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Chapter-13 Flashcards

1
Q

Who must safeguard and protect Air Force propertyfrom Fraud, Waste and Abuse (FWA)? (287)

A

Everyone

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2
Q

Organizational __ can be a complicated, oftenpainful process. (287)

A

Change

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3
Q

Who plays a key role in managing organizationalchange? (287)

A

Senior enlisted leaders.

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4
Q

Renowned social psychologist Kurt Lewin recommendsleaders view change as a three-stage process.What are these stages? (287)

A

1) Unfreezing; 2) changing; and 3) refreezing.

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5
Q

What is organizational change? (287)

A

An organization’s adoption of a new idea or behavior, establishingnew norms.

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6
Q

When managing organizational change, norms canfall into what four main categories? (287)

A

1) Technology - computers, test equipment, weapons systems,etc.; 2) tasks - general procedures, job steps, checklists,etc.; 3) structure - administrative procedures, evaluationssystems, etc.; and 4) people - technical or leadershiptraining, new jobs, etc.

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7
Q

When managing organizational change, when ischange needed? (287)

A

When there is a perceived gap between what the norms areand what they should be.

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8
Q

Unfreezing is an organization’s deliberate __ forchange. (287)

A

Preparation.

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9
Q

The unfreezing stage of organizational change involvesmaking Airmen understand the importance ofchange and how it will affect their jobs. T/F (287)

A

True.

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10
Q

When managing organizational change, how doleaders in the unfreezing stage generate a need in peopleto feel the effect of change? (287)

A

By pointing out the problems or challenges with the currentoperations.

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11
Q

Acceptance is usually the first reaction to organizationalchange. T/F (287)

A

False. (Resistance is usually the first reaction.)

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12
Q

What does a good organizational change plan allowchange agents to do? (287)

A

Anticipate problems, develop courses of actions and dealwith resistance.

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13
Q

What are the four most common forms of resistanceto organizational change? (287-288)

A

1) Uncertainty; 2) self-interests; 3) different perceptions orno felt need to change; and 4) over-determination.

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14
Q

The structure of the organization may be a barrier tochange. Why?(288)

A

The structure may be so rigid as to inhibit change.

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15
Q

What are five successful methods of managing andreducing resistance during organizational change? (288)

A

1) Education and communication; 2) participation and involvement;3) facilitation and support; 4) negotiation andagreement; and 5) coercion.

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16
Q

Analyze the forces for and against organizationalchange, devise a __ to deal with them, and then attendto the change itself. (288)

A

Strategy.

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17
Q

Organizational change must be implemented in sequentialsteps. Why is the first step important? (288)

A

Its visible success may increase support for the rest.

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18
Q

During organizational change, what improves thechances of success and decreases the likelihood of repeatingthe unfreezing process? (288)

A

Careful planning.

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19
Q

The second stage of organizational change (Changing) involves modifying technology, tasks, structures ordistribution of people - anything that alters the ____ .(288)

A

Status quo.

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20
Q

What is the organizational change agent’s role in thechanging stage? (288)

A

To monitor the change as it occurs (especially its effect onpersonnel).

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21
Q

As an organizational change agent, how can you ensureyour plan unfolds as intended? (288)

A

Be there and deal with any problems that arise.

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22
Q

During the changing stage of organizational change,provide __ and offer encouragement and advice. (288)

A

Support.

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23
Q

During organizational change, never consider returningto the unfreezing stage. T/F (289)

A

False. (It is better to regroup if the change isn’t going well.)

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24
Q

What is the final stage in the organizational changeprocess? (289)

A

Refreezing.

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25
Q

What is the goal of the refreezing stage of organizationalchange? (289)

A

The desired outcomes and new norms are permanentlylocked into place.

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26
Q

What do people often do during a change processwithout a refreezing stage ? (289)

A

Return to old ways. (Actively encouraging the use of newtechniques and reinforcing them encourages others to usethem as well.)

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27
Q

Positively reinforce desired outcomes during organizationalchange by rewarding people to strengthen thecorrect behaviors. T/F (289)

A

True.

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28
Q

After evaluating the results of the changes in theorganization, what actions should the change agent takeif the change happens poorly? (289)

A

Reinforce the desired outcomes and make constructive modifications.

