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PDG > Chapter-16 > Flashcards

Chapter-16 Flashcards

1
Q

How do the men and women of wing support prepare Airmen for mission accomplishment? (385)

A

They provide self-service technology and a variety of programs and services, allowing Airmen to focus on the mission rather than personal issues.

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2
Q

What is the Air Force Portal’s mission? (385)

A

Providing ready access to the latest Air Force information,services and combat support applications, available anytime, anywhere, from any Internet-connected computer.

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3
Q

In what year was the Air Force Portal launched?(385)

A

2000.

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4
Q

The Air Force Portal is the single point of entry forWeb-based information, self-service applications, collaboration tools and combat support systems. Name several of its key applications. (385)

A

Total force awareness training, myPay, Air Force Virtual Education Center (AFVEC), Air Force fitness management system, Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF), LeaveWeb, Training Business Area, Enterprise-SolutionSupply and many more.

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5
Q

The Air Force Portal is the entry point to the GlobalCombat Support System Air Force (GCSS-AF). What isthe GCSS-AF’s goal? (385)

A

To provide timely, accurate and trusted combat support informationto joint and Air Force commanders at all echelons.

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6
Q

With over __ registered Air Force and DoD users,the Air Force Portal averages over __ logins perweek. (385)

A

825,000; 400,000.

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7
Q

Every member is entitled to basic pay while on activeduty, with what exceptions? (385)

A

Periods of unauthorized absence, excess leave or after anenlistment expires.

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8
Q

Annual military pay raises are linked to what? (385)

A

Salary increases in the private sector as measured by the employment cost index.

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9
Q

Beginning in 2007, how are military pay raises determined?(385)

A

They are automatically equal to the increase in the employ mentcost index, unless Congress authorizes and funds ahigher raise.

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10
Q

Basic pay is the fundamental component of militarypay, governed by what two factors? (385)

A

Grade and length of military service.

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11
Q

Why is the accuracy of your military pay date important?(385)

A

It determines your length of service for pay purposes.

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12
Q

Under what circumstances could your pay date beearlier than the date you went on active duty? (385)

A

If you previously served in certain governmental agencies orenlisted under the Delayed Enlistment Program before IJanuary 1985. (The Air Force adjusts your pay date to creditthese periods.)

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13
Q

Under what circumstances could your pay date belater than the date you went on active duty, resulting in anegative pay date adjustment? (385)

A

Periods of AWOL, desertion, or sickness or injury due topersonal misconduct.

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14
Q

What document shows your entitlements, deductions,allotments, leave information, tax-withholding andThrift Savings Plan (TSP) information? (386)

A

Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) Form 702,Defense Finance and Accounting Service Leave and EarningsStatement (LES).

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15
Q

What system lets you view your Leave and EarningsStatement (LES) and initiate changes to selected itemsaffecting your pay? (386)

A

The electronic myPay system.

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16
Q

Monetary __ cover specific needs not provided by the government. (386)

A

Allowances.

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17
Q

What are the most common monetary allowances?(386)

A

Basic Allowance for Subsistence (BAS) and Basic Allowancefor Housing (BAH).

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18
Q

Most military allowances are not taxable. What isthe exception? (386)

A

CONUS Cost-of-Living Allowance (COLA).

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19
Q

Most junior grade enlisted members assigned to single-type government quarters at their Permanent DutyStation (PDS) are required to eat in government diningfacilities. What do they receive? (386)

A

A Basic Allowance for Subsistence (BAS) and the discountedmeal rate is deducted from their pay..

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20
Q

May members assigned to single-type governmentquarters at their Permanent Duty Station (PDS) claimreimbursement for missed meals? (386)

A

Yes, when certified by the commanding officer or designee.

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21
Q

What three factors determine housing allowances?(386)

A

Member’s grade, dependency status and location. (The locationdetermines whether the allowance is Basic Allowancefor Housing (BAH) or OS Housing Allowance (OHA).)

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22
Q

In some cases, members who are not able to taketheir families to the Permanent Duty Station (PDS) areeligible for payment of __ allowance, in addition toBasic Allowance for Housing (BAH) or OS Housing Allowance(OHA). (386)

A

Family Separation Housing (FSH) allowance.

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23
Q

What is the intent of the Basic Allowance for Housing(BAH)? (386)

A

To provide uniformed service members with accurate andequitable housing compensation when government quartersare not provided, based on costs in local civilian housingmarkets.

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24
Q

How does Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) affectmembers living in privatized quarters? (386)

A

Rent must equal the BAH entitlement, paid via allotment.(Some privatized housing contractors now accept less thanfull BAH as rent to eliminate vacant housing.)

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25
Q

Members without dependents residing in governmentsingle-type quarters are entitled to partial BasicAllowance for Housing (BAH), unless what conditionapplies? (386)

A

The quarters, including government-leased quarters, exceedthe minimum standards for single quarters for their grade.

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26
Q

What type of Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH)may members living in single-type government quarterswho pay court-ordered child support qualify for? (386)

A

Basic Allowance for Housing Differential (BAH-DIFF).

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27
Q

Members who receive an OS Housing Allowance(OHA) are reimbursed actual rental costs up to the maximumOHA rate for each locality and grade. Describe thetwo types of OHA. (386)

A

1) Move-In Housing Allowance (MIHA), based on average”move-in” costs for members who qualify; and 2) monthlyOHA, including a utility/recurring maintenance allowance.

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28
Q

The Family Separation, Basic Allowance for Housing(FSH) compensates members for added __ expensesresulting from enforced separation from dependents.(386)

A

Housing.

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29
Q

What are the two types of the Family Separation,Basic Allowance for Housing (FSH)? (386)

A

FSH-Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) (FSH-B) andFSH-OS Housing Allowance (OHA) (FSH-0).

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30
Q

Which Family Separation, Basic Allowance forHousing (FSH) is payable each month in an amountequal to the without-dependent Basic Allowance forHousing (BAH) rate for the member’s grade and PermanentDuty Station (PDS)? (386)

A

FSH-B.

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31
Q

Family Separation, Basic Allowance for Housing(FSH)- is payable in a monthly amount up to thewithout-dependent OS Housing Allowance (OHA) ratefor the member’s grade and Permanent Duty Station(PDS). (386)

A

FSH-0.

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32
Q

Name the two types of Clothing Replacement Allowances(CRA). (387)

A

CRA Basic and CRA Standard.

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33
Q

Which Clothing Replacement Allowance (CRA) is apreliminary replacement allowance paid annually startingin the sixth month of active duty service? (387)

A

CRABasic.

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34
Q

Clothing Replacement Allowance (CRA) Standardautomatically replaces CRA Basic after __ months ofactive duty service. (387)

A

36 months.

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35
Q

Family Separation Allowance (FSA) is payable inaddition to any other allowance or per diem to which amember may be entitled. T/F (387)

A

True.

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36
Q

May a member receive more than one payment ofFamily Separation Allowance (FSA) for the same periodif they also qualify for FSA-Restricted (FSA-R) and FSAServingon a Ship (FSA-S) or FSA-Temporary (FSA-T)?(387)

A

No.

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37
Q

The __ pays qualified members for added expensesincurred because of an enforced family separation.(387)

A

Family Separation Allowance (FSA). (It includes FSARestricted(FSA-R), FSA-Serving on a Ship (FSA-S) andFSA-Temporary (FSA-T).)

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38
Q

What two OS-station allowances defray the higherthan-normal cost of living or procuring housing in certainOS locations? (387)

A

1) Temporary Lodging Allowance {TLA); and 2) cost-oflivingallowance.

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39
Q

What allowance is available to members assigned todesignated “high cost” areas within the CONUS? (387)

A

CONUS Cost-of-Living Allowance (COLA).

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40
Q

In addition to enlistment and reenlistment bonuses,name several examples of special and incentive pay. (387)

A

Hazardous duty incentive pay, imminent danger pay, specialduty assignment pay, enlisted flying duty incentive pay, andhardship duty pay location.

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41
Q

What are two general categories of payroll deductions?(387)

A

Voluntary and involuntary.

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42
Q

All pay is considered income for federal and stateincome tax purposes. T/F (387)

A

True. (This includes basic pay, special and incentive pays,accrued leave lump-sum pay and separation pay.)

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43
Q

Allowances considered nontaxable on 9 September__ remain nontaxable. (387)

A
  1. (For example, Basic Allowance for Subsistence (BAS)is nontaxable and CONUS Cost-of-Living Allowance (COLA)is taxable.)
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44
Q

List four involuntary payroll deductions. (387-388)

A

1) Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA) taxes; 2)Federal Income Tax Withholding (FITW); 3) State IncomeTax Withholding (SITW); and 4) Armed Forces RetirementHome (AFRH).

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45
Q

Which involuntary payroll deduction provides fornational programs such as defense, community developmentand law enforcement? (388)

A

Federal Income Tax Withholding (FITW).

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46
Q

What determines whether a member must pay statetaxes? (388)

A

The tax laws of their state oflegal residency.

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47
Q

What is the maximum monthly payroll deduction forthe Armed Forces Retirement Home (AFRH) from a regularenlisted member? (388)

A

$1. (This money helps support the US Soldiers’ and Airmen’sHome and the Naval Home.)

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48
Q

Members may have up to six discretionary payrollallotments. Name several examples. (388)

A

Repayment of home loans, automobile loans, debtconsolidationloans, personal savings programs, support offamily members and insurance premiums.

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49
Q

Members may control certain discretionary allotmentsthrough myPay. T/F (388)

A

True. (However, there can be only one discretionary allotmentto the same allottee.)

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50
Q

What are allotments with limited use, such as charitablecontributions, child or spousal support, garnishment for commercial debts and delinquent travel chargecard debt called? (388)

A

N ondiscretionary allotments.

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51
Q

How early should you sign up for a payroll allotment?(388)

A

About 30 days before the desired start month. (If paid twice amonth, allotments are deducted in two equal amounts.)

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52
Q

Servicemembers Group Life Insurance (SGLI) automaticallygives eligible members life insurance coveragewhen performing active duty or active duty for trainingfor an ordered period of more than __ days. (388)

A

30 days.

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53
Q

The maximum amount of Servicemembers GroupLife Insurance (SGLI) coverage is $ _ . (388)

A

$400,000. (Members are covered at the maximum rate unlessthey decline or reduce coverage.)

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54
Q

Servicemembers Group Life Insurance (SGLI) onlycovers military members. T/F (388)

A

False. (Family Servicemembers Group Life Insurance(FSGLI) covers spouses, including military spouses, anddependent children when the members also participate in SGLI coverage.)

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55
Q

How much are the monthly deductions for Servicemembers Group Life Insurance (SGLI) spousal and dependent coverage? (388)

A

For spousal coverage, the deduction depends on the amountof coverage. Each child is covered for $10,000 at no cost tothe member.

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56
Q

When are Servicemembers Group Life Insurance(SGLI) and Family Servicemembers Group Life Insurance(FSGLI) premiums deducted from a member’s pay?(388)

A

Each month.

