Q

Do joint planners use Joint Operation Planning andExecution System (JOPES) to monitor, plan and execute planning activities during peace or during crisis? (92)

A

During both peace and crisis.

403
Q

What two tasks is Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) designed to facilitate? (92)

A

1) Rapid building and timely maintenance of plans; and 2) rapid development of effective options during crisis by adapting approved operation plans.

404
Q

Does Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) allow for effective management of operations during execution across the spectrum, includingmobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment and demobilization? (92)

A

Yes.

405
Q

All joint, conventional time-phased force deployment databases are developed by and reside in __ . (92)

A

Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

406
Q

Name the Air Force war-planning system that provides an Air Force feed to Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). (93)

A

Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

407
Q

Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) enables __ -unique operation planning and execution processes, including associated joint policy and procedures. (93)

A

Air Force-unique.

408
Q

Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) provides standard data files, formats, application programs and management procedures. What are these primarily used for? (93)

A

Force planning, sourcing equipment and personnel requirements, transportation feasibility estimates, civil engineering and medical planning.

409
Q

What does the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)system provide for the Air Staff, Air Force planners and Air Force commanders? (93)

A

The current policies, apportioned forces and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations. (It is the Air Force’s supporting document for several joint documents.)

410
Q

How many volumes are in the War and MobilizationPlan (WMP)? (93)

A

Five. (And associated databases.)

411
Q

The War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volumesprovide a consolidated Air Force planning reference for general policies and guidance. List the other four features the WMP provides. (93)

A

1) A listing of apportioned combat and support forces; 2) a set of planning factors (e.g., sortie rate) by aircraft type and theater; 3) a listing of all active plans with Time Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD); and 4) the expected aircraft activity at each base in the MAJCOM’s Area of Responsibility (AOR).

412
Q

Unified action effectively integrates allied capabilities into a(n) __ plan. (93)

A

Campaign plan.

413
Q

Partnerships ensure far greater security than the US could achieve independently and must be nurtured and developed. T IF (93)

A

True. (They require shared principles, a common view of threats and a commitment to cooperation.)

414
Q

How are multinational operations usually structured? (93)

A

As a coalition or alliance. (They may also be supervised by an Intergovernmental Organization (IGO) such as the UN.)

415
Q

List several terms commonly used for multinationaloperations. (93)

A

Allied, bilateral, combined, coalition and multilateral.

416
Q

A(n) __ results from a formal agreement (e.g.,treaty) between two or more nations with broad, longterm, common objectives. (93)

A

Alliance.

417
Q

What are operations with units from two or moreallied nations called? (93)

A

Combined operations.

418
Q

A(n) __ is an ad hoc arrangement between two ormore nations for common action. (93)

A

Coalition.

419
Q

Coalitions are always formed for a single occasion.T/F (93)

A

False. (But if long-term, they are for a narrow common interest.)

420
Q

What are operations with units from two or morecoalition members called? (93)

A

Coalition operations.

421
Q

In addition to transnational dangers, what factorsimpact multinational operations? (93)

A

Cultural, psychological, religious, economic, technological, informational and political factors.

422
Q

Much of the information and guidance for unifiedaction and joint operations applies to multinational operations. T IF (93)

A

True. (However, also consider differences in laws, doctrine, organization, weapons, equipment, terminology, culture, politics, religion and language within alliances and coalitions.)

423
Q

Each alliance or coalition normally develops its own__ to guide multinational action. (93)

A

Operations Plan (OPLAN).

424
Q

____ considerations heavily influence the coalitionor alliance command structure. (93)

A

Political considerations.

425
Q

In multinational operations, all national forces mustshare a common understanding of what? (93)

A

The overall aim of the Multinational Force (MNF) and the plan to achieve it, including clearly defined missions, tasks, responsibilities and authorities.

426
Q

A coordinated policy is essential for unity of effortduring multinational operations. Give an example when coordination is particularly important. (93)

A

Any one of the following: 1) alliance or coalition commanders authority over national logistics and infrastructure; 2) Rules of Engagement (ROE); 3) fratricide prevention; and 4) intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance.