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29
Q

What must leaders cultivate in every stage of teamdevelopment? (289)

A

A healthy team spirit.

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30
Q

What are the five critical attributes present in allhealthy teams? (289)

A

1) Trust; 2) ethical behavior; 3) sharing information; 4) criticaljudgment; and 5) cooperation.

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31
Q

What attribute is the core of all healthy team interactions?(289)

A

Trust

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32
Q

Trust gives teams the freedom to communicate openly,honestly and directly within the group. T/F (289-290)

A

True.

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33
Q

How might Airmen respond to team members thatthey do not trust? (290)

A

By alienating them, ignoring their input and withholdingvital information.

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34
Q

Trust is vital when sharing and accepting __ in ateam. (290)

A

Information.

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35
Q

Leaders can promote a trusting atmosphere in ateam by being trustworthy and by trusting their workers.What else can a leader do to promote trust? (290)

A

Value individual differences and encourage open and honestcommunication.

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36
Q

Unethical behavior tends to enhance a team’s spirit.T/F (290)

A

False. (It kills it.)

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37
Q

Ethical behaviors in a team conform to your profession’saccepted principles of right and wrong. What doesthis include? (290)

A

Honesty, integrity and concern for doing what is right.

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38
Q

What must teams openly share inside and outside thegroup in order to be successful? (290)

A

Information.

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39
Q

How can you encourage positive, open and sincerecommunication among team members while building ateam? (290)

A

By actively listening and sharing information.

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40
Q

A lack of sharing information within teams maycause confusion, frustration and the inability to complete __ .(290)

A

Taskings.

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41
Q

How can a leader increase a team’s success? (290)

A

By 1) giving complete access to all necessary data; 2) discouragingmembers from discounting ideas or feelings; 3)encouraging active listening and valuing individual differences.

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42
Q

The willingness to accept and encourage constructivecriticism in a team increases self-awareness. What elsedoes it do? (290)

A

It improves team effectiveness.

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43
Q

What must teams do to examine their processes andpractices? (290)

A

Accept intra-group feedback (criticism) and outside evaluations.

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44
Q

How do intragroup criticism and outside evaluationshelp build teams? (290)

A

By redirecting their focus and energy and quickly correctingproblems.

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45
Q

Critical __ consistently focuses the team in theright direction. (290)

A

Judgment.

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46
Q

Cooperation creates __ and faster results from ateam. (290)

A

Synergy

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47
Q

How can a team leader manage differences to enhancecooperation? (291)

A

Through win/win negotiations and reaching decisions byconsensus, not voting.

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48
Q

What benefits are created through cooperation in ateam? (291)

A

Shared ownership of team results and achieving objectivesincreases team pride and a healthy team spirit.

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49
Q

Competition in a team enhances cooperation. T/F(291)

A

False. (It hinders cooperation.)

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50
Q

How can team leaders reduce power-play behavior?(291)

A

By reemphasizing the specific roles and responsibilities ofeach team member.

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51
Q

eam members must be comfortable with, and confident in, one another. T/F (291)

A

True.

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52
Q

What service-wide initiative shapes the mindset andbehaviors of all Airmen to one of Continuous ProcessImprovement (CPI) to eliminate waste from every end-toendprocess? (291)

A

Air Force Smart Operations for the 21st Century (AFS021).

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53
Q

There are always ways to improve any process. T/F(291)

A

True. (Everyone should continually strive to make thoseimprovements.)

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54
Q

How many steps are in the problem-solving processat the core of Air Force Continuous Process Improvement(CPI)? (291)

A

Eight.

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55
Q

Rigorously apply the eight-step problem-solvingmodel to eliminate waste in everyday work and to close__ in processes. (291)

A

Performance gaps.

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56
Q

Why do process improvement efforts require anonblaming approach? (291)

A

Because people are not to blame for inefficient processes,and they can best identify barriers in their day-to-day jobs.(They must identify, acknowledge and resolve problems, nothide them.)

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57
Q

Air Force Smart Operations for the 21st Century(AFS021) breaks the four __ loop steps into eightflexible steps that are effective at any level - Air Force,MAJCOM, wing or individual. (291)

A

OODA. (Observe, Orient, Decide, Act.)