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57
Q

When do members receive a Net Pay Advice (NPA)statement of their net amount pay and the financial organizationto which it was sent? (388)

A

Midmonth (if receiving a payment).

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58
Q

Members receive a comprehensive statement of pay,the __ , at the end of the month via myPay. (388)

A

Leave and Earnings Statement (LES).

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59
Q

What are the usual cutoff dates used to compute,prepare and transfer payroll funds? (388)

A

Around the 6th of the month for mid-month payday and the 20th for end-of-month payday.

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60
Q

Local, partial and emergency partial payments areonly authorized in __ areas where on-base militarybanking facilities are not readily available. (388)

A

OS. (Exceptions may be granted for members assigned toclassified or contingency operations requiring local cash orpartial payments.)

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61
Q

Under what extenuating circumstances may a statesidemember receive an emergency partial payment?(389)

A

If the payment is deemed time-sensitive and required within24 hours due to an unforeseen set of circumstances. Themember’s commander may authorize immediate cash payments(up to the amount of accrued entitlement to date) whendeemed appropriate to the mission.

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62
Q

How can non-cash partial payments be made? (389)

A

Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT). (It usually deposits into themember’s financial institution within two to three businessdays.)

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63
Q

What are partial payments limited to? (389)

A

The amount of pay and allowances the member has accruedto the date of the payment.

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64
Q

What do PCS advance payments provide members?(389)

A

Funds to meet extraordinary expenses due to a governmentordered relocation, directly related to the PCS and not coveredby other entitlements.

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65
Q

A PCS advance payment {less mandatory deductionsand all known debts currently being deducted) is an advanceof up to three months basic pay. Whose approval isrequired for Al Cs and below? (389)

A

Their immediate commander’s.

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66
Q

Which ranks require their immediate commander’sapproval if the payback period for a PCS advance paymentexceeds 12 months or the amount requested isgreater than one month’s basic pay? (389)

A

All members. (Repayment periods greater than 12 monthsare only approved in cases of financial hardship.)

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67
Q

Name four PCS transportation allowances. (389)

A

1) Government-procured; 2) use of Privately Owned Conveyance(POC); 3) personally-procured; and 4) mixedmodes.

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68
Q

What mode of transportation should be used for allcommercial air transportation of persons and propertywhen air travel is funded by the US government? (389)

A

Available US-certificated air carriers.

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69
Q

When is use of a Privately Owned Conveyance(POC) (versus government conveyance or commercialcarrier) authorized or approved as a transportation allowance?(389)

A

If acceptable to the member and advantageous to the government,based on the facts in each case.

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70
Q

What is the flat per diem rate for members authorizedPrivately Owned Conveyance (POC) travel? (389)

A

The standard CONUS rate for each PCS travel day betweenauthorized points, up to the allowable travel time.

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71
Q

DoD policy mandates using the Commercial TravelOffice (CTO) for all official transportation requirements.What reimbursement restrictions apply when you purchaseyour own common carrier transportation for officialtravel? (389)

A

If you personally procure transportation, you may receive upto the amount authorized, not to exceed the cost the governmentwould have incurred based on the usual travel route andaccommodations.

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72
Q

What regulation governs mixed mode transportation(when both government-procured and personallyprocuredmodes are used)? (389)

A

The Joint Federal Travel Regulation (JFTR).

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73
Q

Who should you contact for specific travel guidance for both government- and personally-procured (mixedmode) transportation? (389)

A

The local finance office.

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74
Q

When traveling with dependents by Privately OwnedVehicle (POV), members receive a(n) __ plus flat rateper diem for the official distance dependents traveled.(389)

A

Monetary Allowance in Lieu of Transportation (MALT).

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75
Q

Name four PCS entitlements other than transportationallowances. (389-390)

A

Any four of the following: 1) dependent travel; 2) dislocationallowance; 3) Temporary Lodging Expense (TLE) and TemporaryLodging Allowance (TLA); 4) shipment of HouseholdGoods (HHG); 5) shipment ofunaccompanied baggage;6) shipment of Privately Owned Vehicle (POV); and 7) mobilehome shipments.

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76
Q

Does the Air Force help pay dependent expenses duringa PCS? (389-390)

A

Yes.

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77
Q

If dependents are restricted from an OS location,they must remain at the members last CONUS station.TIF (390)

A

False. (They may move at government expense to anyCONUS location designated by the member. MovesOCONUS require special approval.)

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78
Q

A dislocation allowance is paid to all members withdependents (at a rate determined by the SecDef) whendependents relocate their household goods in conjunctionwith a PCS. When is it paid to members without dependents?(390)

A

When they are not assigned permanent government quartersupon arrival at the new Permanent Duty Station (PDS).

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79
Q

Explain the difference between the Temporary LodgingExpense (TLE) and Temporary Lodging Allowance(TLA). (390)

A

TLE helps defray the cost of temporary lodging expensesassociated with a PCS within the CONUS. TLA helps defrayadded living expenses while occupying temporary lodgingfor a PCS OCONUS.

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80
Q

What usually determines the authorized weight allowancefor shipping Household Goods (HHG) at governmentexpense during a PCS move? (390)

A

The grade of the member and whether he or she has dependents.

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81
Q

Members may be reimbursed for personally arrangingshipment of Household Goods (HHG) for a PCSmove. How is the government’s cost limited? (390)

A

It is based on the member’s maximum HHG weight allowance

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82
Q

What is the PCS weight allowance when shipping unaccompanied baggage via expedited commercial air?(390)

A

A maximum of 1,000 pounds (net).

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83
Q

The Air Force may pay to ship one Privately OwnedVehicle (POV) at government expense when you’re orderedto a PCS to, from or between locations OS. Is POVstorage ever provided? (390)

A

Yes (when shipment is prohibited or restricted).

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84
Q

Shipment of a mobile home is in lieu of HouseholdGoods (HHG) transportation. T/F (390)

A

True.

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85
Q

TDY entitlements include per diem, transportationand __ reimbursable expenses. (390)

A

Miscellaneous.

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86
Q

Which TDY entitlement helps defray the costs ofquarters, meals and incidentals? (390)

A

Per diem.

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87
Q

What do TDY per diem rates cover? (390)

A

They pay a set amount for meals and incidentals based onTDY location, plus actual lodging expenses (not to exceedmaximum rates for the specific location). Rates depend onthe availability of government facilities.

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88
Q

Uniformed service members must use availableCommercial Travel Offices (CTO) to arrange __ TDYtravel. (390)

A

Official.

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89
Q

What factor determines your TDY transportationentitlement? (390)

A

The mode of transportation used between the points designatedon your travel orders.

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90
Q

Can you receive authorization to travel TDY at personalexpense? (390)

A

Yes. (You will receive a reimbursement.)

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91
Q

What TDY travel reimbursement will you receivewhen you are authorized to drive a Privately Owned Vehicle(POV) by the orders-issuing authority? (390)

A

Mileage reimbursement.

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92
Q

Lodging taxes (US and possessions only), tips forbaggage handling at airports, official telephone calls,taxis and car rentals (when authorized) are just a fewexamples of what kind of TDY entitlement? (390)

A

Miscellaneous reimbursable expenses.

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93
Q

When a TDY is completed, what is required of thetraveler to claim reimbursement for official travel expenses?(391)

A

Electronically filing a voucher (Defense Travel System) orpreparing a DD Form 1351-2, Travel Voucher orSubvoucher.

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94
Q

Who is responsible for the truth and accuracy of theinformation submitted with DD Form 1351-2? (391)

A

The traveler. (The signature authority must never be delegated.)

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95
Q

You may wait for reimbursement before paying thetravel card company for TDY expenses. T/F (391)

A

False. (You are expected to pay the amount billed upon receiptof the monthly statement.)

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96
Q

A travel claim must be settled by Electronic FundsTransfer (EFT). When may supervisors authorize alternatemethods of payment? (391)

A

In limited situations where the traveler doesn’t have access toan account at a financial institution that can receive EFTtransmissions.

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97
Q

__ disbursement permits direct payment throughElectronic Funds Transfer (EFT) to the travel card contractorfor charges incurred on the travel card and to thecardholder for any residual amount. (391)

A

Split disbursement.

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98
Q

When TDY for 45 days or more, you should file aninterim travel voucher every __ days and use splitdisbursement to pay the bill on time. (391)

A

30 days.

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99
Q

What program offers a safe, effective, convenient,commercially available method of paying expenses incidentto official travel, including local travel? (391)

A

The government travel card program.

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100
Q

Who manages the day-to-day operations of the DoDtravel card program and works with the card contractorto maintain an up-to-date list of all current cardholdersand accounts? (391)

A

Agency Program Coordinators (APC). (They are appointedin writing and act on behalf of the unit commander.)

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101
Q

Unless otherwise exempted, who must use the travelcharge card for all expenses arising from official governmenttravel? (391)

A

All DoD personnel.

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102
Q

What types of expenses should you use your governmenttravel card to cover while traveling on official governmentbusiness? (391)

A

Lodging, meals, transportation expenses, local ground transportation,rental car expenses authorized on orders, and reasonableincidental travel expenses.

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103
Q

Should you obtain cash for authorized governmenttravel through ATMs or through cash advances from aDoD disbursing officer? (391)

A

ATMs

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104
Q

When using the government travel card, do not obtainA TM cash advances more than three work days beforeyour scheduled travel. How is use of these advanceslimited? (391)

A

To authorized expenses exempt from mandatory card usage(meals, incidentals, miscellaneous expenses, etc.).

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105
Q

When using the government travel card, are the cardcontractor’s fees for ATM usage or international transactionfees a reimbursable expense? (391)

A

Yes. (Bank fees for ATM access are also reimbursable.)

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106
Q

What is the Air Force policy regarding misuse of theDoD travel card? (391)

A

Cardholders who misuse their DoD travel cards are subjectto appropriate administrative or disciplinary action.

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107
Q

Who must pay all outstanding balances in the creditcard contractor’s monthly billing statement in full? (392)

A

The cardholder.

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108
Q

Military service members who travel TDY and usegovernment credit cards must use the split disbursementfeature to automatically pay the credit card vendor whileon official travel. T/F (392)

A

True. (Cardholders must designate the total outstanding balanceincurred while traveling as split-disbursement whenfiling their vouchers.)

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109
Q

Government credit card contractors may charge alate fee per billing cycle for accounts that are __ dayspast the closing date of the account statement on whichthe charges first appeared. (392)

A

75 days.

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110
Q

While in a PCS status, why must the cardholder notifythe losing Agency Program Coordinator (APC) beforedeparting the old duty station? (392)

A

So the losing APC can 1) set a future date in the card company’sElectronic Access System (EAS) to deactivate thecardholder’s account based on the PCS travel order report nolater than date; and 2) submit a transfer request to the cardcompany so the individual is removed from that unit’s reportinghierarchy level.

