Chapter 17 Flashcards
1
Q
Asset
A
An employee, contractor, or any
physical, technological, or
intellectual possession.
TDMM.* G-72
2
Q
DACS
A
Digital Alarm Communicator System
A system in which signals are
transmitted from a digital alarm
communicator transmitter (DACT)
located at the protected premises
through the public switched telephone
network (PSTN) to a digital alarm
communicator receiver (DACR) so that
it may seize the line to which it is
connected. The seizure disconnects
any private telephone equipment
beyond the DACT’s point of
connection.
TDMM: Page G-57
3
Q
DARR
A
Digital Alarm Radio Receiver
A system component composed
of two subcomponents—one
that receives and decodes radio
signals and another that
annunciates the decoded data.
TDMM.* Page G-57
4
Q
DART
A
Digital Alarm Radio Transmitter
A system component that is
connected to or an integral part
of a digital alarm communicator
transmitter (DACT) that is used
to provide an alternate radio
transmission channel.
TDMM: Page G-57
5
Q
EAC
A
Electronic Access Control
A system composed of computer
software and hardware for
managing access to identified
spaces through the use of
established security levels, issued
credentials, and peripheral
electronic hardware, including door
contacts, request to exit (REX)
devices, card readers, and
electronic locking hardware.
TDMM.* Page G-68
6
Q
ESS
A
Electronic Safety and Security
Systems that utilize analog and
digital transmission of data in
addition to mechanical or electrical
methods to enhance the safety and
security of a facility.
TDMM: Page G-68
7
Q
FACP
A
Fire Alarm Control Panel
A system component that
receives and monitors inputs
from fire alarm devices and
controls outputs to connected
appliances, transmitters, relays
and devices, and other
control units.
TDMM.* Page G-78
8
Q
FDAS
A
Fire Detection and
Alarm System
System involved in the early
detection and notification of life
safety threats.
TDMM.* Page 17-31
9
Q
Fixed Camera
A
A camera dedicated to a single
view that does not change
unless the camera is
physically moved.
TDMM.* Page 17-22
10
Q
Layering
A
The use of many layers of
barriers, other countermeasures,
or a mixture of both, used to
provide the maximum level of
deterrence and delay.
TDMM.* Page G-707
11
Q
NAC
A
Notification Appliance Circuit
A fire alarm circuit used to
connect and operate notification
appliances to the fire
alarm system.
TDMM.* Page G-731
12
Q
Pan and Tilt
A
Refers to a camera that allows
for 180-degree or 360-degree
view, which is controlled
electronically from a remote
viewing station.
TDMM.* Page 17-22
13
Q
Risk
A
A vulnerability to or potential for
loss from a threat or event.
TDMM.* G-767
14
Q
Threat
A
- An indication of the event or
the intent to do harm or
damage. - An agent by which damage,
injury, loss, or death can occur.
TDMM.* Page G-195
15
Q
Video Surveillance
A
The extension of human vision
to areas requiring surveillance.
TDMM.* Page 17-21
16
Q
Name the 6 primary
functions that an ESS
system performs.
A
1 .Access control
2.Surveillance
3.1ntrusion detection
4.Fire alarm and detection
5.Mass notification
6.Area of rescue communications
TDMM.* Page 17-1
17
Q
Name 3 independent
components of a
security program.
A
1 .Electronic
2.Architectural
3.0perational
TDMM.* Page 17-1
18
Q
Lighting is categorized
as what type of
countermeasure?
A
Architectural
TDMM.* Page 17-2, Figure 17.1
19
Q
Access control is
categorized as what type
of countermeasure?
A
Electronic
TDMM.* Page 17-2, Figure 17.1
20
Q
Contingency planning is
categorized as what type
of countermeasure?
A
Operational
TDMM.* Page 17-2, Figure 17.1
21
Q
What is a fundamental
concept of security design?
A
The use of layering
TDMM.* Page 17-2
22
Q
Describe the theory of
concentric circles.
A
Using multiple points of
detection provides the
greatest opportunity for
evaluation and response
TDMM.* Page 17-2
23
Q
What principle serves as
the basis of event-based
monitoring?
A
The principle that electronic
systems can efficiently and
effectively drive operational
response
TDMM.* Page 17-3
24
Q
What is required to provide
a person with total safety
and security?