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58
Q

List the tasks in the eight-step problem-solving process.(292-Tbl)

A

1) Clarify and validate the problem; 2) break down the problemand identify performance gaps; 3) set improvement targets;4) determine root causes; 5) develop countermeasures;6) see countermeasures through; 7) confirm results and process;and 8) standardize successful processes.

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59
Q

Which Observe, Orient, Decide, Act (OODA) loopstep includes only one of the eight steps in the problem solving process? (292-Tbl)

A

Decide. (It includes Step 5.)

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60
Q

Which Observe, Orient, Decide, Act (OODA) stepincludes three of the eight steps in the problem-solvingprocess? (292-Tbl)

A

Act. (It includes Steps 6, 7 and 8.)

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61
Q

Airmen must both identify a problem and understandwhy there is a problem for Continuous ProcessImprovement (CPI) to work. T/F (291)

A

True. (Find the root cause.)

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62
Q

The eight-step problem-solving process provides aconcise, common format to do what three tasks? (291)

A

To 1) present information; 2) ease benchmarking; and 3)share best practices.

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63
Q

List the five lean tools you can use to decide whichproblems to tackle during Step 1 of the problem-solvingprocess. (292)

A

1) Strategic Alignment and Deployment (SA&D) 2) Suppliers,Inputs, Process, Outputs and Customers (SIPOC) analysis;3) Voice of the Customer; 4) Value Stream Mapping;and 5) Go and See.

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64
Q

Which lean tool used in Step 1 of the problemsolvingprocess ensures resources and activities arelinked to key strategies, directives and goals? (292)

A

Strategic Alignment and Deployment (SA&D).

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65
Q

Which lean tool, used in Step 1 of the problemsolvingprocess, provides a visual representation of ahigh-level process map? (292)

A

Suppliers, Inputs, Process, Outputs and Customers (SIPOC)analysis.

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66
Q

How does the Supplies, Input, Process, Output andCustomers (SIPOC) analysis tool used in Step 1 of theproblem-solving process help teams? (292)

A

It helps develop the scope of the process, including start andend points.

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67
Q

What is the bottom-line expectation for Step 1 of theproblem-solving process? (292)

A

Exclude all opinions, solutions or root causes and answer thequestions: 1) What is happening? 2) Where is it happening?3) When is it happening? 4) Who or what is being impacted?

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68
Q

When problem-solving, what sole entity defines valuefor a process? (292)

A

The customers. (Determine who they are, what they need andwhether you are meeting their needs.)

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69
Q

During Step 1 of the problem-solving process, whichtool helps define customers and what they need? (292)

A

Voice of the Customer.

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70
Q

Define Value Stream Mapping as used in Step 1 ofthe eight-step problem-solving process. (292)

A

The tool used to give an overview of the process at any level,to determine areas of needed focus.

71
Q

In Step 1 of the problem-solving process, which toolprovides first-hand data by actually walking through theprocess or problem area? (292)

A

Go and See.

72
Q

Define Step 2 in the eight-step problem-solving process.(293)

A

Break down problem and identify performance gaps.

73
Q

During Step 2 of the problem-solving process, whichtwo lean tools help you understand what data you needand what it means? (293)

A

1) Performance gap analysis; and 2) bottleneck analysis (orconstraint analysis).

74
Q

What is the bottom-line expectation for Step 2 of theeight-step problem-solving process? (293)

A

Provide data on the performance gap to show the differencebetween performance and customer expectation.

75
Q

Who sets improvement targets during Step 3 of theeight-step problem-solving process? (293)

A

Process owners and/or project sponsors.

76
Q

What tools help set improvement targets during Step3 of the eight-step problem-solving process? (293)

A

Future state mapping and Specific, Measurable, Attainable,Results-focused, Time-bound (SMART) targets.

77
Q

The bottom-line expectation for Step 3 of the eightstepproblem-solving process is to develop a __ . (293)

A

Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Results-focused, Timebound(SMART) target.

78
Q

In the problem-solving process, improvement targetsdefine the __ levels required to make an organization’svision a reality. (293)

A

Performance levels. (They should be challenging, butachievable.)

79
Q

What does the acronym SMART represent in theeight-step problem-solving process? (293)

A

Improvement targets should be Specific, Measurable, Attainable,Results-focused, Time-bound.