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111
Q

While in a PCS status, why must the cardholder notifythe gaining Agency Program Coordinator (APC) uponreporting to the new duty station? (392)

A

So the gaining APC can 1) ensure the transfer request is processedby the card company when the member arrives so theaccount information can be updated; and 2) clear the deactivationdate within the card company’s Electronic AccessSystem (EAS).

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112
Q

As a government credit cardholder, you are responsiblefor payment in full of the amount stated on themonthly billing statement. Your pay may be garnishedfor accounts over __ days delinquent. (392)

A

126 days. (Upon written request, the DoD may authorizepayroll deductions for undisputed delinquencies.)

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113
Q

If garnishments aren’t possible and the account isover ___ days delinquent, the government credit cardcontractor will charge off the account, report it to thecredit bureaus and assign a third-party collection agency.(392)

A

210days.

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114
Q

The Air Force can withhold your pay without yourconsent (due process) for debts owed to the federal governmentor its instrumentalities, but they must notify youand give you a chance to repay the debt if it exceeds $100.What exceptions apply? (392)

A

Due process need not be completed before starting collectionaction if 1) the individual’s estimated date of separation is notsufficient to complete collection and the Air Force would beunlikely to collect the debt; or 2) the collection action can becompleted within two monthly pay periods.

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115
Q

Can the Air Force collect debts involving any federalagency, unserved portions of a reenlistment bonus or afamily member’s delinquent hospital bills? (392)

A

Yes. (Also for excess shipment of Household Goods (HHG),loss or damage to government property, and erroneous paymentsmade to or on behalf of the member by the Air Force.)

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116
Q

Name two ways a military member can request relieffrom valid debts to the federal government. (392)

A

They may apply for a waiver or remission of the debt.

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117
Q

When are waivers for erroneous pay or allowancesgranted? (392)

A

When there is no indication of fraud, misrepresentation, faultor lack of good faith on the part of the member or any personwith an interest in obtaining the waiver.

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118
Q

Who rules on all waivers of claims for erroneouspayments of pay and allowances? (392)

A

Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DF AS). (The collectionof the indebtedness must be started when filing.)

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119
Q

Who may apply for remission of an enlisted member’s indebtedness to the US? (392)

A

A Regular Air Force or separated member or his or her commander.

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120
Q

The Air Force may remit or cancel any debt due tononcollection of court-martial forfeiture. (392)

A

False.

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121
Q

What three factors are considered when the SECAFconsiders a request for remission of indebtedness? (392)

A

1) The circumstances creating the debt; 2) the member’sgood faith; and 3) financial hardship.

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122
Q

What act established the US Air Force UniformedThrift Savings Plan (TSP) for federal employees? (393)

A

The Federal Employees’ Retirement Act of 1986. (Participationin the plan for uniformed servicemembers is authorizedbylaw.)

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123
Q

What does the Air Force Thrift Savings Plan (TSP)offer? (393)

A

Tax-deferred advantages similar to those of an IndividualRetirement Account (IRA) or 40l(k) plan. (TSP contributionsare taken out of pay before taxes are computed, reducingyour individual tax obligation.)

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124
Q

When you contribute basic pay to the Thrift SavingsPlan (TSP), up to 100% of special and incentive pays andbonuses may also be contributed. As of 2012, the maximumannual contribution became$ __ . (393)

A

$17,000. (Amounts must be stated as a whole percent.)

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125
Q

What Airman and Family Readiness Center(A&FRC) service offers information, education and personalfinancial counseling to help individuals and familiesmaintain financial stability and reach their financialgoals? (393)

A

The Personal Financial Readiness.

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126
Q

Why is an aggressive leave program an essential militaryrequirement? (393)

A

Because lengthy respites tend to have psychological andphysical benefits. (See AFI 36-3003, Military Leave Program.)

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127
Q

Leave accrues at a rate of __ calendar days permonth of active duty service. (393)

A

2 112 calendar days.

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128
Q

Annual leave accrual is temporarily increased from atotal of 60 days to __ days until 30 September 2013.(393)

A

75 days.

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129
Q

When accruing leave, what does the expression “useor lose” mean? (393)

A

Leave in excess of 75 days is lost if not used by the end ofthe FY (30 September).

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130
Q

You may request to carry over excess leave from oneFY to the next if mission requirements preclude using itprior to 30 September. T/F (393)

A

True.

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131
Q

When can the Air Force pay you for unused leave?(393)

A

Upon reenlistment, retirement, separation under honorableconditions or death.

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132
Q

You cannot receive accrued leave payment for morethan __ days of accrued leave during your militarycareer. (393)

A

60 days. (Leave should be used to relax from the pressures ofduties, not as a method of compensation.)

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133
Q

When does leave not accrue? (393)

A

When members are 1) AWOL; 2) in an unauthorized leavestatus; 3) confined for a court-martial sentence; 4) in an excessleave status; or 5) on appellate leave under Title 10, USCode (U.S.C.) Section 876a, Leave Required to Be TakenPending Review of Certain Court-Martial Convictions.

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134
Q

Under new increased limits, how long can you keepSpecial Leave Accrual (SLA) earned in combat zones andin support of operations? (393)

A

Combat zones - four FY s; support of operations - two FY s.

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135
Q

Describe the additional one-time Special Leave Accrual(SLA) sell back authorized for enlisted servicemembers. (393)

A

You may sell back up to 30 days of SLA that counts towardyour 60 day career cap. (This provision has no terminationdate.)

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136
Q

Members lose leave in excess of 75 days at the end ofthe FY unless they are eligible for Special Leave Accrual(SLA). T/F (393)

A

True.

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137
Q

Who approves Special Leave Accrual (SLA) for anorganization? (393)

A

MAJCOM or Field Operating Agency (FOA) directors of personnel or equivalents (colonel or above).

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138
Q

You are eligible for Special Leave Accrual (SLA) ifyou are prohibited from taking leave while you are deployedto an operational mission at the national level forat least __ consecutive days. (393-394)

A

60 consecutive days.

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139
Q

When are you eligible for Special Leave Accrual(SLA) if you are prohibited from taking leave becauseyou are assigned or deployed to unit, headquarters andsupporting staffs for at least 60 consecutive days? (393-394)

A

When your involvement supports a designated operationalmission that prohibited you from taking leave.

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140
Q

Under Special Leave Accrual (SLA), you are eligibleto carry over leave in excess of 75 days at FY end if youare prohibited from taking leave because you are deployed120 or more consecutive days in a designated hostile-fire or imminent danger pay area and are entitled tohostile-fire and (or) imminent danger pay for __ ormore consecutive months. (393-394)

A

Four. (The active duty pay system automatically carries overup to 75 days leave.)

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141
Q

Any commander in the chain of command may denya member’s request for Special Leave Accrual (SLA)without referring it to a higher-level authority. T/F (393)

A

True.

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142
Q

Leave must begin and end in the “local area,” meaningwhat? (394)

A

The place of residence from which the member commutes tothe duty station on a daily basis.

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143
Q

How is the local area defined when you’re en route toa PCS or TDY assignment? (394)

A

The old Permanent Duty Station (PDS) for beginning leave;the new PDS for ending leave.

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144
Q

AF Form 988, Leave Request/Authorization, is usedfor all types of leave and Permissive Temporary Duty(PTDY) when LeaveWeb cannot be used, with what exception?(394)

A

When members take leave en route with PCS or TDY travel,the Financial Services Office (FSO) uses the travel voucherto determine authorized travel and chargeable leave.

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145
Q

When are nonduty days and holidays chargeableleave days? (394)

A

When they occur during an authorized period ofleave.

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146
Q

.If leave includes a weekend, can it end on a Fridayand begin again on a Monday? (394)

A

No.

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147
Q

Are successive Monday through Friday leaves (orperiods of leave surrounding other nonduty days) everapproved? (394)

A

Only under emergency or unusual circumstances (as determinedby the unit commander).

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148
Q

If a member is incapacitated and unable to reportfor duty upon expiration of leave because of illness orinjury, who may notify the leave approving authority onthe member’s behalf? (394)

A

Next of kin, attending physician, representative at the nearestmedical treatment facility or American Red Cross representative.

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149
Q

If an illness or injury prevents you from reportingfor duty when your leave expires, what statement doesyour unit commander require when you return to work?(394)

A

A statement from the nearest medical treatment facility orattending physician regarding your medical condition.

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150
Q

What happens to your leave status if you’re hospitalizedor on quarters status? (394)

A

Chargeable leave ends the day before and restarts the dayfollowing hospitalization or quarter’s status.

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151
Q

Who changes the leave status to AWOL when amember fails to return to duty at the end of their leaveperiod? (394)

A

The Military Personnel Section (MPS) and the Air ForcePersonnel Center Casualty Services Branch(AFPC/DPWCS).

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152
Q

Extension of leave must be requested orally or inwriting. What time constraints apply? (394)

A

The extension must be requested early enough to allow themember to return to duty on time if the approval authoritydisapproves the extension.

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153
Q

When may unit commanders recall members fromleave? (394)

A

For military necessity or in the best interest of the Air Force.

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154
Q

If your unit commander authorizes resumption ofleave after you complete the duty that resulted in recall,are new leave forms or orders required? (394)

A

Yes.

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155
Q

Identify five of the many types of leave. (394-396)

A

Any five of the following: 1) annual (ordinary); 2) advance;3) convalescent; 4) emergency; 5) en route; 6) terminal; 7) excess; and 8) Environmental and Morale Leave (EML).

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156
Q

What is another name for ordinary leave? (394)

A

Annual leave. (It is normally requested as it accrues, withinmission requirements.)

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157
Q

What is annual leave used for? (394)

A

Vacations, family needs such as illness, traditional nationalholidays, spiritual events or other religious observances or asterminal leave with retirement or separation from active duty.

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158
Q

__ leave is granted based on a reasonable expectationthat a member will accrue at least that much leaveduring the remaining period of active military service.(395)

A

Advance.

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159
Q

What is the purpose of advance leave? (395)

A

To enable members to resolve emergencies or urgent personalsituations when they have limited or no accrued leave.

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160
Q

When a member has taken all possible advance leavethat will be accrued during the remaining period of activeservice, unit commanders change his or her leavestatus from advance to __ leave. (395)

A

Excess. (The Financial Services Office (FSO) stops or collects,if applicable, all pay and allowances paid after themember’s leave status changes from advance to excessleave.)

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161
Q

__ leave (approved by the unit commander) is notchargeable. (395)

A

Convalescent. (Unit commanders normally approve thisleave based on recommendations by the medical treatmentfacility authority or the physician most familiar with themember’s medical condition.)

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162
Q

Can convalescent leave be used if a member electscivilian medical care at personal expense and an AirForce physician determines the medical procedure is consideredelective (such as cosmetic surgery)? (395)

A

No. (Ordinary leave must be used for all such absences fromduty, including convalescence.)

