Chapter 13 Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following terms is used to describe a balance of all body systems?
Hypothermia
Perfusion
Diffusion
Homeostasis
A
Homeostasis
2
Q
You arrive on scene to find a conscious 58-year-old woman sitting up and reporting severe chest pain and shortness of breath. She is anxious and tells you she feels like she is going to die. Physical examination shows that her skin is pale, cool, and clammy and her pulse is rapid, weak, and irregular. Her breathing is labored, with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min. Her SpO2 is 90%. Lung sounds show crackles in all fields. Blood pressure is 92/60 mm Hg. What is your differential diagnosis of this patient?
Hypovolemic shock
Septic shock
Cardiogenic shock
Neurogenic shock
A
Cardiogenic shock
3
Q
You are treating a patient presenting with labored breathing, absent peripheral pulses, and dilated pupils. These are indications of what?
Compensated shock
Decompensated shock
Irreversible shock
Psychogenic shock
A
Decompensated shock
4
Q
Which of the following is indicated in almost every type of shock?
Get ALS assistance.
Place the patient in a supine position.
Administer high-flow oxygen.
Control bleeding.
A
Administer high-flow oxygen
5
Q
Distributive shock is the result of which of the following?
Pump failure
Poor vessel function
Low fluid volume
Rapid deoxygenation
A
Poor vessel function
6
Q
What is perfusion?
The flow of blood through body tissues and vessels
A passive process in which molecules move from an area with a higher concentration of molecules to an area of lower concentration
The force or resistance against which the heart pumps
The presence of abnormally large amounts of fluid between cells in body tissues, causing swelling of the affected area
A
The flow of blood through body tissues and vessels
7
Q
What is generally the best position to place a patient with cardiogenic shock?
Supine
Fowler
Sitting/semi-sitting
Left lateral recumbent
A
Sitting/semi-sitting
8
Q
Which of the following is the last measureable factor to change in shock?
Heart rate
Blood pressure
Oxygenation
Level of consciousness
A
Blood pressure
9
Q
Which of the following is a potentially severe complication of neurogenic shock?
Pulmonary embolism
Syncope
Hypothermia
Dehydration
A
Hypothermia
Due to peripheral vasodilation caused by dysregulation of the nervous system. Usually caused by spinal cord injury.
10
Q
When treating a patient in shock from any cause, what is the first thing you should do?
Control life-threatening hemorrhage with direct pressure or tourniquet application.
Maintain normal body temperature.
Provide high-flow oxygen.
Open and maintain the airway.
A
Open and maintain the airway.
11
Q
Loss of water from the tissues of the body.
A
dehydration
12
Q
Shock caused by a sudden, temporary reduction in blood supply to the brain that causes fainting (syncope).
A
psychogenic shock
13
Q
The late stage of shock when blood pressure is falling.
A
decompensated shock
14
Q
A balance of all systems of the body.
A
homeostasis
15
Q
Severe shock caused by an allergic reaction.
A
anaphylactic shock
16
Q
Compression of the heart as the result of buildup of blood or other fluid in the pericardial sac, leading to decreased cardiac output.
A
cardiac tamponade
17
Q
Developing a sensitivity to a substance that initially caused no allergic reaction.
A
sensitization
18
Q
A condition in which the internal body temperature falls below 95 degrees F (35 degrees C).
A
hypothermia
19
Q
A swelling or enlargement of the wall of a blood vessel that results from weakening of the vessel wall.
A
aneurysm
20
Q
The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures.
A
pulse pressure
21
Q
The presence of abnormally large amounts of fluid between cells in body tissues, causing swelling of the affected area.
A
edema
22
Q
A condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to maintain normal cellular functions; also called hypoperfusion.
A
shock
23
Q
A state in which not enough oxygen is delivered to the tissues of the body, caused by low output of blood from the heart. It can be a severe complication of a large acute myocardial infarction, as well as other conditions.
A
cardiogenic shock
24
Q
The early stage of shock, in which the body can still compensate for blood loss.