80
Q

When setting Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Results-focused, Time-bound (SMART) targets, what makesa target specific? (293)

A

Desirable outputs based on Subject Matter Expert (SME)knowledge and experience that are applicable to the processimprovement activity.

81
Q

In Step 3 of the eight-step problem-solving process,what does the measurable Specific, Measurable, Attainable,Results-focused, Time-bound (SMART) target include?(293)

A

Time frames and data obtainable from specific sources.

82
Q

When setting Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Results-focused, Time-bound (SMART) targets, resourcesmust be available for the goal to be attainable and thegoal should be risk-free. T/F (293)

A

False. (It can have some risk, but success must be possible.)

83
Q

When setting Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Results-focused, Time-bound (SMART) targets, resultsfocusedtargets should be linked to the mission, visionand goals. What else should they be? (293)

A

They should be meaningful to the user.

84
Q

When setting Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Results-focused, Time-bound (SMART) targets, should youprovide step-by-step views or take a much broader viewwith fewer measurements? (293)

A

Step-by-step views.

85
Q

What is the bottom-line expectation for Step 4 of theproblem-solving process? (293)

A

Use one of the six root cause analysis tools to enable a crediblecause-and-effect relationship to the problem.

86
Q

List the six tools used to identify true root causesduring Step 4 of the eight-step problem-solving process.(293-294)

A

1) 5 Whys; 2) brainstorming; 3) Pareto analysis; 4) affinitydiagrams; 5) cause and effect diagrams; and 6) controlcharts.

87
Q

When determining the root cause of a problem, describehow you use the 5 Whys tool. (293)

A

When you think you understand the cause of the problem,ask “why” five times.

88
Q

A cross-functional team that works in the problemarea almost always knows the root cause of the problem,but they do not realize it at the time. Which tool helps?(294)

A

Brainstorming. (Suggest as many ideas as possible.)

89
Q

Which tool identifies the root cause of a problem byobjectively graphing data to reveal the critical 20 percentof inputs that cause 80 percent of the problem? (294)

A

Pareto analysis.

90
Q

How do affinity diagrams help determine the rootcause of a problem? (294)

A

They group like items to simplify the problem.

91
Q

Which problem-solving tool visually depicts the relationshipbetween input categories and undesirable outputsto determine the root cause of a problem? (294)

A

Cause and effect diagrams.

92
Q

When using control charts to determine the rootcause of a problem, should you predefine upper and lowerperformance level limits? (294)

A

Yes. (These charts objectively graph process output overtime.)

93
Q

Which should be the easiest step in the eight-stepproblem-solving process? (294)

A

Step 5: Develop countermeasures (Decide). (If the first foursteps are done correctly.)

94
Q

What two things determine the strength of a solution’simpact on a problem? (294)

A

I) The quality of the solution; and 2) how it is accepted bythose who must implement it.

95
Q

What formula represents the impact of a solution?(294)

A

(Quality of the solution)+ (acceptance)= impact.

96
Q

An excellent solution to a problem can have zeroimpact. T/F (294)

A

True. (lfit receives no support.)

97
Q

Describe how a leader can present the solution to aproblem so that it’s accepted by those who must implementit. (294)

A

1) Select the most practical and effective countermeasures;2) keep it simple; 3) build consensus by involving all stakeholders;and 4) develop a sense ofownership.

98
Q

What is the bottom-line expectation for Step 5 (Developcountermeasures) of the eight-step problem-solvingprocess? (294)

A

Ensure the desired countermeasures address root causes andare prioritized to enable implementation.

99
Q

In Step 6 (See countermeasures through) of theeight-step problem-solving process, what three key questionsmust a leader answer before addressing a problem?(294)

A

1) Which Continuous Process Improvement (CPI) methodbest fits my situation?; 2) What is the best setting to implementmy solution?; and 3) Which CPI tools are most appropriate?

100
Q

What does an action plan waste if there is no action? (294)

A

Time and resources.

101
Q

When problem-solving, each solution must drawonly from one of the four major Continuous Process Improvement(CPI) methods. T/F (294)

A

False. (Solutions may draw from more than one.)

102
Q

In Step 6 (See countermeasures through) of theeight-step problem-solving process, what is the largestfactor in determining the most appropriate setting? (294)

A

The scope of effort required.

