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Medical Terminology 2 > Chapter 11 (Vocabulary) Eye > Flashcards

Chapter 11 (Vocabulary) Eye Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Oculus
OD
OS
OU

A 
Eye, plural is oculi
oculus dexter (right eye)
oculus sinister (left eye)
oculus uterque (both eyes)
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2
Q

The accessory or adjoining anatomical parts of an organ.

Accessory or adjoining anatomical parts of the eye are the structures outside the eyeball, including: (6).

A

Adnexa (ad-NECK-sah) - term is plural

Orbit, eye muscles, eyelids, eyelashes, conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus.

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3
Q

Healthcare practitioner who designs, fits & dispenses lenses for vision correction.

A

optician

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4
Q

A physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating the full spectrum of diseases and disorders of the eyes, from vision correction to eye surgery.

A

ophthalmologist

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5
Q

Holds a doctor of optometry degree & provides primary eye care, including diagnosing eye diseases and conditions, and measuring the accuracy of vision to determine whether corrective lenses are needed.

A

optometrist

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6
Q

Drooping of the upper eyelid that is usually due to paralysis.

A

ptosis [The term blepharoptosis has the same meaning.]

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7
Q

A nodule or cyst, usually on the upper eyelid caused by obstruction of the sebaceous gland. It is a type of granuloma.

A

chalazion

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8
Q

The eversion (turning outward) of the edge of an eyelid. This usually affects the lower lid, thereby exposing the inner surface of the eyelid to irritation & preventing tears from draining properly.

A

ectropion

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9
Q

The inversion (turning inward) of the edge of an eyelid. This usually affects the lower eyelid and causes the eyelashes to rub against the cornea.

A

entropion

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10
Q

Also known as a stye, is a pus-filled & often painful lesion on the eyelid resulting from an acute infection in a sebaceous gland.

A

hordeolum

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11
Q

Swelling of the tissues surrounding the eye or eyes. This can give the face a bloated appearance & cause the eyes to be partially covered by the swollen eyelids. This swelling is associated w/ conditions such as allergic reactions, nephrotic syndrome, or cellulitis.

A

periorbital edema

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12
Q

Aka, pinkeye, is an inflammation of the conjunctiva that is usually caused by an infection or allergy.

A

conjunctivitus (CI)

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13
Q

An inflammation of the lacrimal gland caused by bacteria, viral, or fungal infection. Signs & symptoms of this condition include sudden severe pain, redness, & pressure in the orbit of the eye.

A

dacryoadenitis

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14
Q

The bleeding between the conjunctiva and the sclera. This condition, which is usually causes by an injury, creates a red area over the white of the eye.

A

subconjunctival hemorrhage

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15
Q

Aka, dry eye, is drying of eye surfaces, including conjunctiva. This condition is often associated with aging. It can also be due to systemic diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis or to lack of vitamin A.

A

xerophthalmia

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16
Q

Inflammation of the uvea causing swelling and irritation. It can potentially lead to blindness.

A

uveitis [Uvea is the pigmented layer of the eye. It has a rich blood supply & consists of the choroid, ciliary body, and iris.]

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17
Q

This inflammation of the uvea affects primarily structures in the front of the eye. This condition has a sudden onset & may last 6-8 weeks.

A

iritis [Most common form of uveitis]

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18
Q

An injury, such as a scratch or irritation, to the outer layers of the cornea.

A

corneal abrasion

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19
Q

A pitting of the cornea caused by an infection or injury. Although these ulcers heal with treatment, they can leave a cloudy scar that impairs vision.

A

corneal ulcer

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20
Q

Damage to the retina as a complication of uncontrolled diabetes.

A

diabetic retinopathy

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21
Q

Inflammation of the cornea. This condition can be due to many causes, including bacterial, viral, or fungal infections.

A

keratitis

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22
Q

Inflammation of the sclera. This condition is usually associated with infections, chemical injuries, or autoimmune diseases.

A

scleritis

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23
Q

A condition in which the pupils are unequal in size. This condition can be congenital or caused by a head injury, aneurysm, or pathology of the central nervous system.

A

anisocoria

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24
Q

The loss of transparency of the lens that causes a progressive loss of visual clarity. The formation of this condition is associated with aging; however, this condition can be congenital or due to an injury or disease.

A

cataract (CAT)

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25
Q

Particles of cellular debris that float in the vitreous humor and cast shadows on the retina. Occur normally with aging or in association with retinal detachment, retinal tears, or intraocular inflammation.

A

floaters, aka vitreous floaters

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26
Q

Presence of what appears to be flashes of light, or flashers. These are often caused by damage to the eye or migraine headaches.

A

photopsia

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27
Q

The contraction of the pupil, normally in response to exposure to light, but also possibly due to the use of prescription or illegal drugs.

A

miosis

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28
Q

The dilation of the pupil. The causes may include diseases, trauma (injury), or drugs.

A

mydriasis (opposite of miosis)

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29
Q

An involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyeball that can be congenital or caused by a neurological injury or drug use.

A

nystagmus

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30
Q

Swelling and inflammation of the optic nerve at the point of entrance into the eye through the optic disk. This swelling is causes by increased intracranial pressure & can be due to a tumor pressing on the optic nerve.

A

papilledema, aka choked disk

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31
Q

The separation of some or all of the light-sensitive retina from the choroid. If not treated, the entire retina can detach, causing blindness. These conditions can be caused by a head trauma, aging, or from the vitreous humor separating from the retina.