A
Total isolation from their
environment and other people
while maintaining basic
life support
TDMM.* Page 17-4
25
What is required to provide
objects with total safety
and security?
Isolating the object from access
TDMM.* Page 17-4
26
Name three steps
performed by a
security consultant.
1 .Assess known and potential
risks.
2.Estimate the likelihood that
threats will occur.
3.Recommend pragmatic
countermeasures.
TDMM.* Page 17-4
27
List 7 categories of
potential causes for
damage or loss.
1 . Temperature
2.Gases
3.Liquids
4.0rganisms
5.Projectiles
6.Movement
7.Energy anomalies
TDMM.* Page 17-4
28
What is the key to
mitigating risks?
Identifying the source of a
potential risk
TDMM.* Page 17-5
29
True or False
The threat analysis
preparation is used as a
basis for the design of the
ACS and other security
systems.
False. The threat analysis
preparation is NOT to be used as
a basis for the design of ACS or
other security systems. It is an
overall assessment and
recommendation for
countermeasures necessary to
protect life and property.
TDMM.* Page 17-5
30
Name 4 factors that affect
a user's level.
1 .Security clearances
2.Job title
3.Rank
4. Employee type
TDMM.* Page 17-8
31
Name the 2 primary
components of an EAC.
1 .A computer with EAC software
2.One or more peripheral
devices and/or control panels
TDMM.* Page 77-9
32
Define the 3 levels
of EAC systems.
*Level 1: Headend processing,
recording, software, or
database
*Level 2: Intelligent field
processing
*Level 3: Field devices
TDMM.* Page 17-10
33
What is a credential?
An item that allows
entry to an area
TDMM.* Page 17-10
34
What type of cables make
up an analog EAC cable?
Four individually shielded pairs
TDMM.* Page 17-10
35
Name 4 types of cabling
used for communications
in an EAC system.
1 .Balanced twisted-pair
2.Optical fiber
3.Wireless
4.Cellular network connections
TDMM.* Page 17-11
36
Name 4 types
of basic door locks.
1 .Bored locks
2.Rim locks
3.Mortise locks
4.Vertical rod locks
TDMM.* Page 17-13
37
Name 4 types of
basic lock functions.
1 .Entrance lock
2.Storeroom lock
3.CIassroom lock
4.Vestibule lock
TDMM.* Page 17-13
38
How does an
entrance lock function?
When it is pushed in,
an inside button locks the
outside lever.
TDMM.* Page 17-13
39
How does a
storeroom lock function?
This lock is key-operated from
the outside because the outside
lever is always locked. The
inside lever always allows
free egress.
TDMM.* Page 17-13
40
What determines if the
outside lever of a vestibule
lock is locked or unlocked?
The outside lever is accessed by
key when the door is locked. A
key in the inside lever
if the outside lever is
locked or unlocked.
TDMM.* Page 17-13
41
What is probably the most
common type of door
release
Electric strikes
TDMM.* Page 17-14
42
Name 3 performance
ratings used to describe
electric strikes.
1 .Static strength
2.Dynamic strength
3.Endurance levels
TDMM.* Page 17-14
43
Name 3 types of optional
monitoring switches for an
electric strike.
1 .Latch bolt monitor
2.Locking cam monitor
3.Dead bolt monitor
TDMM: Page 17-14
44
What is the typical amount
of unlock time for an
electric strike?
8 to 11 seconds
TDMM.* Page 17-14
45
Name 2 types of
magnetic locks.
1 .Direct hold (direct-pull)
2.Shear locks
TDMM.* Page 17-76
46
How many means of
release do AHJs normally
require for magnetic locks?
2
TDMM.* Page 17-16
47
What replaces the function
of a traditional mechanical
key in an electric lockset?
Actuating solenoids
TDMM.* Page 17-17
48
Name 2 applications where
electric bolts and latches
may be used.
1 .High-security applications
where normal life-safety issues
may be secondary
2.AppIications where people do
not move in an out of the area
TDMM.* Page 17-18
49
What is another name for
electrified exit hardware?
Panic hardware
TDMM.* Page 17-19
50
Where is the use of
electrified exit hardware
Often required?
In the path of egress
TDMM.* Page 17-19
51
Where is electrified exit
hardware commonly used?