103
Q

Which setting is best for a solution to a problem thatinvolves one person or a small team, and can be done inless than one day? (294)

A

Just Do It. (Also called point improvement.)

104
Q

Describe the team and timeline that would require aRapid Improvement Event (RIE) setting to solve a problem.(294-295)

A

A small team of individuals, usually Subject Matter Experts(SME), and the task can be accomplished within a week.RIEs bring together cross-functional teams who work to improvea specific aspect.

105
Q

Which setting is best for a solution to a problem thatrequires a large team and a long period of time? (295)

A

Improvement project.

106
Q
  1. Before acting to solve a problem, select a lean processimprovement tool based on how well it addresses the____ identified in Step 4. (295)
A

Root causes.

107
Q

List the five most applicable lean process improvementtools used in Step 6 (See countermeasures through)of the eight-step problem-solving process. (295)

A

1) Sort, Set in Order, Shine, Standardize, Sustain, Safety (6-S) and visual management; 2) standard work; 3) cell design;4) error proofing; and 5) training.

108
Q

Which lean process improvement tool sets a place foreverything and shows when they are not in place? (295)

A

Sort, Set in Order, Shine, Standardize, Sustain, Safety (6-S)and visual management.

109
Q

Which lean process improvement tool is the bedrockof Continuous Process Improvement (CPI), used to determineif improvements are due to chance or deliberateefforts? (295)

A

Standard work.

110
Q

Designing how to arrange workers relative to thework and to each other is called __ design, a lean processimprovement tool. (295)

A

Cell design.

111
Q

Which lean process improvement tool makes it impossibleto do something wrong? (295)

A

Error proofing.

112
Q

In the problem-solving process, training is almostalways required and is usually necessary at different levelssimultaneously. T/F (295)

A

True. (Process customers and suppliers may also need training.)

113
Q

What is the bottom-line expectation for Step 6 (Seecountermeasures through) of the eight-step problemsolvingprocess? (295)

A

Develop a detailed implementation plan for each countermeasurethat includes a Point of Contact (POC), status andexpected completion date.

114
Q

In Step 7 (Confirm results and process) of the eightstepproblem-solving process, why should leaders comparecountermeasures results to performance gaps andimprovements targets? (295)

A

To ensure the process is sustainable, repeatable and meetsmission requirements.

115
Q

In Step 7 (Confirm results and process) of the eightstepproblem-solving process, leaders should monitorprojects for performance relative to what three things?(295)

A

l) The baseline developed in Steps 1 and 2; 2) Specific,Measurable, Attainable, Results-focused, Time-bound(SMART) targets established in Step 3; and 3) where youplanned to be at this stage.

116
Q

What should leaders consider doing if they find targetdeadlines are not being met in Step 7 (Confirm resultsand process) of the eight-step problem-solving process?(295)

A

Evaluate whether to return to Step 4: Determine root causes.

117
Q

What is the most common mistake made by ContinuousProcess Improvement (CPI) efforts? (295)

A

Incorrectly determining the root causes of the problem.

118
Q

The bottom-line expectation for Step 7 (Confirmresults and process) of the eight-step problem-solvingprocess is to answer three basic questions. What arethey? (295)

A

1) Was the Step 3 target achieved? 2) Was the Step 2 performancegap closed? 3) Was the Step 1 problem addressed?

119
Q

Which is the most commonly skipped and undercompletedstep in the eight-step problem-solving process?(295)

A

Step 8: Standardize successful processes (Act).

120
Q

Answering which three questions can help defineStep 8 (Standardize successful processes) in the problemsolvingprocess? (295)

A

1) What is needed to standardize the improvements?; 2) Howshould improvements and lessons learned be communicated?;and 3) Were other opportunities or problems identifiedby the problem-solving process?

121
Q

List the six ways that improvements and lessonslearned during the problem-solving process should becommunicated. (295)c

A

1) The Continuous Process Improvement (CPI) ManagementTool; 2) key meetings; 3) Air Force publications; 4) messagetraffic; 5) chain of command; or 6) communities of practice.

122
Q

Following all steps in the problem-solving processensures desired results that are aligned with the organization’sneeds and are achieved with an absolute minimumof wasted effort. T/F (296)

A

True. (This increases Air Force combat effectiveness.)