A
compensated shock
25
Circulatory failure caused by paralysis of the nerves that control the size of the blood vessels, leading to widespread dilation; seen in patients with spinal cord injuries.
neurogenic shock
26
A condition that occurs when there is widespread dilation of the small arterioles, small venules, or both.
distributive shock
27
A collection of fluid between the pericardial sac and the myocardium.
pericardial effusion
28
The part of the nervous system that controls the involuntary activities of the body such as the heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion of food.
autonomic nervous system
29
An extreme, life-threatening, systemic allergic reaction that may include shock and respiratory failure.
anaphylaxis
30
Shock caused by severe infection, usually a bacterial infection.
septic shock
31
A blood clot that breaks off from a large vein and travels to the blood vessels of the lung, causing obstruction of blood flow.
pulmonary embolism
32
The ability of the heart muscle to contract.
myocardial contractility
33
The flow of blood through body tissues and vessels.
perfusion
34
A fainting spell or transient loss of consciousness.
syncope
35
Muscles that encircle and, by contracting, constrict a duct, tube, or opening. Examples are found within the rectum, bladder, and blood vessels.
sphincters
36
Shock that occurs when there is a block to blood flow in the heart or great vessels, causing an insufficient blood supply to the body’s tissues.
obstructive shock
37
A blue skin discoloration that is caused by a reduced level of oxygen in the blood. Although paleness, or a decrease in blood flow, can be difficult to detect in dark-skinned people, it may be observed by examining mucous membranes inside the inner lower eyelid and capillary refill. On general observation, the patient may appear ashen or gray.
cyanosis
38
The force or resistance against which the heart pumps.
afterload
39
A condition in which low blood volume, due to massive internal or external bleeding or extensive loss of body water, results in inadequate perfusion.
hypovolemic shock
40
A condition in which low blood volume, due to massive internal or external bleeding or extensive loss of body water, results in inadequate perfusion.
preload
41
The term “shock” is MOST accurately defined as:
a decreased supply of oxygen to the brain.
cardiovascular collapse leading to inadequate perfusion.
decreased circulation of blood within the venous circulation.
decreased function of the respiratory system leading to hypoxia
cardiovascular collapse leading to inadequate perfusion
42
Anaphylactic shock is typically associated with:
urticaria.
bradycardia.
localized welts.
a severe headache.
urticaria
43
Signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT:
restlessness or anxiety.
pale, cool, clammy skin.
a feeling of impending doom.
weak or absent peripheral pulses.
weak or absent peripheral pulses
44
When treating a trauma patient who is in shock, LOWEST priority should be given to:
spinal protection.
thermal management.
splinting fractures.
notifying the hospital.
splinting fractures
45
Potential causes of cardiogenic shock include all of the following, EXCEPT:
inadequate heart function.
disease of muscle tissue.
severe bacterial infection.
impaired electrical system.
severe bacterial infection
46
A 60-year-old woman presents with a BP of 80/60 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 110 beats/min, mottled skin, and a temperature of 103.9°F. She is MOST likely experiencing:
septic shock.
neurogenic shock.
profound heart failure.
a severe viral infection.
septic shock
47
A patient with neurogenic shock would be LEAST likely to present with:
tachypnea.
hypotension.
tachycardia.
altered mentation.
tachycardia
In neurogenic shock, the nerves that control the sympathetic nervous system are compromised. The nervous system is responsible for secreting the hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine, which increase the patient’s heart rate, constrict the peripheral vasculature, and shunt blood to the body’s vital organs. Without the release of these hormones, the compensatory effects of tachycardia and peripheral vasoconstriction are absent.
48
A 20-year-old man was kicked numerous times in the abdomen during an assault. His abdomen is rigid and tender, his heart rate is 120 beats/min, and his respirations are 30 breaths/min. You should treat this patient for:
a lacerated liver.
a ruptured spleen.
respiratory failure.
hypovolemic shock.
hypovolemic shock
49
A 33-year-old woman presents with a generalized rash, facial swelling, and hypotension approximately 10 minutes after being stung by a hornet. Her BP is 70/50 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. In addition to high-flow oxygen, this patient is in MOST immediate need of:
epinephrine.
rapid transport.
an antihistamine.