427
Q

List the five tenets of multinational operations thathelp ensure unity of effort. (93)

A

1) Respect; 2) rapport; 3) knowledge of partners; 4) patience; and 5) coordination.

428
Q

Describe the three basic structures for multinationaloperations. (93-94)

A

1) Integrated - representative members in command HQ; 2) lead nation - one nation controls forces; and 3) parallel command - no single force commander is designated.

429
Q

In a multinational operation, each nation normallyestablishes a national command element to effectively administer its forces. What five responsibilities does this accomplish? (94)

A

1) Administrating and supporting its national forces; 2) coordinating communication to the parent nation; 3) tendering national military views and recommendations directly to the multinational commander; 4) facilitating assignment and reassignment of national forces to subordinate operational multinational organizations; and 5) maintaining personnel accountability.

430
Q

Even in multinational operations, nations rarely, ifever, relinquish national command of their forces. What results from this? (94)

A

Forces have at least two distinct chains of command: a national and a multinational.

431
Q

Command authority for a Multinational Force(MNF) commander must be consistent from nation to nation. T IF (94)

A

False. (It can vary from nation to nation and is normally negotiated between participating nations.)

432
Q

When the US participates in multinational operations, who retains and cannot relinquish national command authority over US forces? (94)

A

The President.

433
Q

When can the President terminate US participationin multinational operations? (94)

A

At anytime.

434
Q

Whose activities include considering the potentialrequirements for interagency, Intergovernmental Organization (IGO) and Nongovernmental Organization (NGO) coordination across the range of military operations within and outside their operational areas? (94)

A

Combatant Commanders (CCDR) and other subordinate Joint Force Commanders (JFC).

435
Q

Military operations must be coordinated, integratedand/or deconflicted with the activities of what six entities? (94)

A

The activities of 1) other US Government (USG) agencies; 2) Intergovernmental Organizations (IGO); 3) Nongovernmental Organizations (NGO); 4) regional organization; 5) foreign forces operations; and 6) host nation agencies within, and en route to and from, the operational area.

436
Q

How does the interagency coordination process differ from military operations? (94)

A

The interagency process is more art than science, while military operations depend more on structure and doctrine.

437
Q

Who advises and assists the President in integrating all aspects of national security policy - domestic, foreign, military, intelligence and economic? (94)

A

The National Security Council (NSC).

438
Q

Who advises and assists the President on economic national security policy in conjunction with the National Security Council (NSC)? (94)

A

The National Economic Council.

439
Q

Who coordinates, develops and implements national security policy? (94)

A

The National Security Council (NSC) and subordinate committees.

440
Q

Name the four statutory members of the NationalSecurity Council (NSC). (94)

A

The 1) President; 2) Vice President; 3) Secretary of State;and 4) SecDef.

441
Q

The __ is the National Security Council’s (NSC)statutory military advisor. (94)

A

Chairman, Joint Chiefs ofStaff(CJCS).

442
Q

Who is the National Security Council’s (NSC) statutoryintelligence advisor? (94)

A

The Director ofNational Intelligence.

443
Q

Who represents the SecDef in National SecurityCouncil (NSC) interagency groups? (94)

A

Officials from the Office of the SecDef(OSD).

444
Q

Who represents the Combatant Commanders(CCDR) for interagency matters in the National Security Council (NSC) system? (94)

A

The Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS), assisted by the Joint Staff

445
Q

Who advises and assists the President on all aspects of Homeland Security (HS), especially regarding terrorism within the US? (94)

A

The Homeland Security Council (HSC).

446
Q

Who coordinates military participation in domesticinteragency operations that counter domestic terrorismand other civil support tasks? (94)

A

The Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

447
Q

The coordinates interagency homeland defense. (94)

A

DoD.