123
Q

The __ loop is infinite; restart it and follow theContinuous Process Improvement (CPI) process to solveother problems as they are identified. (296)

A

Observe, Orient, Decide, Act (OODA) loop.

124
Q

What is the bottom-line expectation for Step 8(Standardize successful processes) of the eight-step problem-solving process? (296)

A

Implement standard work, codify and share the improvement,and leave a performance measure in place.

125
Q

Which three processes combine to create a simple,thorough process improvement method that is flexibleenough to be effective at any level? (296)

A

The 1) Observe, Orient, Decide, Act (OODA) loop; 2) AirForce Smart Operations for the 21st Century (AFS02 l)tools; and 3) eight-step problem-solving process.

126
Q

What system establishes priorities, chooses policiesand acts to obtain the desired results and required resourcesat an acceptable cost? (296)

A

The Resource Management System (RMS).

127
Q

Resource Management System (RMS) elements include1) the execution plan; and 2) management and accountingsystems. Name three other elements. (296)

A

3) Participatory and committee management; 4) resourcemanagement teams; and 5) resource management training.

128
Q

Air Force managers oversee activities that cost money,but what do Resource Management System (RMS)duties refer to in terms of resources? (296)

A

The stewardship of money, manpower and equipment.

129
Q

Headquarters Air Force (HAF) and MAJCOMs ~make decisions about using resources. What role do baselevelresource managers play in this process? (296)

A

They must effectively manage resources, but do not controlinitial resource allocations.

130
Q

Financial management is inherent to command. T/F(296)

A

True. (Commanders review, validate and balance the executionplan to ensure successful financial management.)

131
Q

Commanders actively review financial programs foreach work center responsibility center that reports tothem. How do they improve resource management? (296)

A

They inquire about program conditions, review causes,weigh alternatives, direct actions and allocate sufficient resourcesto Resource Management System (RMS) trainingand resource management team efforts.

132
Q

Who provides sound financial management and adviceto the commander and staff in Resource ManagementSystem (RMS), and promotes responsible andproper financial management to ensure the economicaland efficient use of resources (consistent with statutoryand regulatory requirements)? (296)

A

Comptrollers.

133
Q

What do responsibility center managers do? (296)

A

They 1) plan, direct and coordinate subordinate organizations’activities; 2) analyze subordinate organizational plans;3) identify imbalances in resource distribution; 4) analyzealternative actions; and 5) balance programs.

134
Q

The cost center is the basic production flight or workcenter. What do cost center managers do? (296)

A

They regulate the consumption of work hours, supplies,equipment and services within their cost center, and shiftresources to or from various production tasks within the costcenter to ensure the proper mix or provide emphasis whererequired.

135
Q

Resource Advisors (RA) are appointed in writing bythe responsibility center manager. In Resource ManagementSystem (RMS), what responsibilities do they have?(296)

A

They 1) monitor and help prepare resource estimates; 2) helpdevelop obligations and expense fund targets; 3) compareresource use in daily operations to projected consumptionlevels; and 4) serve as the primary Points of Contact (POC)on resource management matters for their responsibility center.

136
Q

What board determines Resource Management System(RMS) priorities and ensures effective resource allocation?(297)

A

The financial management board. They review, approve ordisapprove recommendations made by the financial workinggroup.

137
Q

What group composed of line and staff ResourceAdvisors (RA) and responsibility center managers: 1)manages commodities and resources integral to the operatingactivities of the base or unit; 2) develops requirementsand revisions for the base or unit execution plans;3) reviews all appropriated fund execution plans; 4)makes recommendations to the financial managementboard for final approval; and 5) presents the financialmanagement board with recommendations for unfundedrequirement prioritization and fund target adjustmentsbetween responsibility centers and base-level budgetaryguidance? (297)

A

The financial working group.

138
Q

The financial working group provides __ guidanceto base activities regarding their primary responsibilityresources. (297)

A

Technical.

139
Q

What is supply discipline? (297)

A

The effort to conserve, protect and maintain available governmentsystems, supplies, equipment and real property foroperational requirements in the best possible condition, inconstant readiness and in the absolute minimum quantitynecessary to accomplish assigned tasks.