In double-door applications
TDMM.* Page 17-19
52
Name 5 primary
applications of
video surveillance.
1.lnvestigation
2.Prosecution
4.Observation
5.Intrusion detection
TDMM.* Page 17-21
53
Name 3 traditional uses of
surveillance systems.
1 .Operational
2.Safety
3.Security
TDMM: Page 17-21
54
What is a good rule of
thumb regarding the use
video surveillance and
privacy rights?
Do not use video surveillance
in areas where a right to
privacy is expected.
Note: If there is any doubt, seek
and document an informed
legal opinion.
TDMM.* Page 17-21
55
What does the use of video
surveillance technology
imply about the areas
under surveillance?
That the areas are being
monitored and a response will
be provided if the need arises
TDMM.* Page 17-21
56
Why are IR cameras
referred to as
"starlight cameras"?
Because of their nighttime
viewing capabilities
TDMM.* Page 17-21
57
What is the purpose of
thermal cameras?
To capture heat or temperature
values of a scene rather than
light values
TDMM.* Page 17-21
58
How are the lens for video
surveillance cameras
defined?
By their focal length
TDMM.* Page 17-22
59
Name the 3 common types
Of Canner a lenses.
1 .Fixed
2.Variable
3.Zoom
TDMM.* Page 17-22
60
Name the 2 typical types of
camera mounts used in
video surveillance
applications.
1 Fixed
2.Pan and tilt
TDMM.* Page 17-26
61
Name two factors used to
determine camera
mounting locations.
1 .Available physical infrastructure
2.Required fields of view
TDMM.* Page 17-22
62
What is the recommended
mounting height for interior
video surveillance
cameras?
-2.4 m (8 ft) AFF
TDMM.* Page 77-23
63
What is the recommended
mounting height for
exterior video surveillance
cameras?
-4.6 m (15 ft) AFF
TDMM.* Page 17-23
64
Name the 3 primary types
of wireless technology that
is used for video
transmission.
1 .Radio frequency (RF)
2.Free-space optics
3.Microwave
TDMM: Page 17-23
65
Name the 2 possible
methods for accomplishing
IP-based video.
1 .Digitization of video from an
analog device and subsequent
conversion to IP video
2.Use of IP-based cameras
TDMM.* Page 17-24
66
Name 3 factors that limit
image viewing through an
IP-based video system.
1 .System's features
2.User rights as determined by
the administrator
3.AvailabIe network bandwidth
TDMM.* Page 17-24
67
What is the traditional
system for the control and
display of analog video
surveillance?
The cross-point matrix
TDMM.* Page 17-24
68
What is the purpose of a
video surveillance matrix?
To switch and distribute video
signals from multiple inputs to
multiple outputs
TDMM.* Page 17-24
69
What is the function of a
multiview processor?
To take groups of video inputs
and consolidate them into a
single video output
TDMM.* Page 17-25
70
How does consolidating
multiple video inputs into
one video output affect
those inputs?
It lowers the resolution of the
individual inputs.
TDMM.* Page 17-25
71
Describe digital video
recording.
The nonlinear writing of video
image data to a media for the
purpose of storage
TDMM.* Page 17-26
72
Name 4 technologies used
for digital video storage.
1 .Storage area networks
2.Network-attached storage
3.Redundant array of
independent disks
4.Stand-aIone drives and digital
cards
TDMM.* Page 17-26
73
What is generally
considered to be the lowest
acceptable frame rate for a
digital recorder?
3.75 frames per second (fps)
TDMM: Page 17-26
74
What component is the
human machine interface
for the video surveillance
system?
Monitor
TDMM.* Page 17-27
75
Name 4 factors to consider
when selecting monitors
for a video surveillance
system.
1 .Number, type, and quality
monitors
2.1ntegration with other systems
3.Physical arrangement of
monitors
4.Ability to view in multiple
locations
TDMM.* Page 17-27
76
What determines how
many layers of intrusion
detection are present
at a facility?
The purpose of the facility
TDMM.* Page 17-28
77
Name the 3 general
types of alarms.
1.Fire detection and alarm
system (FDAS)
2.Intrusion alarms
3.Special alarms
TDMM.* Page 17-28
78
Name 6 conditions that
will place an IDS in
alarm mode.