IV fluids.
epinephrine
50
All of the following are potential causes of impaired tissue perfusion, EXCEPT:
increased number of red blood cells.
pump failure.
low fluid volume.
poor vessel function.
increased number of red blood cells
51
Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:
A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.
B. a complete cessation of respiratory effort.
C. a marked increase in the exhalation phase.
D.labored breathing with reduced tidal volume.
A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.
52
In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?
A. alveoli
B. trachea
C. bronchi
D. capillaries
A. alveoli
53
The two processes that occur during respiration are:
A. ventilation and diffusion.
B. inspiration and expiration.
C. diffusion and oxygenation.
D. oxygenation and ventilation.
B. inspiration and expiration.
54
In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:
A. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen.
B. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion.
C. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed.
D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
55
In a healthy individual, the brain stem stimulates breathing on the basis of:
A. increased oxygen levels.
B. decreased oxygen levels.
In a healthy individual, the brain stem stimulates breathing on the basis of:
A. increased oxygen levels.
B. decreased oxygen levels.
C. increased carbon dioxide levels.
D. decreased carbon dioxide levels.
C. increased carbon dioxide levels.
56
When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal:
A. the brain stem inhibits respirations.
B. respirations increase in rate and depth.
C. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation.
D. respirations decrease in rate and depth.
B. respirations increase in rate and depth.
57
Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?
A. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis
B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor
C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin
C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
58
An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with:
A. an obstructed airway.
B. adequate air exchange.
C. respiratory difficulty.
D. respiratory insufficiency.
B. adequate air exchange.
59
Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is MOST correct?
A. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels.
B. Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive.
C. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals.
D. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive.
A. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels.
60
When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient with a chronic lung disease, you should:
A. recall that most patients with chronic lung diseases are stimulated to breathe by increased carbon dioxide levels.
B. adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations.
C. begin with a low oxygen flow rate, even if the patient is unresponsive, because high-flow oxygen may depress his or her breathing.
D. avoid positive-pressure ventilation because the majority of patients with chronic lung disease are at increased risk for lung trauma.
B. adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations.
61
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND), rales, and dependent edema are clinical indicators of:
A. emphysema.
B. severe pneumonia.
C. bronchitis or asthma.
D. congestive heart failure.
D. congestive heart failure.
62
Which of the following conditions would LEAST likely result in hypoxia?
A. pleural effusion
B. severe anxiety
C. pulmonary edema
D. prolonged seizures
B. severe anxiety
63
Which of the following statements regarding severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is correct?
A.Multiple bacteria have been identified as being the cause of SARS.
B. SARS is most commonly transmitted by direct contact with blood.
C. The onset of SARS is typically marked by acute, severe pneumonia.
D. SARS is a viral infection that often begins with flulike symptoms.
D. SARS is a viral infection that often begins with flulike symptoms.
64
Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of:
A.right-sided heart failure.
B. severe hyperventilation.
C. toxic chemical inhalation.
D. an upper airway infection.
C. toxic chemical inhalation.
65
Weakening of the airway in patients with chronic bronchitis is the result of:
A. destruction of protective mechanisms that remove foreign particles.
B. loss of the lubricating substance that facilitates alveolar expansion.
C. airway irritation caused by a marked decrease in mucus production.
D. acute constriction of the bronchioles caused by an external irritant.
A. destruction of protective mechanisms that remove foreign particles.
66
The respiratory distress that accompanies emphysema is caused by:
A. repeated exposure to cigarette smoke.
B. chronic stretching of the alveolar walls.
C. massive constriction of the bronchioles.
D. acute fluid accumulation in the alveoli.
B. chronic stretching of the alveolar walls.
67
Asthma is caused by a response of the:
A. immune system.
B. endocrine system.
C. respiratory system.
D. cardiovascular system.
A. immune system.
68
At the onset of an acute asthma attack, patients commonly experience difficulty breathing and:
A. audible stridor.
B. rales and rhonchi.
C. profound cyanosis.
D. expiratory wheezing.
D. expiratory wheezing.
69
Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct?
A. Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis.
B. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension.
C. Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes after exposure.
D. The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction.
B. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension.
70
A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him 100% oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is:
A. albuterol.
B. epinephrine.
C. an antihistamine.
D. a beta-antagonist.
B. epinephrine.
71
A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition?
A. rupture of the diaphragm
B. exacerbation of his COPD
C. acute pulmonary embolism
D. spontaneous pneumothorax
D. spontaneous pneumothorax
72
A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:
A. a unilaterally collapsed lung.
B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli.
C. fluid accumulation outside the lung.
D. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue.
C. fluid accumulation outside the lung.
73
You are dispatched to a residence for a 67-year-old female who was awakened by shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. This patient's presentation is MOST consistent with:
A. acute pulmonary edema.
B. right-sided heart failure.
C. acute pulmonary embolism.
D. spontaneous pneumothorax.
C. acute pulmonary embolism.
74
Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. a narcotic overdose.
B. a respiratory infection.
C. an overdose of aspirin.
D. high blood glucose levels.
A. a narcotic overdose.
75
A young female is unconscious after intentionally ingesting a large amount of aspirin. You will MOST likely find her respirations:
A. slow and deep.
B. deep and rapid.
C. slow and shallow.
D. rapid and shallow.
B. deep and rapid.
76
Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when:
A. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing.
B. dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream.
C. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases.
D. slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide.
A. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing.
77
Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include:
A. altered mental status and bradycardia.
B. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech.
C. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea.
D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.
D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.
78
A 60-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. He is conscious and alert, has pink and dry skin, and has respirations of 24 breaths/min with adequate depth. Which of the following treatment modalities is MOST appropriate for this patient?
A. assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device and a head-to-toe exam
B. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and a focused secondary assessment
C. positive-pressure ventilations and immediate transport to the closest hospital
D. oxygen via a nasal cannula, vital signs, and prompt transport to the hospital
B. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and a focused secondary assessment
79
You receive a call for a 70-year-old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think that she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should:
A. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
B. apply a pulse oximeter and obtain vital signs.
C. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
D. obtain a complete list of all of her medications.
A. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
80
When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has:
A. normal breath sounds.
B. abnormal breath sounds.
C. diminished breath sounds.
D. an absence of breath sounds.
B. abnormal breath sounds.
81
When assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should:
A. note the presence of a high-pitched whistling sound, which is an indicator of fluid in the lungs.
B. pay special attention to the exhalation phase since this is when you will likely hear rales or rhonchi.
C. auscultate the posterior chest first and compare the apex of one lung to the base of the opposite lung.
D. start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds.
D. start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds.
82
While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. With which of the following conditions is this finding MOST consistent?
A. acute asthma attack
B.widespread atelectasis
C. aspiration pneumonia
D. early pulmonary edema
C. aspiration pneumonia
83
Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of:
A. rales.
B. stridor.
C. rhonchi.
D. wheezing.
B. stridor.
84
A conscious and alert 29-year-old female with a history of asthma complains of difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40°F (5°C). On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing 100% oxygen, you should:
A. place her in a recumbent position to facilitate breathing.
B. contact medical control and administer an antihistamine.
C. call medical control and ask how to proceed with treatment.
D. determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.
D. determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.
85
Which of the following statements regarding pulse oximetry is correct?
A. The pulse oximeter is a valuable assessment tool that measures the percentage of red blood cells that contain hemoglobin molecules.
B. Caution must be exercised when using the pulse oximeter on a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning because falsely low readings are common.
C. Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen, but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood.
D. Most otherwise healthy patients can maintain adequate oxygenation and good skin color with oxygen saturation readings as low as 70% to 80%.
C. Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen, but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood.
86
You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should:
A. insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning.
B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once.
C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation.
D. place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting.
D. place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting.
87
Albuterol is a generic name for:
A. Alupent.
B. Atrovent.
C. Proventil.
D. Singulair.
C. Proventil.
88
You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should:
A. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.
B. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition.
C. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption.
D. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation.
A. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.
89
A 22-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should:
A. have her breathe into a paper or plastic bag.
B. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed.
C. request a paramedic to give her a sedative drug.
D. position her on her left side and transport at once.
B. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed.
90
A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should:
A. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing.
B. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.
C. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-mask device at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min.
D. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and high-flow oxygen.
B. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.
91
1. A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He's holding a bloodsoaked towel over the world, but it continues to be rapidly. You should
Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist
92
2. A 59-year-old male presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea for three days duration. He is confused and diaphoretic, and his radial pulse are absent. His blood pressure is 78/50mmHg.After applying supplemental oxygen, you should
Prepare for immediate transport
93
3. Patient developed septic shock secondary to
Poor vessel function and severe volume loss
94
4. Construction worker fell approximately 30 feet. He is semi conscious with rapid, shallow respirations. Further assessment reveals deformity to the thoracic region of his spine. His blood pressure is 70/50mmHg, his pulse is 66 bpm and weak, and his skin is warm and dry. In addition to final immobilization in rapid transport, The most appropriate treatment for this patient includes
Assisted ventilation, thermal management, and elevation of the lower extremities
95
5. Can you respond to a residence for a patient with severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately, however, yes restless in the skin is diaphoretic you should
Apply direct pressure to the wound
96
6. When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that
Blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in Shock
97
7. A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 90/64 mmHg.Her skin is hot and moist. You should be most suspicious that she is experiencing
Septic shock
98
8. All the following conditions should make you suspect a shot, except
-spinal injury
-severe infection
-anaphylaxis
-Ischemic stroke
Ischemic stroke
99
9. Capillary sphincters are:
circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries.
100
10. Cardiogenic shock may result from all the following, except
—Increased pre-load
-Increased afterload
-Poor contractility
-Heart attack
Increased preload
101
11. Clinical signs of compensated shock include all the following, except
-cool and clammy skin
-restlessness or anxiety
-rapid, shallow breathing
-Absent peripheral pulses
Absent peripheral pulses
102
12. Distributive shock occurs when
widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.
103
13. Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is a result of a loss of
Plasma
104
14. In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by:
Hypothermia
105
15. Neurogenic shock occurs when
Failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation
106
16. One of the primary waste products of normal sailing metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is
Carbon dioxide
107
17. Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during
Cardiogenic shock
108
18. Shock is the result of
hypoperfusion to the cells of the body.
109
19. To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as
The skin
110
20. Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?
-wheezing
-dizziness
-hypotension
-pallor
wheezing
111
21. Which of the following injuries would most likely cause obstructive shock?
-liver laceration
-simple pneumothorax
-cardiac tamponade
-spinal cord injury
Cardiac tamponade
112
22. Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock?
-23 yo restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia
-28yo female with pale skin and rapid, shallow reparations
-20yo female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils
-32yo male with anxiety and a systolic blood pressure of 110mmHg
20yo female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils
113
23. Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct
-sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure
-anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen
-anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure
-subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction
Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction
114
24. Which of the following works most likely result in hemorrhagic shock?
-excessive sweating
-liver laceration
-repeated diarrhea
-severe vomiting
-liver laceration
115
25. Which of the following is the only action that can prevent death from a tension pneumothorax?
-decompression of the injured side of the chest
-positive pressure ventilation with a bvm
-rapid administration of IV fluids
-early administration of high flow oxygen
Decompression of the injured side of the chest