140
Q

What four roles do commanders, subordinates, supervisorsand individuals play in supply discipline? (297)

A

They must 1) accurately maintain property records to reflectcurrent inventory and property conditions; 2) ensure personnelcarefully and economically use and safeguard property;3) provide adequate security, protection and storage forproperty; and 4) make recommendations for preventingFraud, Waste and Abuse (FWA).

141
Q

A property __ is any person designated by theorganization commander or chief of staff agency responsiblefor government property in his or her possession.(297)

A

Custodian

142
Q

Property custodians must 1) plan and forecast requirementsto meet mission goals; and 2) prepare andforward materiel requests to the proper agency. Namethree more responsibilities. (297)

A

3) Sign custody receipts or listings for property charged totheir organization; 4) report property losses or irregularitiesto their immediate commanders or accountable officers; and5) take action to reconcile and correct property records.

143
Q

For what may property custodians be held liable?(297)

A

The loss, destruction or damage of any property or resourcesunder their control.

144
Q

Who is responsible for the efficient and economicaluse of an organization’s resources? (297)

A

All Air Force commanders and supervisors.

145
Q

What is everyone’s principal responsibility whendealing with resources that appear to be cost-free assets?(297)

A

To ensure these resources are used in the most cost-effectivemanner.

146
Q

Which budget covers costs associated with the operationof all Air Force organizations? (298)

A

The operating budget. (Operating on a FY basis, its approvalby higher headquarters gives obligation authority to accomplishthe mission.)

147
Q

The FY represents the period beginning the first dayof __ and ending the last day of the following __ .(298)

A

October; September.

148
Q

Abuse of the system, resource waste and acts of ___costs the Air Force millions in dollars and resourceseach year. (298)

A

Fraud

149
Q

____ is intentional deception that unlawfully deprivesthe Air Force of something of value or to securefor an individual a benefit, privilege, allowance or considerationto which he or she is not entitled. (298)

A

Fraud.

150
Q

Examples of fraud include 1) the offer, payment oracceptance of bribes or gratuities; 2) evading or corruptinginspectors or other officials; 3) making false statements,submitting false claims or using false weights ormeasures; and 4) using deceit, either by suppressing thetruth or misrepresenting material facts or to deprive theAir Force of something of value. Name five more. (298)

A

5) Adulterating or substituting materials; 6) falsifying recordsand books of accounts; 7) conspiring to carry out any ofthe above actions; 8) engaging in conflict of interest cases,criminal irregularities or the unauthorized disclosure of officialinformation regarding procurement and disposal; and 9)any theft or diversion of resources for personal or commercialgain.

151
Q

___ is the extravagant, careless or needless expenditureof Air Force funds or consumption of AirForce property because of deficient practices, systemscontrols or decisions (including improper practices that are not prosecutable as fraud). (298)

A

Waste.

152
Q

Should you consider wartime and emergency operationswhen explaining possible waste in the Air Force?(298-Note)

A

Yes. (For example, legitimate stockpiles and reserves forwartime needs, which might appear redundant and costly, arenot considered waste.)

153
Q

Abuse is the __ wrongful or improper use of AirForce resources. (298)

A

Intentionally.

154
Q

Preventing Fraud, Waste and Abuse (FWA) is ofminor concern to the Air Force. T/F (298)

A

False. (It is a primary concern.)

155
Q

Who provides policy guidance, develops proceduresand establishes and evaluates the Air Force Complaintsand Fraud, Waste and Abuse (FWA) programs? (298)

A

The Secretary of the Air Force, IG (SAF/IG). (I Gs at everylevel establish and direct these programs.)

156
Q

Air Force personnel have a duty to promptly reportFraud, Waste and Abuse (FWA) to whom? (298)

A

An appropriate supervisor or commander, an IG or otherappropriate inspector, or through an established grievancechannel. (You may also report FW A to the Air Force AuditAgency, the Air Force OSI, security forces or other properauthorities.)

157
Q

Which office investigates criminal allegations of Fraud, Waste and Abuse (FWA)? (298)

A

Air Force OSI.

158
Q

Try to resolve Fraud, Waste and Abuse (FWA) issuesusing command channels at the __ level possiblebefore taking them to higher levels or the JG. (298)

A

Lowest level.

159
Q

How may individuals submit Fraud, Waste andAbuse (FW A) disclosures? (298)

A

By memorandum, in person or by FW A hotlines.