448
Q

Who primarily coordinates Executive Branch effortsto detect, prepare for, prevent, protect against, respond to and recover from terrorist attacks within the US? (94)

A

The Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

449
Q

In domestic situations, what three factors limit thescope and nature of military actions? (95)

A

1) The Constitution; 2) law; and 3) other governmental directives.

450
Q

The National Guard has unique roles in domesticoperations. Under the control of respective states, whichunits provide a wide variety of civil support? (95)

A

National Guard units in 32 US Code (U.S.C.) and state activeduty status.

451
Q

The ____ _____ Act and DoD policy both prohibitusing IO US Code (U.S.C.) DoD forces to enforce the law, except in cases of necessity. (95)

A

The Posse Comitatus Act.

452
Q

Army, Air Force, Marine Corps and Navy forces areprohibited from directly participating in civilian law enforcement within the US, unless authorized by whom? (95)

A

The President, Congress or the Constitution.

453
Q

A service under Department of Homeland Security(DHS), where does the US Coast Guard have maritime law enforcement jurisdiction? (95)

A

In US waters and on the high seas.

454
Q

Which group helps the Combatant Commander(CCDR) collaborate with other US Government (USG)civilian agencies and departments? (95)

A

A Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG).

455
Q

The Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)is an element of a(n) __ ‘s staff. (95)

A

Geographic Combatant Commander’s (GCC) staff.

456
Q

Why would the Joint Interagency CoordinationGroup (JIACG) be augmented with other partners, suchas Intergovernmental Organizations (IGO), NongovernmentalOrganizations (NGO) and/or multinational representatives?(95)

A

To enhance Combatant Commander (CCDR) collaborationand coordination with the private sector and/or regional organizations.

457
Q

Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)members participate in what three types of cooperation planning? (95)

A

I) Contingency; 2) crisis action; and 3) security cooperation planning.

458
Q

Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)members provide a conduit back to whom to synchronize joint operations with other government agencies? (95)

A

Their parent organizations.

459
Q

The Air Force must be __ while ensuring all capabilities are __ . (95)

A

Interdependent; interoperable.

460
Q

What founding initiative addresses joint interdependence and interoperability? (95)

A

The Goldwater-Nichols DoD Reorganization Act of 1986. (It is the statutory basis for military command structure change and operational authority consolidation.)

461
Q

Who sponsored the Goldwater-Nichols Act? (95)

A

Senator Barry Goldwater and Representative Bill Nichols.

462
Q

Why was the Goldwater-Nichols Act passed? (95)

A

To improve 1) how the US Armed Forces conduct joint and coalition operations; and 2) the DoD budget process.

463
Q

Name four purposes of the Goldwater-Nichols Act.(95-96)

A

Any four of the following: to 1) address weaknesses noted by interservice rivalries emerging from the Vietnam War (primary); 2) reorganize the DoD and strengthen civilian authority; 3) improve the military advice to the President, National Security Council (NSC), SecDef and unified and specified Combatant Commanders (CCDR) to accomplish missions assigned to those commands; 4) ensure unified and specific CCDR authority is fully commensurate with the responsibility of those commanders to accomplish assigned missions; 5) increase attention to strategy formulation and contingency planning; 6) provide for a more efficient use of defense resources; 7) improve joint officer management policies; and 8) enhance the effectiveness of military operations and improve DoD management and administration.

464
Q

How were peacetime activities tailored to each service during the Vietnam War? (95)

A

In isolation. (Wartime activities were planned, executed and evaluated independently.)

465
Q

What did the Goldwater-Nichols Act ensure? (96)

A

Less 1) interservice fighting; 2) deadly bureaucracy; and 3) needless casualties. (It allowed for more military cohesion.)

466
Q

What is the future and key to our success? (96)

A

The smart integration of joint and coalition coordination.

467
Q

What operation(s) experienced one of the first successful combinations of joint and coalition integrations? (96)

A

Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm.

468
Q

What was exploited during various phases of Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm? (96)

A

The unique capabilities of each US military service and our allies.

