Chapter 3

Question 1

Once your ambulance is dispatched to an emergency, you have an obligation to respond. This is known as:

A. scope of practice.
B. duty to act.
C. breach of duty.
D. mandatory reporting.

Answer 1

B. duty to act.

Question 2

Upon arrival at the scene, your partner began assessing vital signs without talking to the patient. This demonstrates:

A. effective interpersonal communication.
B. patient advocacy.
C. failure to obtain consent.
D. breach of duty.

Answer 2

C failure to obtain consent.

Question 3

Suppose your partner had introduced himself and asked permission to examine the patient. If the patient nodded and extended
his arm, this would be considered:

A. mature consent.
B. implied consent.
C. informed consent.
D. expressed consent.

Answer 3

D expressed consent.

Question 4

What is the best way to care for your patient once he tells you he does not want to go to the hospital?

A. Let him know how important it is that he accept transport to the hospital.

B. Ask him to sign a refusal form, releasing you from liability.

C. Order him to go to the hospital against his wishes.

D. Encourage him to call 9-1-1 again if his condition worsens.

Answer 4

A Let him know how important it is that he accept transport to the hospital.

Question 5

While caring for this patient, you hear a neighbor cry for help; a child is drowning just around the corner. You and your partner
leave, telling the patient you must respond to this incident and will send another ambulance for him as soon as possible. This
decision is an example of:

A. triage.
B. abandonment.
C. patient advocacy.
D. duty to act.

Answer 5

B abandonment.

Question 6

On another call that day, your patient consented to treatment and transport after you told her she could be experiencing a serious
medical emergency. This is an example of:

A. scope of practice.
B. implied consent.
C. serving in the patient’s best interest.
D. an EMS field impression.

Answer 6

C serving in the patient’s best interest

Question 7

When a patient is unconscious, you may provide treatment under the concept of __________.

A. expressed consent.
B. informed consent.
C. duty to act.
D. implied consent.

Answer 7

D. implied consent.

Question 8

Mentally competent patients have the right to refuse treatment.
True or false?

Answer 8

True.

Question 9

________ is sometimes necessary when you are confronted with a patient who is in need of medical treatment and transportation but is combative and presents a significant risk of danger to himself, herself, or others.

Answer 9

Restraint.

Question 10

what is an advance directive?

Answer 10

a legal document outlining a person’s medical treatment preferences if they become unable to make decisions.

Question 11

what is a DNR?

Answer 11

A DNR (Do Not Resuscitate) is a medical order instructing healthcare providers not to perform CPR if a patient’s heart or breathing stops.

Question 12

The laws that define what an EMT can do are called ______

Answer 12

scope of practice

Question 13

What four elements must be present to prove negligence?

Answer 13

Duty to Act – The EMT had a legal obligation to provide care.

Breach of Duty – The EMT failed to meet the standard of care.

Causation – The EMT’s actions or inactions directly caused harm to the patient.

Damages – The patient suffered actual harm or injury as a result.

Question 14

Despite the expressed refusal of care by a competent 40 year old patient, you splint an ankle that you believe may be sprained. What crime have you committed by doing this?

Answer 14

By providing care against the expressed refusal of a competent adult patient, you have committed BATTERY, which is the unlawful physical contact or treatment without the patient’s consent.

Question 15

To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should:

A. always transport patients to the hospital of their choice.
B. provide competent care that meets current standards.
C. use of universal precautions with every patient encounter.
D. utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient.

Answer 15

B. provide competent care that meets current standards.

Question 16

Which of the following scenarios is an example of informed consent?

A. a patient advises an EMT of why he or she is refusing care.
B. an EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment.
C. an EMT initiates immediate care for an unconscious adult.
D. a patient is advised by an EMT of the risks of refusing care.

Answer 16

B. an EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment.

Question 17

You suspect that a pregnant 16 year old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. Which of the following types of consent describes her agreement.

A. implied
B. informed
C. expressed
D. minor’s

Answer 17

C. expressed

Question 18

A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to hospital. Under these circumstances, you should:

A. document the patient’s request but continue to transport him.
B. have the patient sign a refusal form and return him to his office.
C. request that the police place the patient under protective custody.
D. assess whether the patient’s mental condition is impaired.

Answer 18

D. assess whether the patient’s mental condition is impaired.

Question 19

You suspect that a 6 year old girl has broken her leg after falling from a swing at a playground. Shortly after you arrive, the child’s mother appears and refuses to allow you to continue treatment. You should:

A. use your authority under the implied consent law.
B. try to persuade the mother that treatment is needed.
C. ask the mother to sign a refusal form and then leave.
D. tell the mother that her refusal is a form of child abuse.

Answer 19

B. try to persuade the mother that treatment is needed.

Question 20

You respond to the home of a 59 year old man who is unconscious with slow, shallow breathing and a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should:

A. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed.
B. honor the patient’s wishes and withhold all treatment.
C. transport the patient without providing any treatment.
D. decide one further action once the DNR order is produced.

Answer 20

A. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed.