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163
Q

Can convalescent leave be used if a member electscivilian medical care for a medically necessary proceduresuch as childbirth? (395)

A

Yes. (The commander may grant convalescent leave with therecommendation of the military treatment facility authorityor the attending physician most familiar with the member’scondition.)

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164
Q

When may emergency leave be granted? (395)

A

This chargeable leave may be granted for personal or familyemergencies involving the immediate family. (Verificationby the American Red Cross is not normally necessary.)

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165
Q

Unit commanders approve emergency leave. To whom may they delegate this task? (395)

A

No lower than the first sergeant for enlisted personnel.

166
Q

What is the usual initial period for emergency leave?(395)

A

No more than 30 days.

167
Q

Can you be granted an extension ofleave, beyond theinitial 30 days, while on emergency leave? (395)

A

Yes, up to an additional 30 days. (You must contact the unitcommander or first sergeant for approval.)

168
Q

lf an emergency leave period extends more than 60days, what should unit commanders advise members todo? (395)

A

Apply for a humanitarian or exceptional family member reassignmentor hardship discharge.

169
Q

Who approves emergency leave if the leave requestedresults in a member having a cumulative negativeleave balance of over 30 days? (395)

A

Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

170
Q

Can members request emergency leave to attendcourt hearings or to resolve marital or financial problems? (395)

A

No. (But they may request ordinary leave.)

171
Q

Emergency leave is normally authorized 1) to visit aterminally ill person in the immediate family of themember or his or her spouse; or 2) when there has been averified death in the member’s or spouse’s immediatefamily. Name two other situations. (395)

A

When 3) a member or someone in the member’s or spouse’simmediate family has a life-threatening condition due to anaccident, illness or major surgery; or 4) the member is affectedby a natural disaster and a severe or unusual hardshipwould result ifhe or she failed to return home.

172
Q

__ leave is ordinary leave used in connection withPCS, including the first PCS upon completion of technicaltraining. (395)

A

En route. (Advance leave may be requested if you don’t haveenough accrued leave.)

173
Q

Losing unit commanders normally approve up to__ days of en route leave with any PCS move if theleave does not interfere with the reporting date to either aport or new assignment. (395)

A

30 days.

174
Q

How many days ofleave en route may members whocomplete basic or technical training request if their firstduty station is in the CONUS? If it is an overseas assignment?(395)

A

10 days; 14 days.

175
Q

What is terminal leave? (395)

A

Chargeable leave taken in conjunction with retirement orseparation from active duty. (The member’s last day of leavecoincides with the last day of active duty.)

176
Q

Normally, a member does not return to duty afterterminal leave begins. T/F (395-396)

A

True. (The amount of leave taken cannot exceed the leavebalance at the date of separation.)

177
Q

__ leave is normally used for personal or familyemergencies when members cannot request advanceleave. (396)

A

Excess.

178
Q

Why does entitlement to pay and allowances andleave accrual stop on the member’s first day of excessleave? (396)

A

Because excess leave is a no-pay status.

179
Q

Will a member receive disability pay if injured whileon excess leave? (396)

A

Will a member receive disability pay if injured whileon excess leave? (396)

180
Q

Where is Environmental and Morale Leave (EML)(taken as ordinary leave) authorized? (396)

A

At OS installations where adverse environmental conditionsrequire special arrangements for leave in desirable places atperiodic intervals.

181
Q

What is funded Environmental and Morale Leave(EML) leave? (396)

A

Funded EML is charged as ordinary leave, but members mayuse DoD-owned or -controlled aircraft. Travel time to andfrom the EML destination is not charged as leave.

182
Q

What is unfunded Environmental and Morale Leave(EML) leave? (396)

A

Unfunded EML is charged as ordinary leave, but membersreceive space-available air transportation from the duty locationand travel time to and from the leave destination ischarged as leave.

183
Q

A pass period is an authorized absence from duty fora relatively short time. When does it start and end? (396)

A

It starts at the end of normal work hours on a duty day andends at the beginning of normal work hours the next dutyday.

184
Q

There are mileage restrictions for pass periods. T/F(396)

A

False. (However, you may be required to return to duty withina reasonable time in the event of an operational missionrequirement such as a recall, unit alert or unit emergency.)

185
Q

A regular pass includes the nonduty days of Saturdayand Sunday and a holiday (up to three days total) if amember normally works Monday through Friday, or upto four days if a member works a nontraditional workschedule. The combination of nonduty days and a publicholiday may not exceed __ days. (396)

A

Four

186
Q

Is an authorized 4-day holiday period consisting of aholiday, compensatory time off day and a weekend considereda regular or special pass period? (396)

A

Regular.

187
Q

Why do unit commanders award 3- or 4-day specialpasses? (396)

A

For special occasions or circumstances (such as reenlistment)or for some type of special recognition or compensatory timeoff.

188
Q

To what level may unit commanders delegate theapproval authority for special passes? (396)

A

To a level no lower than squadron section commander, deputiesor equivalents.

189
Q

When do special passes start and stop? (396)

A

They start after normal work hours on a given day and stopat the beginning of normal work hours on either the 4th dayfor a 3-day special pass or the 5th day for a 4-day specialpass.

190
Q

You may take a special pass in conjunction withleave without a duty day between the pass and leave period.T/F (396)

A

True. (Passes may be taken before or after leave, but notboth.)

191
Q

When may commanders use DD Form 345, LibertyPass, Armed Forces? (396)

A

When it is essential to control authorized absences for securityor operational reasons and/or other special circumstances.

192
Q

What is Permissive Temporary Duty (PTDY)? (396)

A

A period of authorized absence to attend or participate in adesignated official or semi-official program for which fundedTDY is not appropriate. (It may not be authorized in place ofleave or a special pass or in conjunction with special passes.)

193
Q

Two types of authorized Permissive Temporary Duty(PTDY) are: 1) traveling to or near a new PermanentDuty Station (PDS) to secure off-base housing; and 2)accompanying a dependent patient or military member patient to a designated non-local medical treatment facility,when deemed essential. Name two more. (396-397)

A

3) Traveling to a MAJCOM or Air Force Personnel Center(AFPC) Career Development Division (either as an individualor part of a group) to discuss career management or toreview records; and 4) attending national conventions ormeetings hosted by service-connected organizations.

194
Q

Two situations where Permissive Temporary Duty(PTDY) is not authorized are: 1) searching for a house ina close proximity PCS move; and 2) in conjunction with apermissive reassignment. Name two more. (397)

A

To attend 3) a PME graduation when the graduate is acoworker, friend or military spouse; or 4) a change of commandor retirement ceremony.

195
Q

Air Force policy upgraded the status of a retirementceremony from personal in nature to an official function.This made it possible for commanders to fund PermissiveTemporary Duty (PTDY) travel for the presiding official.Can they also fund travel for attendees not officiating inthe ceremonies? (397)

A

No.

196
Q

Why did the SecDef direct establishment of the PostDeployment/Mobilization Respite Absence (PDMRA)program? (397)

A

To support total force policy and recognize members who arerequired to mobilize or deploy with a frequency beyond establishedrotation goals.

197
Q

Post-Deployment/Mobilization Respite Absence(PDMRA) is a new category of administrative absencethat applies to creditable deployments and mobilizationsunderway on, or commencing after, 19 January __ .(397)

A

2007

198
Q

What is the yearly deployment-to-dwell ratio for theactive component under Post-Deployment/MobilizationRespite Absence (PDMRA)? (397)

A

1 :2.

199
Q

What is the yearly mobilization-to-dwell ratio forReserve components under PostDeployment/Mobilization Respite Absence (PDMRA)?(397)

A

1 :5.

200
Q

When do Air Force members accrue PostDeployment/Mobilization Respite Absence (PDMRA)?(397)

A

During creditable deployments/TDYs to the land areas ofAfghanistan or Iraq.

201
Q

Aircrew participating in missions into, out of, withinor over the area of eligibility in support of military operationscount each day of operation as one day of PostDeployment/Mobilization Respite Absence (PDMRA)eligibility. How is deployment defined? (397)

A

As a member TDY under contingency, exercise and deploymentorders to the land areas of Afghanistan or Iraq.

202
Q

Creditable Post-Deployment/Mobilization RespiteAbsence (PDMRA) time continues to accrue during periodsof R&R, leave and for TDY of __ or less consecutivedays outside of Afghanistan or Iraq. (397)

A

30 or less consecutive days.

203
Q

Who usually approves ordinary leave requests? (397)

A

Commanders delegate approval to the lowest supervisorylevel that meets the needs of the unit.

204
Q

Supervisors should train personnel on the requirementsof the leave program and ensure they know how touse LeaveWeb and AF Form 988, Leave/Request Authorization,to request leave and Permissive Temporary Duty(PTDY). List three things the supervisor ensures the requestorhas before approving ordinary leave. (397)

A

1) A sufficient leave balance; 2) a valid address and emergencyphone number; and 3) sufficient funds to return toduty on time.

205
Q

Leave authorization numbers will not normally begiven earlier than __ days prior to the leave effectivedate. (397)

A

14 days.

206
Q

Members on leave should use __ managementprinciples to assess all hazards and control risks beforeexcessive or hazardous travel, especially when travelingby automobiles. (397)

A

Risk.

207
Q

How do supervisors process the AF Form 988,Leave/Request Authorization, when it is not digitally processed?(397)

A

The supervisor sends Part I with the authorization number tothe servicing finance office and gives Part II to the memberafter obtaining a leave authorization number. The supervisorretains Part Ill for completion after the member returns fromleave.

208
Q

Upon returning from leave, the member signs PartIII of AF Form 988. The supervisor certifies the dates ofleave and sends it to whom? (397)

A

The commander support staff

209
Q

Why did the Air Force adopt the current method ofrecording leave? (397-Note)

A

To prevent fraud in the leave reporting system.

210
Q

What system automates the method of requestingand processing leave in lieu of using the hard copy AFForm 988? (398)

A

LeaveWeb

211
Q

Under LeaveWeb, the member requests ordinaryleave, generating an email to his or her supervisor, whoapproves or disapproves the request and if approved,sends the leave information to the unit leave monitor tovalidate. What happens next? (398)

A

1) The validated leave is sent electronically to finance; 2) themember prints a copy of the approved leave form to handcarry during leave; and 3) upon returning, the member completesthe necessary updates in LeaveWeb and forwards theemail to his or her supervisor for endorsement.

212
Q

Airmen are most effective when they work in an environmentthat promotes teamwork, __ and mutualrespect (398)

A

Inclusion.

213
Q

Why is it vital to train and prepare Airmen to viewhuman relation issues and circumstances more broadly?(398)

A

So they can effectively understand, engage and defeat anypotential adversary or personal situation intelligently andwith integrity.

214
Q

Why was the Air Force Equal Opportunity (EO)program developed? (398)

A

To foster and support EO, the Air Force Core Values andAirman’s Creed.