160
Q

You must identify yourself when reporting Fraud,Waste and Abuse (FWA). T/F (298)

A

False. (You may remain anonymous.)

161
Q

The information in a Fraud, Waste and Abuse(FWA) disclosure or complaint is privileged and confidential.T/F (299)

A

False. (But disclosure is strictly limited to an official needto-know basis.)

162
Q

When may Fraud, Waste and Abuse (FWA) complaintinformation be disclosed? (299)

A

Only 1) when required by law or regulation; 2) when necessaryto take adverse action against a subject; or 3) with theapproval of the Secretary of the Air Force, IG (SAF/IG).

163
Q

Access to the Fraud, Waste and Abuse (FWA) summaryof results is limited in what ways? (299)

A

The nature of the allegation and findings determine whatinformation is releasable. Complainants and witnesses haverestricted access to IG records as provided by the Freedom ofInformation Act (FOIA) and Privacy Act (PA). Whistleblowerwitnesses have additional rights.

164
Q

Whistleblowers have no additional rights to information,determined by the nature of the allegation andfindings of the Fraud, Waste and Abuse (FWA) summary.T/F (299)

A

False. (Depending on the nature of the allegation and findings.)

165
Q

Are “third-party” Fraud, Waste and Abuse (FWA)complainants entitled to a response regarding allegedwrongs that don’t directly affect them? (299)

A

Only if they are authorized to receive information via a Freedomoflnformation Act (FOIA) or Privacy Act (PA) release.

166
Q

Operational needs and mission requirements aredependent upon the availability of environmental resources.T/F (299)

A

True.

167
Q

The Air Force and DoD establish and maintain anEnvironmental Management System (EMS) per EO__ ,Strengthening Federal Environmental, Energy, andTransportation Management. (299)

A

EO 13423.

168
Q

What are seven ways the Environmental ManagementSystem (EMS) sustains and enhances mission capability?(299-300)

A

It: 1) maintains compliance with all applicable environmentallaws, regulations and policy requirements; 2) implementsPollution Prevention (P2) solutions; 3) sustains natural, cultural,built and human resources; 4) incorporates EMS andEnvironmental, Safety and Occupational Health (ESOH)considerations to improve mission capacity and preventwaste; 5) provides community outreach; 6) incorporatesEMS elements into operations where appropriate; and 7)meets or exceeds performance measures.

169
Q

What four aspects of the Environmental ManagementSystem (EMS) fall under the Plan step? (300-Fig)

A

I) Scope and environmental policy; 2) identify environmental aspects; 3) legal and other requirements; and 4) objec~tives, targets and programs.

170
Q

Name seven aspects of the Environmental ManagementSystem (EMS) that fall under the Do step. (300-Fig)

A

1) EQ programming and budgeting; 2) roles and responsibilities;3) internal/external communication; 4) document andrecords management; 5) emergency response; 6) education,training and awareness; and 7) operational controls.

171
Q

What six aspects of the Environmental ManagementSystem (EMS) fall under the Check step? (300-Fig)

A

1) Compliance and conformance assessments; 2) performancemonitoring; 3) natural infrastructure assessment; 4)equipment calibration; 5) corrective and preventive action;and 6) legal compliance tracking and reporting.

172
Q

Name the two aspects of the Environmental ManagementSystem (EMS) that fall under the Act step. (300-Fig)

A

1) Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Council(ESOHC) management review; and 2) continual improvement.

173
Q

List 10 of the 22 programs that are a part of the EnvironmentalManagement System (EMS). (300-Fig)

A

Any 10 of the following: 1) Petroleum, Oil and Lubricants(POL); 2) Pollution Prevention (P2); 3) Air Quality; 4)Drinking Water; 5) Waste Water; 6) Stormwater; 7) Solidand Hazardous Waste; 8) Storage Tanks; 9) Noise; 10) NaturalResources; 11) Cultural Resources; 12) Hazardous Materials;13) Toxics; 14) Occupational Health; 15) Safety; 16)Energy; 17) Green Procurement; 18) Environmental Restoration;19) Environmental Impact Analysis Process (EIAP);20) Environmental, Safety and Occupational Health ComplianceAssessment and Management Program (ESOHCAMP);21) Pest management; and 22) Recycling.

PDG (20 decks)

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