Question 21

You have been tasked by your medical director with assisting in the development of your EMS agency’s institutional standards. When developing these standards, it is important to:

A. require personnel to transport all patients to the closest hospital.
B. be reasonable and realistic to avoid overburdening EMS personnel.
C. demand that all personnel consistently exceed the standard of care.
D. expect personnel to function beyond their scope of practice if needed.

Answer 21

B. be reasonable and realistic to avoid overburdening EMS personnel.

Question 22

You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critically injured patient involved. The scene is safe. Your first priority is to:

A. notify medical control for advice.
B. provide immediate patient care.
C. wait for law enforcement to arrive.
D. determine why the patient was injured.

Answer 22

B. provide immediate patient care.

Question 23

You receive a subpoena to testify in court regarding a case that occurred two years ago in which you and your partner did not attempt resuscitation of a cardiac arrest patient. Upon receiving the subpoena, you should:

A. call the district attorney’s office and explain the details of the case.
B. notify the director of your EMS system and obtain legal counsel.
C. attach an official addendum to the original patent care report.
D. contact the patient’s family in an attempt to resolve the matter with them.

Answer 23

B. notify the director of your EMS system and obtain legal counsel.

Question 24

When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should:

A. advise your partner that you cannot provide care to this patient.
B. wait for the backup ambulance while your partner performs CPR.
C. obtain permission from medical control to not attempt resuscitation.
D. begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

Answer 24

D. begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

Question 25

Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct?

A. a patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment.
B. patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment.
C. expressed consent is valid only If given in writing by a family member.
D. all patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport.

Answer 25

A. a patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment.

Question 26

Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?

A. actual
B. implied
C. informed
D. expressed

Answer 26

B. implied

Question 27

In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:

A. possesses a valid driver’s license.
B. is mentally competent and able to refuse.
C. has a poor relationship with his or her parents.
D. is self-supporting and lives by him or herself.

Answer 27

D. is self-supporting and lives by him or herself.

Question 28

Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) most affects EMS personnel?

A. controlling insurance costs.
B. protecting patient privacy.
C. preventing insurance fraud.
D. ensuring access to insurance.

Answer 28

B. protecting patient privacy.

Question 29

For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must:

A. be dated within the previous 24 months.
B. clearly state the patient’s medical problem.
C. be updated a minimum of every 6 months.
D. be signed by the local justice of the peace.

Answer 29

B. clearly state the patient’s medical problem.

Question 30

You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death?

A. absence of a pulse.
B. profound cyanosis.
C. dependent lividity.
D. absent breath sounds.

Answer 30

C. dependent lividity.

Question 31

Putrefaction is defined as:

A. decomposition of the body’s tissues.
B. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face.
C. blood settling to the lowest point of the body.
D. separation of the torso from the rest of the body.

Answer 31

A. decomposition of the body’s tissues.

Question 32

The EMT’s scope of practice within his or her local response are is defined by the:

A. medical director.
B. state EMS office.
C. EMS supervisor.
D. local health district.

Answer 32

A. medical director.

Question 33

As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of:

A. another EMT.
B. the general public.
C. the medical director.
D. a paramedic supervisor.

Answer 33

A. another EMT.

Question 34

Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment?

A. a paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.
B. an AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic.
C. a physician assumes patient care from an EMT.
D. an EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse.

Answer 34

A. a paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.

Question 35

Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called:

A. libel.
B. assault.
C. battery.
D. negligence.

Answer 35

B. assault.

Question 36

Which of the following statements regarding Good Samaritan laws is correct?

A. such laws provide the EMT with absolute immunity from a lawsuit.
B. such laws guarantee that the EMT will not be held liable if he or she is sued.
C. such laws do not protect EMTs who are off duty.
D. such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence.

Answer 36

D. such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence.

Question 37

In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates:

A. inadequate patient care was administered.
B. potential falsification of the patient care form.
C. thorough documentation was not required.
D. the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form.

Answer 37

A. inadequate patient care was administered.

Question 38

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:

A. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient’s sight.
B. placing the patient in a private are unit the police arrive.
C. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later.
D. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.

Answer 38

D. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.

Question 39

Two EMTs witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient’s emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The EMTs ignored the coworker’s treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMTs is considered:

A. legal and ethical.
B. legal and unethical.
C. illegal but ethical.
D. illegal and unethical.

Answer 39

B. legal and unethical.

Question 40

Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment?

A. a confused young male who says he is the president.
B. a man who Is staggering and states that he had three beers.
C. a conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain.
D. a diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date.

Answer 40

C. a conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain.

Question 41

Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities?

A. cardiac arrest.
B. drug overdose.
C. attempted suicide.
D. accidental knife wound.

Answer 41

C. attempted suicide.

Question 42

An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she:

A. refused to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife.
B. remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to give a patient report.
C. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient.
D. terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request.

Answer 42

C. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient.

Question 43

Which of the following most accurately defines negligence?

A. transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will.
B. deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury.
C. transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training.
D. providing care that is consistent with with care provided by other EMTs

Answer 43

B. deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury.

Question 44

The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the:

A. EMT oath
B. code of ethics.
C. standard of care.
D. stop of practice.

Answer 44

C. standard of care.