215
Q

Why must Airmen, on a day-to-day basis, activelymake workplace professionalism a top priority and prevent,correct and eliminate unlawful discriminatory behavior?(398)

A

Because the Air Force will not tolerate unlawful discrimination,unlawful harassment or reprisal against individuals whoengage in protected activity.

216
Q

Air Force Equal Opportunity (EO) policy complianceis a function of __ . (398)

A

Leadership.

217
Q

What is the Equal Opportunity (EO) program’sprimary objective? (398)

A

To eradicate unlawful discrimination.

218
Q

The Equal Opportunity (EO) office helps commandersat all levels ensure all available efforts are in place(e.g., Human Relations Education (HRE), commander’scalls and unit climate assessments). Name two more waysthe program fosters a positive human relations environment.(398)

A

It 1) utilizes the Human Relations Climate Assessment Subcommittee(HRCAS) tool to evaluate positive and negativefactors in the local environment; and 2) proactively providesHRE to ensure all employees and management personnelunderstand the need for a positive human relations climate.

219
Q

Describe unlawful discrimination against militarymembers. (398)

A

Any unlawful action that denies equal opportunity to personsor groups, based on their race, color, religion, national originor sex. It may be written, verbal or both, and can occur on- oroff-base.

220
Q

Unlawful discrimination against DoD civilian employeesmay relate to race, color, religion, national originor sex. Name four additional factors. (398)

A

1) Age (40 or older); 2) genetic information; 3) physical ormental disability; or 4) reprisal.

221
Q

Regarding DoD civilian employment, describe threesituations where unlawful discrimination can occur. (398)

A

When an employer 1) refuses or fails to hire or promote,discharges or otherwise discriminates against any individualwith respect to compensation, terms, conditions or privilegesof employment; 2) attempts to limit, segregate or classifyemployees or applicants in a way that may deprive them ofemployment opportunities; or 3) attempts to adversely affectthe status of an employee.

222
Q

Unlawful discrimination can include the use of disparagingterms regarding an individual’s birthplace, ancestry,culture, or the linguistic characteristics commonto a specific ethnic group. What other terms can constituteunlawful discrimination? (398)

A

1) Terms that degrade or make negative statements regardingrace, color, religion, national origin, sex, age, genetic information,or mental or physical disability; and 2) insults, printedmaterial, visual material, signs, symbols, posters or insignias.

223
Q

What is the operational language of the Air Force?(398)

A

English.

224
Q

When may commanders require Air Force personnelto use English only? (398)

A

When it is clearly necessary and proper for the performanceof military duties (not for unrelated personal communications).

225
Q

Maintaining a harassment-free environment for militarymembers and civilian employees also includes harassmentbased on __ orientation. (398-399)

A

Sexual orientation. (Responsible leaders take appropriateaction to prevent and address this type of harassment.)

226
Q

What is the possible consequence if military personnelengage in harassment based on sexual orientation?(399)

A

Punishment under UCMJ, Article 92.

227
Q

When do unwelcome sexual advances, requests forsexual favors and other verbal or physical conduct of asexual nature constitute harassment? (399)

A

When submission to or rejection of such conduct 1) is madeexplicitly or implicitly a term or condition of a job, pay orcareer; 2) is used for a career or employment decisions; or 3)unreasonably interferes with work performance or creates anintimidating, hostile or offensive working environment.

228
Q

Does an abusive work environment require concretepsychological harm to the victim? (399)

A

No. (It need only be reasonably perceived as hostile or offensive.)

229
Q

For military members, sexual harassment issues inthe workplace may include conduct on- or off-duty, 24hours a day. T/F (399)

A

True. (Workplace is an expansive term for military members.)

230
Q

What constitutes sexual harassment for supervisoryor command positions? (399)

A

Using or condoning any sexual behavior to control, influenceor affect the career, pay or job of a military member or civilianemployee.

231
Q

What constitutes sexual harassment by any militarymember or civilian employee? (399)

A

Making deliberate or repeated unwelcome verbal comments,gestures or physical contact of a sexual nature in the workplace.

232
Q

Who may file military Equal Opportunity (EO)complaints? (399)

A

Military personnel and their family members, and retirees.(Unless their concern is related to their off-base or DoD civilianemployment.)

233
Q

May third parties (including commanders, supervisorsor co-workers) file a military Equal Opportunity(EO) complaint on behalf of another individual? (399)

A

No. (The individual involved must file the complaint. Third parties must refer to their respective chain of command.)

234
Q

What is the purpose of the military Equal Opportunity(EO) informal complaint process? (399)

A

To attempt resolution at the lowest possible level.

235
Q

How may service members informally resolve unlawfuldiscrimination and sexual harassment complaintsprior to filing a formal complaint? (399)

A

Individuals may 1) orally address or write to the alleged offender;2) request intervention by a coworker; 3) opt to usethe Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR) process; or 4) usethe chain of command.

236
Q

What is the time limit for filing a military Equal Opportunity(EO) informal complaint? (399)

A

There is no time limit.

237
Q

Is commander approval required before militaryEqual Opportunity (EO) informal complaints are accepted?(399)

A

No.

238
Q

How does the formal military Equal Opportunity(EO) complaint process differ from the informal complaintprocess? (399)

A

The formal process includes a complaint clarification processof gathering information to determine whether a “preponderanceof evidence” exists and demonstrates unlawful discriminationor sexual harassment occurred.

239
Q

How is information gathered during the formal militaryEqual Opportunity (EO) complaint clarificationprocess? (399-400)

A

The EO office interviews or takes statements from complainants,potential witnesses, alleged offenders and anyone elsewho may have relevant information.

240
Q

In the formal military Equal Opportunity (EO)complaint process, may the EO office use informationgathered from other investigations in lieu of their ownclarification process to establish a preponderance ofcredible evidence? (400)

A

No. (But information gathered from other investigations inconjunction with their own clarification process to establish apreponderance of credible evidence may be used.)

241
Q

What happens after the Equal Opportunity (EO)staff completes the formal complaint clarification process?(400)

A

The results are forwarded to the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)for a legal sufficiency review. When the review is completed,the alleged offender’s commander receives the complaint forfinal action if appropriate.

242
Q

For unlawful discrimination cases, the entire complaint clarification process must be completed within__ duty days. (400)

A

20 duty days. (Nine duty days for the Equal Opportunity(EO) office to conduct the clarification, six duty days forlegal review and five duty days for appropriate final actionby the commander if required.)

243
Q

For formal sexual harassment cases, the complaintclarification process must be completed within __duty days. (400)

A

14 duty days. (Six duty days for the Equal Opportunity (EO)office to conduct the clarification, four duty days for legalreview and four duty days for appropriate final action by thecommander ifrequired.)

244
Q

When filing a formal military complaint more than__ calendar days after the alleged Equal Opportunity(EO) offense, the complainant must provide the EO officewith sufficient justification. (400)

A

60 calendar days. (Installation commanders may waive timelimits for good cause.)

245
Q

Who may file civilian Equal Opportunity (EO) complaints?(400)

A

Only Air Force employees, former employees and employmentapplicants.

246
Q

Identify the types of discrimination that can result ina civilian Equal Opportunity (EO) complaint. (400)

A

Discrimination based on 1) race, color, religion, sex, nationalorigin, age (40 and older) or disability; 2) sexual harassment;3)retaliation for opposing discrimination or for participatingin the complaint process; and 4) genetic information, includingharassing or retaliating against a person because of his orher genetic information.

247
Q

Unlike the military complaint process, the civiliancomplaint process is always formal. T/F (400)

A

False. (The civilian process has both informal and formalprocesses.)

248
Q

What is the purpose of the civilian informal complaintprocess? (400)

A

To provide for the prompt, fair and impartial processing andresolution of complaints, consistent with its legal obligations.

249
Q

What is the objective of the civilian informal complaintprocess? (400)

A

To resolve issues at the lowest organizational level at theearliest possible time.

250
Q

The civilian Equal Opportunity (EO) office mustcomplete the informal complaint process within __calendar days of the filing, unless the complainant agreesto an extension with a maximum of additional calendar days. (400)

A

30 calendar days; 60 additional calendar days.

251
Q

During the civilian informal complaint process, whatoccurs if the matter is not resolved to the complainant’ssatisfaction before the end of the authorized period, includingextensions? (400)

A

The complainant is issued a notice of right to file a formalcomplaint.

252
Q

At what location must a formal civilian complaint befiled? (400)

A

At the installation where the alleged discrimination tookplace.

253
Q

To process a civilian complaint at the formal stage,the initial contact must occur within __ calendar daysof the date the alleged discrimination occurred. (400)

A

45 calendar days. (If it’s a personnel action, within 45 calendardays of the effective date or when he or she becomesaware of the personnel action.)

254
Q

Civilian formal complaints must describe the actionsor practices that formed the basis of the complaint discussedwith the Equal Opportunity (EO) office during theinformal process. T/F (400)

A

True

255
Q

Formal civilian complaints must be filed within__ calendar days of the complainant receiving thenotice of right to file a formal complaint. ( 400)

A

15 calendar days.

256
Q

The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission(EEOC) requires __ agencies to discharge certainresponsibilities once a civilian formal Equal Opportunity(EO) complaint has been filed. (400)

A

Federal

257
Q

The Equal Opportunity (EO) office must decidewhether to accept, dismiss, or partially dismiss a complaintor portion of a complaint so an investigation can becompleted within __ calendar days from the filingdate. (401)

A

180 calendar days.

258
Q

What is an Equal Opportunity and Treatment Incident(EOTI)? (401)

A

An overt, adverse act occurring on- or off-base; directedtoward an individual, group or institution; and motivated byor with overtones based on race, color, national origin, religionor sex. (It has the potential to negatively impact theinstallation human relations climate.)

259
Q

May an Equal Opportunity and Treatment Incident(EOTI) involve subjects other than military members?(401)

A

Yes. (For instance, retirees and family members.)

260
Q

How are Equal Opportunity and Treatment Incidents(EOTI) classified? (401)

A

As minor, serious or major. (Based on the number of participants,property damage, physical injury, assault, arson and/oran act resulting in death.)

261
Q

A slur based on race, color, national origin, religionor sex may be classified as an Equal Opportunity andTreatment Incident (EOTI). Name at least two more possibleincidents. (401)

A

Vandalism (degrading graffiti), hate group activity, discriminatoryepithets, signs or symbols.

262
Q

Legal offices provide a variety of services to ensureAir Force members are legally ready to deploy, in boththeir __ and mission capacities. (401)

A

Personal.

263
Q

Personal legal readiness addresses what issues? (401)

A

How to avoid or lessen the adverse effects of issues that arisewhen preparing for or during a deployment.

264
Q

Who is eligible for Air Force legal services? (401)

A

Regular Air Force members, reservists and guardsmen onfederal active duty, their dependents, and civilian employeesstationed OS and their families.