469
Q

The combined force provided a __ combat capability during Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm. (96)

A

Synergistic. (It brought the greatest possible military power to bear against the opponent.)

470
Q

Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm reaffirmed the importance of joint and combined training, the value of forward presence and the validity of joint force sequencing for power-projection. T/F (96)

A

True.

471
Q

After the Gulf War, there was a near unanimousagreement that __ -based systems greatly increased the overall effectiveness of coalition forces. (96)

A

Space-based.

472
Q

What increases and/or balances the successful outcome of a military objective? (96)

A

The strengths, resources and training of one service or nation.

473
Q

The Air Force’s unity of __ provides unique capabilities that bridge a comprehensive joint and coalition approach. (96)

A

Unity of effort. (It involves coordination and cooperation of common objectives, even if participants are not part of the same command or organization, but the product of a successful unified action (Joint Publication (JP) 1-02).

474
Q

What does the Air Force use to select the right resources and capabilities from their joint and coalition partners? (96)

A

Interdependence.

475
Q

What is included in a clear command relationshipbetween joint and coalition force components? (96)

A

A supported and supporting command.

476
Q

What is the primary responsibility of a supportedcommand? (96)

A

All aspects of a task. (It also receives assistance from another command force or capabilities.)

477
Q

A command provides augmentation forces (orother support) or develops a supporting plan. (96)

A

Supporting command. (It also provides assistance required by the supported command.)

478
Q

Shifting balance from one service or nation to thenext to support the best options describes what Air Force tenet? (96)

A

Centralized control and decentralized execution.

479
Q

What Air Force tenet is never prosecuted alone? (97)

A

Airpower.

480
Q

Operation __ proved to be one of the greatestuses of joint and coalition capabilities in recent history. (97)

A

Operation Odyssey Dawn.

481
Q

What unified Combatant Command (COCOM) ledthe Joint Task Force (JTF) ODYSSEY DAWN? (97)

A

US Africa Command (USAFRICOM). (Commanded by General Carter Ham.)

482
Q

Admiral Sam Locklear executed tactical commandfor Operation Odyssey Dawn from what location? (97)

A

The USS Mount Whitney in the Mediterranean Sea.

483
Q

Name the supporting commanders included in Joint Task Force (JTF) ODYSSEY DAWN. (97)

A

1) Joint Force Maritime Component Commander (Vice Admiral Harry B. Harris); and 2) Joint Force Air Component Commander (Major General Margaret Woodward).

484
Q

What Libyan regime began using military forceagainst its citizens in an effort to repress their uprising? (97)

A

The Muammar al-Qadhafi regime.

485
Q

The Arab League met in Cairo to ask the UN Security Council to impose a __ over Libya to protect civilians from air attack. (97)

A

No-Fly Zone (NFZ).

486
Q

The UN Security Council passed Resolution _____ ,authorizing all necessary measures to protect civilians in Libya. (97)

A

Resolution 1973.

487
Q

Who took measures to enforce UN Security CouncilResolution 1973? (97)

A

The International Coalition.

488
Q

Joint and coalition capabilities during OperationOdyssey Dawn illustrated effective __ and __ . (97)

A

Interdependence; interoperability.

489
Q

Military contingencies and operations can’t optimize V objectives without what? (98)

A

Space or cyberspace.

490
Q

What does airpower offer while demonstrating itssuccess to meet homeland and international security challenges? (98)

A

1) Speed; 2) agility; 3) flexibility; 4) range; and 5) responsiveness to virtually every need.

491
Q

What guarantees the Air Force the capability to operate in any contested cyber domain? (98)

A

Cyber operations.

492
Q

In interdependent domains, what unique capabilities does the Air Force possess? (98)

A

I) Ensuring global mobility; 2) long range strike; and 3) Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR).

493
Q

What domains, combined with joint and coalitionalcapabilities, prove to be the most valuable means of supporting the National Security Strategy of the US and its allies? (98)

A

Air, space and cyberspace.

PDG (20 decks)

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