1.Breaking an electrical circuit
2.Interrupting a light beam
3.Detecting a sound
4.Detecting a vibration
5.Detecting a change in capacitance because of penetration of an electrostatic field
6. Tampering with the devices or
processing controller
TDMM.* Page 17-29
79
Name 3 common
components of
an alarm system.
1 .Sensor
2.Sending circuit
3.Annunciator
TDMM.* Page 17-29
80
Name 4 types of
monitoring methods.
1 .Local alarm
2.Central station
3.Dial alarm
4.AuxiIiary or leased-line system
TDMM.* Page 17-30
81
What does the IDS protect?
1.Perimeter
2.Area of space
3.Point of object
TDMM: Page 17-30
82
Name 4 components of an
intrusion detection system.
1.Detection sensors
2.Processing and transmitting devices
3.Annunciators and sounding devices
4.Power source
TDMM.* Page 17-30
83
Name the 2
classes of FDAS.
1 .Protected premises system
2.Supervising station system
TDMM.* Page 17-31
84
How do supervising station
systems differ from
protected premises
systems?
Supervising station systems
retransmit signals to the
designated fire protection
authorities whereas the
occupant notifies the authorities
when a protected premises
system sounds and alarm.
TDMM.* Page 17-32
85
Do central station services
own the properties
they monitor?
No. They do not own the
properties; they monitor the fire
detection systems for many
separate property owners.
TDMM.* Page 17-32
86
Name 5 types of
initiation devices.
1 .Smoke detection
2.Heat detection
3.Flame detection
4.Fire-gas detection
5.Human detection
TDMM.* Page 17-33
87
Name the 3
components of a fire.
1 .Smoke
2. Heat
3.Light radiation
TDMM.* Page 17-39
88
Name the 2 categories of
smoke detectors.
1 .Photoelectric
2.Ionization
TDMM.* Page 17-33
89
How do heat detectors
differ from flame
detectors?
Heat detectors sense high
temperatures or temperature
rise; flame detectors sense
radiation produced by the fire.
TDMM.* Page 17-33
90
What is a pull station?
Simple switch that, when pulled,
turns on the fire alarm (FA)
notification appliances
TDMM.* Page 17-34
91
What is the benefit of
installing dual-action
pull stations?
They provide a physiological
barrier that helps prevent
false alarms.
TDMM.* Page 17-34
92
What is typically the
maximum distance
between a pull station
and an exit door?
-1.5 m (5 ft)
TDMM.* Page 17-34
93
What is generally the
maximum permitted
distance between pull
stations?
-61 m (200 ft)
TDMM.* Page 77-34
94
Name the 3 design goals
that are necessary
considerations when
designing for effective
notification.
1 .Signal audibility
2.Intelligibility
3.Visibility
TDMM: Page 17-36
95
What are the most used
notification appliances for
FA signaling?
*Audible appliances
*Visible appliances
*Combination of audible and
visible
TDMM: Page 17-36
96
List 6 types of
notification appliances.
1 .Bells
2.Chimes
3.Horns
4.Speakers
5.Strobes
6.Combination
TDMM.* Page 17-36
97
Why are most FA signaling
devices designed to run on
24 V dc power?
To ensure they continue to
function normally on battery
backup power in the event
of a loss of primary power
from the FA system
TDMM.* Page 17-36
98
What factor is the most
important aspect of
FA signaling?
Audibility
TDMM.* Page 17-37
99
What is the most common
mode of alarm perception?
Hearing
TDMM.* Page 17-42
100
Name 3 ways the audibility
of an alarm can be
compromised.
1 .AIarm level
2.Alarm clarity
3.AIarm reliability
TDMM.* Page 17-37
101
Along with audibility, what
is another major
consideration for mass
notification systems?
Intelligibility
TDMM.* Page 17-38
102
Name 3 factors that may
impact visibility.
1 .Area of coverage
2.Mounting location
3.Ceiling height
TDMM.* Page 17-38
103
True or False
Fire alarm control systems
are capable of two-way
communication.
True. FACPs are capable of
two-way communication.
TDMM.* Page 17-39
104
What is required to happen
if an operator activates the
silent switch for a trouble
signal in an FA system?