265
Q

Legal assistance is available for what types of personalcivil legal matters? (401)

A

Wills, powers of attorney, notary services, dependent careissues, casualty affairs and landlord-tenant and lease issues.

266
Q

Mission legal readiness addresses what issues? (401)

A

The military-legal aspects of the operational environment,including legal assistance to members and their families,various legal issues such as Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)issues and operational legal advice.

267
Q

If you believe you have been wronged by your commandingofficer, you may request redress under Article__ , UCMJ. (401)

A

Article 138.

268
Q

Members may use Article 138 when a discretionaryact or omission by the commander adversely affects themember personally. Give several examples. (401)

A

Acts that 1) violate laws or regulations; 2) exceed the legitimateauthority of the commander; 3) are arbitrary, capriciousor an abuse of discretion; or 4) clearly apply administrativestandards unfairly.

269
Q

The Article 138 complaint system will not provideredress for 1) acts or omissions not initiated or ratified bythe member’s commander; or 2) complaints relating tomilitary discipline under the UCMJ, including Article 15.Name three more examples. (401)

A

Complaints 3) relating to an action initiated against any AirForce member where the governing directive for such actionrequires final action from the office of the SECAF; 4) againstan officer exercising General Court-Martial (GCM) jurisdictionfor failing to resolve Article 138 complaints properly;and 5) filed to seek disciplinary action against another.

270
Q

When members feel they have been wronged by theircommander, they must apply in writing to that commander(or his or her designated representative) for redressof the grievance within __ days of the discoveryof the wrong and include all available supporting evidence.(402)

A

180 days.

271
Q

If a commander refuses a properly submitted requestfor redress, the member may submit an Article 138complaint directly within __ days of receiving thecommander’s denial. (402)

A

90 days. (An intermediate commander or any other superiorcommissioned officer receiving such a complaint immediatelyforwards the file to the General Court-Martial Authority(GCMA) over the officer against whom the complaint ismade.)

272
Q

The General Court-Martial Authority (GCMA) conductsor directs further investigation into a commander’srefusal of a request for redress under Article 138, basedon the facts and circumstances of the complaint. Whathappens next? (402)

A

The GCMA informs the member, in writing, of both the actiontaken on the complaint and the reasons for the action. Ifthe complaint cannot be resolved through the Article 138process, the member may be referred to other more appropriatecomplaint channels.

273
Q

Which document should you consult for Article 138filing procedures? (402)

A

AFI 51-904, Complaints of Wrongs Under Article 138, UniformCode of Military Justice.

274
Q

What is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program? (402)

A

To minimize loss of Air Force resources and protect Airmenfrom death, injuries or occupational illnesses by managingrisk on and off duty. (Continuing to meet this goal is criticalto mission effectiveness.)

275
Q

The challenge of __ , technologically advancedcombat systems and changing duty requirements demandsstrong on-duty mishap prevention programs.(402)

A

Deployments.

276
Q

Who has responsibilities in the Mishap PreventionProgram? (402)

A

Every Air Force individual.

277
Q

An Air Force __ is an unplanned event (or seriesof events) resulting in damage to public or private property,occupational illness to Air Force personnel, or deathor injury to on- or off-duty Air Force military personnel.(402)

A

Mishap. (Also includes death or injury to on-duty DoD civilianpersonnel; and death, injury or illness to non-DoD personnelas a result ofDoD activities.)

278
Q

What constitutes a Class A Mishap? (402)

A

Cost of damages totals $2 million or more, a DoD aircraft isdestroyed, or an injury or occupational illness results in afatality or permanent total disability.

279
Q

Describe a Class B Mishap. (402)

A

Cost of damages totals $500,000 or more, but less than $2million; an injury or occupational illness results in permanentpartial disability; or three or more personnel are hospitalizedfor inpatient care as a result of a single mishap.

280
Q

A Class __ Mishap is defined by property damagesthat total $50,000 or more, but less than $500,000.(402)

A

Class C. (A nonfatal injury or illness resulting in one or moredays away from work also qualifies.)

281
Q

The least damaging mishap is the Class __ Mishap.(402)

A

Class D. (It is characterized by property damages that total$20,000 or more, but less than $50,000; or an injury or illnessnot classifiable as a Class A, B or C mishap.)

282
Q

What does an effective mishap prevention programdepend on? (402)

A

Individuals integrating mishap prevention at every functionallevel and complying with applicable safety standards.

283
Q

Who implements the Mishap Prevention Program atthe installation level? (402-403)

A

The host safety staff. (They also ensure that mishaps areinvestigated and reported when they occur.)

284
Q

Commanders at all levels are responsible for developingand implementing a mishap prevention program.Name three ways installation commanders accomplishthis. (403)

A

They 1) provide safe and healthful workplaces for all installationemployees; 2) ensure leadership is accountable forenforcing safety and health standards; and 3) chair the installationsafety council and/or Environmental, Safety and OccupationalHealth Council (ESOHC).

285
Q

Commanders below installation level are responsiblefor developing and implementing a mishap preventionprogram and implementing a safety and health programin their unit or Area of Responsibility (AOR). Describetheir other two mishap prevention responsibilities. (403)

A

1) Appointing a primary and alternate Unit Safety Representative(USR) where commanders are not authorized fulltimesafety personnel; and 2) ensuring a proactive mishapprevention program is implemented, including procurementand proper use of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) andfacility compliance with standards.

286
Q

Name eight ways that supervisors aid in mishap prevention.( 403)

A

1) Understanding and enforcing health and safety standards;2) using Risk Management (RM) techniques to analyze thework environment for hazards; 3) developing a work centerspecificJob Safety Training (JST) guide; 4) review processesannually, when new tasks or equipment are added or whenexisting tasks change; 5) documenting and maintaining completedtraining; 6) conducting and documenting monthly spotinspections; and 7) reporting all mishaps that occur in workareas, off-duty mishaps involving assigned personnel andrelated absences; and 8) informing the civilian personneloffice if a mishap involves a civilian employee.

287
Q

How can individuals help prevent mishaps? (403)

A

They must 1) consider their personal safety; 2) comp! y withall safety instructions, TOs, job guides and operating procedures;3) identify and report hazardous conditions; 4) reportpersonal injury, property damage and suspected exposure tohazardous materials within 24 hours; 5) report to their supervisorif they believe they have a physical or mental conditionthat may affect job performance; and 6) use and maintainrecommended Personal Protective Equipment (PPE).

288
Q

What must be used, when necessary, to identify andreport hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnelor property at risk? (403)

A

AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report.

289
Q

Human Factors (HFAC), which have contributed tomishaps throughout Air Force history, are about peoplein their working and recreational environments and how interactions in those environments affect human performance.T/F (403)

A

False. (They are about people in their living and workingenvironments.)

290
Q

What five things must Airmen do in order to useHuman Factors (HFAC) effectively and prevent themfrom becoming mishaps? (403)

A

1) Analyze root causes; 2) apply mitigation strategies; 3)develop organizational cultures; 4) understand existing hazards;and 5) know how to mitigate risks that lead to mishaps.

291
Q

Name the four levels used to determine the rootcause of a mishap when dealing with Human Factors(HFAC). (403-404)

A

1) Organizational influences; 2) supervisory influences; 3)preconditions for unsafe acts; and 4) unsafe acts.

292
Q

When analyzing the root cause of mishaps involvingHuman Factors (HFAC), which level is tied to Airmenwho are motivated internally and by Higher HQ (HHQ)to complete the mission? (403)

A

Organizational influences.

293
Q

When analyzing the root cause of a mishap involvingHuman Factors (HFAC), the level where supervision failsto enforce workplace standards, leading to unsafe acts, isknown as supervisory influences. T/F (404)

A

True. (This level can include failure to correct known problems,inappropriately planned operations, inadequate supervisionor supervisory violations.)

294
Q

When analyzing the root cause of mishaps related toHuman Factors (HFAC), what are preconditions for unsafeacts? (404)

A

The organizational culture combined with specific events andthe physical condition of the worker. (For example, an Airmanmight be required to work outside in poor weather withoutproper equipment or clothing.)

295
Q

When analyzing the root cause of mishaps involvingHuman Factors (HFAC), unsafe acts are only active errorsor violations when made by a knowing worker. T/F(404)

A

False. (The worker may also be unknowing.)

296
Q

What do failed or absent defenses in organizationalinfluences, supervision, preconditions and acts cause?(404-Fig)

A

Accident and injury.

297
Q

Reckless behavior and unwise decisions are not tolerated.T/F (404)

A

True. (All Airmen take responsibility and are held accountable for their actions.)

298
Q

Who ensures that personnel understand the implicationsof poor decisions and the importance of compliance?(404)

A

Supervisors.

299
Q

What role do commanders play in reinforcing accountability?(404, 404-Note)

A

They l) ensure personnel are aware of AFls; 2) enforcecompliance; and 3) may direct an additional investigation fordisciplinary purposes.

300
Q

If an Airman is injured or dies due to his or her ownmisconduct, affecting Line of Duty (LOD) determination,what may happen? (405)

A

The Airman or Airman’s family may lose substantial benefits.

301
Q

What does an Airman’s career and life, along withhis or her family’s well-being, depend upon? (405)

A

Wise decisions.

302
Q

Why are supervisors in the best position to identifyhazards, assess risks associated with those hazards, and correct unsafe work practices or safety deficiencies? (405)

A

Because they are responsible for training, establishing workmethods and job instructions, assigning jobs and supervisingpersonnel.

303
Q

What does the occupational safety program create toachieve successful mission accomplishment? (405)

A

A highly trained workforce that recognizes the importance ofsafety precautions and procedures and adheres to standardsincorporating the basic elements of Risk Management (RM).

304
Q

Safety training may only be integrated into task performancetraining. T/F (405)

A

False. (It may also be conducted separately.)

305
Q

Before any operation begins or any safety trainingtakes place, what helps the supervisor determine wherepeople may be injured or equipment damaged? (405)

A

A job safety analysis. (It evaluates each work task not governedby a TO or other definitive guidance, and any newwork task or process introduced to the workplace.)

306
Q

Supervisors use what methods to eliminate or controlunsafe and unhealthy working conditions? (405)

A

Engineering, administrative controls, or the use of PersonalProtective Equipment (PPE).

307
Q

When is use of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)appropriate? (405)

A

Only when other controls are not possible or practical fornon-routine use.

308
Q

Commanders must provide Personal ProtectiveEquipment (PPE) for Air Force military members andcivilian employees. T/F (405)

A

True.

309
Q

Which form documents safety, fire protection andhealth OJT? ( 405)

A

AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record.

310
Q

Name five of the top 10 Occupational Safety andHealth Administration (OSHA) violations. (405)

A

Any five of the following: 1) fall protection; 2) scaffolding;3) hazard communication; 4) respiratory protection; 5) lockout/tagout; 6) electrical-wiring methods; 7) powered industrialtrucks; 8) ladders 9) electrical-general requirements; or10) machine guarding.