It must be transferred to a visual
indication that remains lit until
the trouble condition of the
device is corrected.
TDMM.* Page 17-40
105
What will happen if the
silent switch is placed in
the silent position, but no
trouble condition exists in
the FA system?
The trouble signal will sound.
TDMM.* Page 17-40
106
True or False
Designations for the
circuits and pathways in an
FA system are hierarchical.
False. These designations
provide levels of performance
and survivability, not hierarchy.
TDMM.* Page 17-41
107
What class designation is
used for Ethernet and other
network protocols?
Class N
TDMM.* Page 17-41
108
What type of supervision is
required for a switch in a
Class N network?
General supervision. Network
hardware, such as a switch, is
considered transport equipment
and does not require specific
supervision.
TDMM.* Page 17-43
109
How many redundant
pathways are required
between Switch 1 and
Switch 2 in a
Class N design?
1
TDMM.* Page 17-43
110
What designation is applied
to a shared pathway that
does not segregate or
prioritize life safety data
from non-life safety data?
Level 0
TDMM.* Page 17-45
111
What type of shared
pathway is dedicated to
life safety systems?
Level 3
TDMM: Page 17-45
112
True or False
The general public should
have access to Class N
pathways.
False. The general public
should not have access to
Class N pathways.
TDMM.* Page 17-45
113
Per NFPA 72, what steps
must be taken when a
Class N system performs
below normal criteria?
*Send a supervisory signal to the
fire alarm panel.
*Record information in the history
log.
*Notify premises owners of the
problem.
*Identify the location of the
problem.
TDMM: Page 17-46
114
Where would you look for
the plan for replacing
servers and routers in a
Class N system?
The Emergency Response Plan
TDMM.* Page 17-46
115
Who provides final
approval for plans related
to installing a Class N
system?
The AHJ
TDMM.* Page 17-46
116
How many sources of
power do central control
panels typically require?
2
TDMM.* Page 17-46
117
What is the benefit of
providing a lockable-on
feature for the central
control panel in an
FA system?
It helps prevent
inadvertent switching.
TDMM.* Page 17-46
118
Name 6 examples of
FA system interfaces.
1 .Security systems and door EAC
2.Fire-sprinkling systems
3.Building automation systems
4.Heating and ventilation systems
5.Elevator systems
6.Smoke zone fire-rated door
releases
TDMM.* Page 17-47
119
When are remote control
panels for an FA system
referred to as
"NAC panels"?
When they are used solely as
power supplies for alarm-
indicating devices
TDMM.* Page 17-48
120
When is a remote panel for
an FA system referred to as
a "remote annunciator"?
When the panel only contains
equipment for providing alarm,
supervisory, and trouble
indications to personnel who are
responsible for operating and
maintaining the system
TDMM.* Page 17-48
121
Name 7 systems that
use a DACS unit.
1 .Central station intrusion detection
system
2.Proprietary burglar alarm systems
3.Police station connected intrusion
detection system
4.Residential burglar alarm systems
5.Fire-protective signaling systems
6.Residential fire warning systems
7.Home health care medical alert systems
TDMM.* Page 17-49
122
Name 4 abilities of a DACT.
1 .Obtain a phone line dial tone
2.Dial a pre-assigned number for
the DACR
3.Receive confirmation from the
DACR that it can receive a signal
4. Transmit the signal to the DACR
TDMM.* Page 17-49
123
What is the maximum
amount of time permitted
for a DACT to perform
its function?
90 seconds per attempt
TDMM.* Page 17-49
124
What happens to an
incoming telephone call
when the DACT seizes
the line?
The call is disconnected.
TDMM.* Page 17-49
125
What happens if a
building's occupant
attempts to place a call
after the DACT has seized
the line?
The call will not be able
to be completed.
TDMM.* Page 17-49
126
What is the minimum
number of attempts that
the DACT will make to
make a connection and
transmit the signal?
5
TDMM.* Page 17-49
127
What happens if a DACT
fails to make a connection
after 10 attempts?
A failure notification is
made at the FACP.
TDMM.* Page 17-49
128
What is the primary means
of transmission for
a DACT?
A telephone line that is
connected to the public
switched network
TDMM.* Page 17-50
129
How often do the
transmission channels for
a DACT need to be tested?
A minimum of every 24 hours
TDMM.* Page 17-51
130
How often does the call
forwarding feature for a
DACT need to be tested?
Every 4 hours
TDMM.* Page 17-51
131
What transmits the signal
if the DACT fails?
Digital alarm radio transmitter
(DART)
TDMM.* Page 17-52
132
What is the likelihood that a
DART will be able to
successfully complete
each transmission
sequence?
At least 90 percent
TDMM.* Page 17-52
133
How does a DART transmit
a signal to a DARR?
By radio transmission
TDMM.* Page 17-52
134
How often does a DART
initiate and complete a test
signal transmission
to the DARR?
At least every 24 hours
TDMM.* Page 17-52
135
How quickly may a spare
DACR be switched into the
place of a failed unit?
Within 30 seconds after the
detection of failure
TDMM.* Page 17-52
136
How many DACRs can a
spare DACR serve?
Up to 5
TDMM.* Page 17-52
137
How many incoming
telephone lines are
permitted per DACR?
8
TDMM.* Page 17-52
138
What is the minimum
number of incoming
telephone lines for a DACR
at a supervising station?
2
TDMM: Page 17-52
139
Name 3 functions of the
annunciator panel.
1 .Announces that the alarm condition
has been activated
2.Enables responding personnel to
identify the location of the activated
alarm quickly and accurately
3.1ndicates the status of emergency
equipment or fire safety functions
that might affect the safety of
building occupants in a fire event
TDMM.* Page 17-53
140
Name 4 common features
of a simple annunciator
standard display panel.
1 .Alphanumeric display
2.Alarm acknowledges switch
3.Silence switch
4.Advanced functions
TDMM.* Page 17-54
141
What is the purpose of a
graphical display in an
annunciator panel?
To aid in determining the exact
location of trouble or alarm
conditions within the building
TDMM.* Page 17-54
142
Name 4 ways signals
are transmitted to
the annunciator.
1 .Hardwired copper conductors
using the FA protocol, usually
proprietary in nature
2. The system network connection
3.Wireless connections
4.A combination of hardwired
copper conductors, system
network connections, and
wireless connections
TDMM.* Page 17-55
143
How are zones
typically set up?
By floor or specific areas
TDMM.* Page 17-55
144
What is the purpose of an
area of refuge and rescue
two-way communication
system?
To allow people who cannot
access paths of egress to
summon help
TDMM.* Page 17-56
145
What should be posted
next to the call station for
an area of refuge
and rescue?
*Instructions for use of the area
under emergency conditions
*Directions for using the system
*Instructions on calling for
assistance via the call station
*The call station's location
TDMM.* Page 17-56
146
True or False
The base call station can
terminate a call from the
call station in an area of
refuge and rescue.
True. The base call station
can terminate a call.
TDMM.* Page 17-57
147
Name 3 types of refuge and
rescue two-way systems.
1 .Analog
2.Voice over Internet Protocol
(VoIP) with external power
3.VoIP with Power over Ethernet
(POE)
TDMM.* Page 17-57
148
How should areas of refuge
and rescue be identified?
With illuminated signs
TDMM.* Page 17-58
149
What types of incidents are
announced on a mass
notification and emergency
communication system?
*Weather-related activities
*Human-related activities
*Fire-related activities
TDMM.* Page 17-59
150
Name 5 inputs into the
MNEC system.
1 .Fire alarm (audio feed only)
2.Audio/music feeds
3.Network interfaces
4.Microphone
5. Telephone
TDMM.* Page 17-59
151
Name 4 outputs from the
MNEC system.
1 .Speakers
2.DigitaI signage devices
3.Electronic messaging
4.Lights/strobes
TDMM: Page 17-59
152
Name 3 criteria to consider
when designing the
MNEC system.
1 .Getting to the intended
audience
2.Message receipts
3.Operational performances
TDMM.* Page 17-60
153
Where should the "all clear"
message be delivered?
At the muster point
TDMM.* Page 17-60
154
What Speech Transmission
Index rating must be
achieved to meet
intelligibility requirements?
A rating of 0.5 or greater
TDMM.* Page 17-60
155
Why is a back-loop
mechanism a critical
component of the
MNEC system?
It ensures signal delivery in the
event that the system is
compromised.
TDMM.* Page 17-61