311
Q

In order to enforce safety standards, how must youstack materials? (405)

A

So that they are easily reached and do not protrude.

312
Q

How must the areas around exits be kept, in order toenforce safety standards? (405)

A

Free of obstructions.

313
Q

If ladders are defective in any way, what must bedone to enforce safety standards? (406)

A

They must be removed from service.

314
Q

Define “dead front” construction as it applies to attachmentplugs. (406)

A

“Without live parts exposed to a person on the operating sideof the equipment.”

315
Q

In order to enforce safety standards, fully insertplugs so that no part of the __ is/are exposed. ( 406)

A

Prongs.

316
Q

In order to enforce safety standards, when using aplug with a third or grounding prong, what must you do?(406)

A

Check frequently to ensure that it is secure.

317
Q

Circuit breakers and disconnect switches must bereadily accessible to workers and building managementpersonnel. What else must be accessible in order to enforcesafety standards? (406)

A

Fuses

318
Q

To enforce safety standards, why must you nevertape circuit breakers in the On position? (406)

A

Breakers that trip frequently indicate electrical problems.. (Promptly report and correct them.)

319
Q

To enforce safety standards, where must you neverrun cords? (406)

A

Through holes in walls, ceilings, floors, doorways, windows,etc.

320
Q

To enforce safety standards, only use __ surgeprotectors to power computers and related equipment.(406)

A

Multi-receptacle

321
Q

To enforce safety standards, never use surge protectorsor extension cords for __ items. ( 406)

A

High-current

322
Q

Electrical outlets, switches and junction boxes mustbe kept in good condition in order to enforce safetystandards. What else do they require? (406)

A

Secure cover plates.

323
Q

To enforce safety standards, electrical receptacleslocated within __ feet of any water source must beGround-Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI)-protected.(406)

A

6 feet.

324
Q

To enforce safety standards, ensure one or moremethods of __ is provided to protect the operator andothers in the machine area. (406)

A

Machine guarding.

325
Q

How do you report hazards that cannot be eliminatedimmediately? (406)

A

Contact the safety office via AF IMT 457, USAF HazardReport, by telephone or in person. (Reports may be anonymous.The IMT must be readily available to all unit personnel.)

326
Q

The safety office must respond within __ workdays to the reporting member on its findings, the statusof the AF IMT 457 and any recommendations. ( 406)

A

I 0 work days.

327
Q

Why must each Air Force installation have an effectivetraffic safety program as part of its mishap preventionprogram? (406)

A

Because traffic mishaps cause the highest number of AirForce injury-related deaths each year.

328
Q

Reckless behavior, such as speeding or driving toofast for conditions, failure to comply with traffic laws,driving under the influence and driving without protectiveequipment, accounts for more than __ percent of Personal Motor Vehicle (PMV) fatalities in the last 10years. ( 406)

A

70 percent.

329
Q

What activities have recently begun to cause morePersonal Motor Vehicle (PMV) accidents? (406)

A

Distraction by nondriving activities, such as talking on cellphones, texting or using a navigation device.

330
Q

What is Risk Management (RM)? ( 407)

A

Risk Management (RM) is a decisionmaking process that I)systematically evaluates possible Courses of Action (COA);2) identifies risks and benefits; and 3) determines the bestCOA for any given situation.

331
Q

How does Risk Management (RM) help commanders,functional managers, supervisors and individualsmaximize capabilities while limiting risk? (407)

A

By applying a simple, systematic process appropriate for allpersonnel and functions, in both on- and off-duty situations.

332
Q

What four principles govern all actions associatedwith the management of risk before, during and afterevery task and operation? (407)

A

1) Accept no unnecessary risk; 2) make risk decisions at the appropriate level; 3) integrate Risk Management (RM) intooperations and planning at all levels; and 4) apply the processcyclically and continuously.

333
Q

Explain the Risk Management (RM) principle “acceptno unnecessary risk.” ( 407)

A

All Air Force missions and daily routines inherently involverisk. Make logical choices that meet all mission requirementswhile exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptablerisk.

334
Q

Explain the Risk Management (RM) principle”make risk decisions at the appropriate level.” (407)

A

Making risk decisions at the appropriate level establishesclear accountability.

335
Q

Explain the Risk Management (RM) principle “integraterisk management into operations and planning atall levels.” ( 407)

A

Risk assessments of operations are most supportive whenperformed as a normal part of a mission.

336
Q

Explain the Risk Management (RM) principle “applythe process cyclically and continuously.” (407)

A

Using the process cyclically and continuously helps identifyand assess hazards, develop and implement controls, evaluateoutcomes and provide feedback to Airmen.

337
Q

There are two primary levels of Risk Management(RM) that dictate the effort and scope of evaluating risk.What are they? (407)

A

1) Deliberate; and 2) Real-Time.

338
Q

Deliberate Risk Management (RM) ranges from__ RM planning, implemented well in advance forcomplex, risky efforts, to planning for events that are lesscomplex and more familiar. (407)

A

In-depth.

339
Q

What must you formally apply during DeliberateRisk Management (RM)? (407)

A

The 5-Step RM Process.

340
Q

While using Deliberate Risk Management (RM), it isimportant to always include the experience, expertise andknowledge of __ to identify known hazards/risks andstrategies to effectively mitigate risks. (407)

A

Unit personnel.

341
Q

Real-Time Risk Management (RTRM) is used “onthe fly” when time is limited and the 5-Step RM Processis impractical. Instead of using the full 5-Step RM process,what should you apply? (408, 411)

A

The easy-to-remember Assess the Situation, Balance Controls,Communicate and Decide and Debrief (ABCD) mnemonic.

342
Q

Controls become resources during Risk Management(RM) execution. List 5 examples. (408-Fig)

A

Any 5 of the following: 1) system safety; 2) instructions/guidance; 3) documented lessons learned; 4) formaltraining; 5) equipment design; 6) Concept of Operations(CONOP); 7) formal Risk Assessments (RA); 8) missionplanning checklists; 9) formal mission planning; 10) reviewStandard Operation Procedures (SOP) and currency; 11)equipment maintenance; 12) Personal Protective Equipment(PPE), safety equipment checks; 13) crew and individual RMassessments; 14) emergency checklists; 15) emergency training;16) mission/crew changes; 17) equipment failure; 18)changing environment; and 19) Crew Resource Management(CRM), Maintenance Resource Management (MRM), etc.

343
Q

Each step in the Risk Management (RM) processaddresses a unique aspect of how to effectively deal withrisk. Identify these five steps. (408-410)

A

Step 1 - Identify the Hazards; Step 2 - Assess the Hazards;Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make Decisions; Step 4 -Implement Controls; Step 5 - Supervise and Evaluate.

344
Q

How are hazards defined during the identificationstep of the Risk Management (RM) process? (408)

A

Any real or potential condition that can cause mission degradation,injury, illness, death, or damage to or loss of equipment/property.

345
Q

Which step of the Risk Management (RM) processinvolves the application of quantitative and/or qualitativemeasures to determine the probability and severity ofnegative effects that may result from exposure torisks/hazards? (409)

A

Step 2 - Assess the Hazards.

346
Q

Why is it essential to have mission/activity SubjectMatter Experts (SME) involved in the assessment step ofthe Risk Management (RM) process? (409)

A

To provide insight on potential strategies and controls tomitigate the risks associated with a particular event.

347
Q

Use of a Risk Assessment (RA) matrix is requiredduring Step 2 of the Risk Management (RM) process. T IF(409)

A

False. (It is recommended, though RM matrices can takedifferent forms and must be designed to fit the organizationor situation.)

348
Q

What are the benefits of using a risk assessment matrixduring Step 2 of the Risk Management (RM) process?(409)

A

It provides a consistent framework for evaluation, shows therelative perceived risk between hazards and prioritizes whichhazards to control first.

349
Q

What are the four levels of hazard severity on a RiskAssessment (RA) matrix used in the Risk Management(RM) process? (409)

A

1) Catastrophic - complete mission failure, death or loss ofsystem; 2) Critical - significantly degraded mission capabilityor unit readiness, severe injury or damage; 3) Moderate -injury; or minor mission degradation, occupational illness orsystem damage; and 4) Negligible - less than minor missiondegradation, injury or occupational illness; or minor systemdamage.

350
Q

What are the five levels of mishap probability on arisk assessment matrix used in the Risk Management(RM) process? (409)

A

1) Frequent - highly likely to occur; 2) Likely - will probablyoccur immediately or in a short period of time; 3) Occasionally- will occasionally occur in time; 4) Seldom - mayoccur in time; and 5) Unlikely - unlikely to occur within thecourse of a career.

351
Q

What step of the Risk Management (RM) processinvolves the development and selection of specific strategiesand controls to reduce or eliminate risk? (409)

A

Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make Decisions.

352
Q

In Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make Decisions,effective mitigation measures will reduce one of whatthree components of risk? (409)

A

Probability, severity or exposure.

353
Q

The higher the risk, the lower the decision levelneeds to be to ensure an appropriate analysis of overallcosts compared to benefits, ultimately choosing the mostmission-supportive risk controls, consistent with RiskManagement (RM) principles. T/F (409)

A

False. (The higher the risk, the higher the decision level.)

354
Q

What is the standard for establishing levels of RiskManagement (RM) decision authority across the AirForce? (409)

A

There is no standard. (However, leadership must ensure thatlevels of decision authority are aligned appropriately.)

355
Q

What step of the Risk Management (RM) processdevelops and carries out an implementation strategy toidentify the who, what, when, where and costs associatedwith the control measure? (410)

A

Step 4 - Implement Controls.

356
Q

Risk Management (RM) is not about eliminating allof the hazards/risks, but about carefully weighing appropriateoptions and managing the acceptable risk for agiven mission, activity or situation. T/F (410)

A

True.

357
Q

Why is it essential for leaders to remain in the loopon changes and provide guidance on acceptable levels ofrisk during Step 4 of the Risk Management (RM) process?(410)

A

Circumstances are likely to change over time, affecting theoverall risk factors.

358
Q

During Step 4 of the Risk Management (RM) process,for mission-related controls, why must accountabilitybe emphasized across all levels of leadership and personnelinvolved? (410)

A

So there is a clear understanding of the risks and responsibilitiesof commanders and subordinates alike. There mustalways be accountability for acceptance of risk, regardless ofcircumstances.

359
Q

What step of the Risk Management (RM) processcontinues throughout the life cycle of a system, mission oractivity? (410)

A

Step 5 - Supervise and Evaluate.

360
Q

Why must the Risk Management (RM) process beperiodically reevaluated once the controls are in place?(410)

A

To ensure they remain effective and mission-supportive overtime.

361
Q

In addition to Risk Management (RM) controls, afeedback system must be established to ensure that correctiveand preventative action was effective, and to identify,analyze and correct new hazards. What else does itdo? (410)

A

Inform all involved about the implementation process andcontrols.

362
Q

When it is essential to streamline the 5-Step RiskManagement (RM) Process for situations involving quickdecisions, Airmen can use the easy-to-remember ABCDmnemonic. What does ABCD stand for? (411)

A

l) Assess the Situation; 2) Balance Controls; 3) Communicate;and 4) Decide and Debrief

363
Q

In the Real-Time Risk Management (RTRM) step,Assess the Situation, what does a complete assessmentrequire? (411)

A

Perception of what is happening, integration of informationand goals, and projection into the future.

364
Q

In the Real-Time Risk Management (RTRM) step,Balance Controls, personnel must consider all controls(resources) to eliminate or mitigate risk. What can makethis step more effective? (411)

A

Better preparation.

365
Q

In the Real-Time Risk Management (RTRM) Communicationstep, personnel experience stress and loss ofSituational Awareness (SA), which may lead to diminishedcommunication skills and “tunnel vision.” How canit help individuals to identify that they are losing SA?(411-412)

A

They can make corrections and communicate more effectively.

366
Q

Explain what happens in the Decide and Debrief stepof Real-Time Risk Management (RTRM). (412)

A

Airmen decide whether to continue, modify or abandon themission; make every effort to weigh risk decisions beforeselecting the best Course of Action (COA); and examinewhat worked and what did not work to improve performanceand future activities.

367
Q

Sexual assault is ______ conduct and violates AirForce core values. (412)

A

Criminal.

368
Q

____ for self, others and the Air Force institutionis inherent in the core values of Integrity First, ServiceBefore Self and Excellence in All We Do. (412)

A

Respect

369
Q

The DoD definition of sexual assault is for trainingand educational purposes and precludes definitions ofoffenses under the UCMJ. T/F (412)

A

False. (The DoD’s definition of sexual assault does not in any way affect the definition ofany offenses under the UCMJ.)

370
Q

Sexual assault is defined by the DoD as intentionalsexual contact, characterized by what? (412)

A

Use of force, threats, intimidation, abuse of authority, or ifthe victim does not or cannot consent.

371
Q

Does the DoD’s definition of sexual assault includeunwanted or inappropriate sexual contact and all attemptsto commit it? (412)

A

Yes.

372
Q

Consent requires words or overt acts by a __ personthat indicate freely given agreement to sexual conduct.T/F (412)

A

Competent.

373
Q

Does a lack of verbal or physical resistance to sexualconduct constitute consent? (412)

A

No. Consent cannot be construed when submission resultsfrom the accused’s use of force, threat of force, or placinganother person in fear.

374
Q

By itself, a previous or current dating relationship ora person’s __ of __ does not constitute consent tosexual conduct. (412)

A

Manner of dress.

375
Q

Who implements and manages the installation-levelsexual assault prevention and response programs? Towhom does he or she report? (413)

A

The Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC). Directlyto the installation Vice Commander (CV).

376
Q

The Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC) isthe installation’s single Point of Contact (POC) for sexualassault victim care during what stages of response to sexualassault incidents? (413)

A

From the initial report through disposition and resolution ofthe victim’s health and well-being issues.

377
Q

The Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC)helps commanders meet annual sexual assault preventionand response training requirements and provides communityeducation. List two other responsibilities. (413)

A

1) Maintains, compiles and submits required reports; and 2)ensures available avenues of reporting sexual assault receivethe widest possible publicity (including restricted and unrestrictedreports).

378
Q

Who provides essential support, liaison services andcare to sexual assault victims? (413)

A

Victim Advocates (VA).

379
Q

What are the responsibilities of Victim Advocates(VA)? (413)

A

1) Providing crisis intervention; 2) referral; and 3) ongoingnonclinical support (including information on available optionsand resources to assist the victim in making informeddecisions about the case.)

380
Q

How long will Victim Advocates (VA) continue toserve a sexual assault victim? (413)

A

Until the victim states that support is no longer needed or theSexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC) determinesthat services are no longer required.

381
Q

Who may be Victim Advocate (VA) volunteers?(413)

A

Only Regular Air Force military personnel, AFR or ANGpersonnel in active status and DoD civilian employees selectedby the Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC).(They must possess the maturity and experience to assist in avery sensitive situation.)

382
Q

When may a Victim Advocate (VA) accompany asexual assault victim during investigative interviews andmedical examinations? ( 413)

A

At the victim’s request.

383
Q

Victim Advocates (VA) accompanying sexual assaultvictims to any investigative interviews or medical examinationsmay be called as witnesses in court-martial oradministrative proceedings. T/F (413)

A

True

384
Q

What does the Sexual Assault Response Coordinator(SARC) do immediately upon notification of a sexualassault incident? (413)

A

He or she assigns a Victim Advocate (VA) to the victim.

385
Q

What does the Victim Advocate (VA) do immediatelyafter being assigned to a sexual assault case? (413)

A

He or she 1) contacts the victim; 2) provides accurate informationon the sexual assault response process (unless thevictim declines VA assistance), including the option of unrestrictedor restricted reporting; and 3) informs the victim ofhealthcare availability, including the option of a forensicmedical examination and evidence collection.

386
Q

What is the most underreported violent crime in themilitary and in American society? (413)

A

Sexual assault.

387
Q

Why are sexual assault incidents often not reported?(413)

A

Because the victim does not want anyone to know what happened.

388
Q

What option is available to report alleged sexual assaultincidents without initiating the investigative process?(413)

A

Restricted reporting. (It provides confidentiality and givesthe victim access to medical care, counseling and a VictimAdvocate (VA).)

389
Q

How does DoD and Air Force sexual assault policyachieve effective command awareness and preventionprograms and use law enforcement and criminal justiceactivities to maximize accountability and prosecution ofanyone guilty of sexual assault? (413)

A

By recommending and encouraging prompt, complete unrestrictedreporting of sexual assault allegations.

390
Q

What is the purpose of restricted reporting of sexualassault allegations? (413-414)

A

To give victims additional time and increased control overthe release and management of personal information, and anopportunity to make an informed decision about filing anunrestricted report with law enforcement or command authorities.

391
Q

Who may make a restricted report of a sexual assaultallegation? (414)

A

Only Regular Air Force military personnel and AFR or ANGmembers performing active or inactive duty training in federalstatus.

392
Q

Who may not make a restricted report of a sexualassault allegation? (414)

A

Members of the reserve component not performing federalduty, retired members of any component, dependents and AirForce civilian employees.

393
Q

Who may receive a restricted report of a sexual assaultallegation? (414)

A

Only Sexual Assault Response Coordinators (SARC),healthcare personnel and the Victim Advocate (VA) appointedby the SARC.

394
Q

What will a healthcare provider’s first actions be fora sexual assault victim? (414)

A

Provide appropriate emergency medical care and immediatelynotify the Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC)to initiate the restricted reporting process.

395
Q

What requirement is waived for restricted reports of sexual assault incidents? (414)

A

AFI 44-102, Medical Care Management, to report sexual assault incidents to the Air Force OSI or other appropriateauthorities.

396
Q

Whom must the Sexual Assault Response Coordinator(SARC) notify within 24 hours of receiving a restrictedreport of an alleged sexual assault? (414)

A

When a restricted report of an alleged sexual assaultis made, what three categories are used to determinewhen the assault occurred? (414)

397
Q

When a restricted report of an alleged sexual assaultis made, what three categories are used to determinewhen the assault occurred? (414)

A

1) While in military service and within the last 30 days; 2)while in military service and more than 30 days ago; and 3)prior to military service.

398
Q

What non-identifying information must the SexualAssault Response Coordinator (SARC) provide with arestricted report of an alleged sexual assault? (414)

A

1) When the assault occurred (while in military service andwithin 30 days, while in military service and more than 30days or prior to military service); 2) whether the assault occurredat night (1800-0559) or day (0600-1759); 3) generallocation; 4) number of alleged assailants; 5) number of allegedvictims; and 6) nature of the assault.

399
Q

Commanders and law enforcement officials may notuse information from restricted reports of sexual assaultallegations to initiate an investigation. T/F (414)

A

True.

400
Q

Commanders can use non-identifying informationfrom a restricted report of a sexual assault allegation forwhat purposes? (414)

A

To 1) enhance preventive measures; 2) enhance personneleducation and training; and 3) scrutinize their organization’sclimate and culture for contributing factors.

401
Q

An unrestricted report of a sexual assault is onemade through normal reporting channels. What channelsdoes this include? (414)

A

I) The victim’s chain of command; 2) law enforcement; 3)Air Force OSI; and/or 4) other criminal investigative services.

402
Q

A report of an alleged sexual assault is made to aSexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC), VictimAdvocate (VA) or healthcare personnel by an individualnot eligible for restricted reporting. What happens to it?(414)

A

It is considered unrestricted and forwarded to the Air Force OSI.

403
Q

To whom will the details of an unrestricted report ofa sexual assault allegation be provided? (414)

A

Only those personnel who have a legitimate need to know.(The Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC) will benotified of the report and will assign a Victim Advocate(VA) to the individual.)

404
Q

Who is routinely deemed to have a valid need toknow about an unrestricted report of a sexual assaultallegation? (414)

A

1) Law enforcement; 2) the commanders and first sergeantsof the victim and the alleged assailant; 3) legal personnel; 4)the Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC); 5) theVictim Advocate (VA) assigned to the victim; and 6)healthcare providers.

405
Q

What steps must a commander take immediatelywhen notified of a sexual assault through unrestrictedreporting? (414)

A

He or she must ensure that 1) the victim’s physical safety,emotional security and medical treatment needs are met; 2)the Air Force OSI, or appropriate criminal investigativeagency, and Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC)are notified; and 3) the victim or alleged assailant is temporarilyreassigned or relocated, if appropriate.

406
Q

A sexual assault investigation may uncover evidencethat the victim engaged in misconduct. Name several examples.(414)

A

Any of the following: 1) underage drinking or other relatedalcohol offenses; 2) adultery; 3) drug abuse; 4) fratemization; or 5) other violations of instructions, regulations ororders.

407
Q

If an investigation of sexual assault allegations uncoversevidence that the victim engaged in misconduct,what must commanders do? (415)

A

Ensure the misconduct is addressed in a manner consistentand appropriate to the circumstances.

408
Q

Deploying members receive training on sexual assaultissues before departing. T/F (415)

A

True.

409
Q

The Air Force only identifies trained military SexualAssault Response Coordinators (SARC) for Air andSpace Expeditionary Force (AEF) rotational support forglobal contingency operations, consistent with requirementsestablished by a Commander, Air Force Forces(COMAFFOR). T/F (415)

A

False. (They also identify trained civilian SARCs who volunteer.)

410
Q

Normally, each Air Expeditionary Wing (AEW)warrants at least one Sexual Assault Response Coordinators(SARC) requirement. What are the requirements fordeployments smaller than an Air and Space ExpeditionaryForce (AEF)? (415)

A

Deployed commanders must provide a sexual assault response capability consistent with DoD and Air Force requirements.

PDG (20 decks)

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