A

retinal detachment (RD), aka detached retina

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32
Q

Progressive degeneration of the retina that affects night and peripheral vision. It can be detected by the presence of dark pigmented spots in the retina.

A

retinitis pigmentosa

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33
Q

A group of diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure that causes damage to the retinal nerve fibers & the optic nerve. This increase in pressure is caused by a blockage in the flow of fluid out of the eye. If untreated, this pressure can cause the loss of peripheral vision and eventually blindness.

A

glaucoma (G), (glc)

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34
Q

The trabecular meshwork gradually becomes blocked, causing a buildup of pressure. Symptoms of this condition is not notices by the patient until the optic nerve has been damaged; however, it can be detected earlier through regular eye examinations, including tonometry and visual field testing.

A

open-angle glaucoma, aka chronic glaucoma [most common form of glaucoma]

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35
Q

The opening btw the cornea and iris narrows so that fluid cannot reach the trabecular meshwork. This narrowing can cause a sudden increase in the intraocular pressure that produces severe pain, nausea, redness of the eye, and blurred vision. W/out immediate treatment, blindness can occur in as little as two days.

A

closed-angle glaucoma, aka acute glaucoma

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36
Q

A gradually progressive condition in which the macula at the center of the retina is damaged, resulting in the loss of central vision, but not in total blindness.

A

macular degeneration (MD)

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37
Q

Type of macular degeneration: occurs most frequently in older people & is the leading cause of legal blindness in those older than age 60.

A

Age-related macular degeneration

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38
Q

Type of macular degeneration: accounts for 90% of these cases, is caused by the slow deteriation of the cells of the macula.

A

Dry macular degeneration

39
Q

Type of macular degeneration: damage to the macula that develops as a complication as the disease progresses. This damage is caused by the formation of new blood vessels that produce small hemorrhages that usually result in rapid and severe vision loss.

A

Wet macular degeneration

40
Q

The perception of two images of a single object. It is sometimes a symptom of a serious underlying disorder such as multiple sclerosis or a brain tumor.

A

diplopia, aka double vision

41
Q

Blindness in one-half of the visual field.

A

hemianopia

42
Q

The inability to distinguish certain colors in a normal manner. This is a genetic condition caused by deficiencies in or the absence of certain types of cones in the retina.

A

monochromatism

43
Q

Is a condition in which an individual with normal daytime vision has difficulty seeing at night.

A

nyctalopia, aka night blindness

44
Q

Excessive sensitivity to light and can be the result of migraines, excessive wearing of contact lenses, drug use, or inflammation.

A

photophobia

45
Q

The condition of common changes in the eyes that occur with aging. With age, near vision declines noticeably as the lens becomes less flexible and the muscles of the ciliary body become weaker. The result is that the eyes are no longer able to focus the image properly on the retina.

A

presbyopia

46
Q

A disorder in which the eyes point in different directions or are not aligned correctly, because the eye muscles are unable to focus together.

A

strabismus

47
Q

A type of strabismus characterized by an INward deviation of one or both eyes.

A

esotropia, aka cross-eyes

48
Q

A type of strabismus characterized by an OUTward deviation of one eye relative to the other.

A

exotropia, aka walleye

49
Q

Focusing problem that occurs when the lens and cornea do not bend light so that it focuses properly on the retina.

A

refractive disorder

50
Q

Any error of refraction in which the images do not focus properly on the retina.

A

ametropia

51
Q

A type of ametropia: A condition in which the eye does not focus properly because uneven curvatures of the cornea.

A

astigmatism (AS)

52
Q

A type of ametropia: Is a defect in which light rays focus beyond the retina. This condition can occur in childhood, but usually causes difficulty after age 40.

A

hyperopia, aka farsightedness

53
Q

A type of ametropia: Is a defect in which light rays focus in front of the retina.

A

myopia, aka nearsightedness [my= greek word for shortsighted]

54
Q

The inability to see.

A

blindness [Although sight remains, legal blindness is the point at which, under law, an individual is considered to be blind. A commonly used standard is that a person is legally blind when his or her best-corrected vision is reduced to 20/200 or less.]

55
Q

A dimness of vision or the partial loss of sight, especially in one eye, without detectable disease of the eye.

A

amblyopia

56
Q

An abnormal area of diminished vision surrounded by an area of normal vision.

A

scotoma, aka blind spot

57
Q

Used to measure visual acuity. The results for each eye are recorded as a fraction with 20/20 being considered normal.

A

Snellen chart (SC) [The first number indicates the standard distance from the chart, which is 20 feet. The second number indicates the deviation from the norm based on the ability to read progressively smaller lines of letters on the chart.]

58
Q

An examination procedure to determine an eye’s refractive error so that the best corrective lenses can be prescribed. This term also refers to the ability of the lens to bend light rays so they focus on the retina.

A

refraction

59
Q

The unit of measurement of a lens’ refractive power.

A

diopter

60
Q

A diagnostic test performed to determine losses in peripheral vision. Peripheral means occurring away from the center.

A

visual field testing [Blank sections in the visual field can be symptomatic of glaucoma or an optic nerve disorder.]

61
Q

Is the use of an ophthalmoscope to visually examine the fundus (back part) of the eye. This examination includes the retina, optic disk, choroid and blood vessels.

A

ophthalmoscopy, aka funduscopy

62
Q

This is required in preparation for the opthalmoscopic examination of the interior of the eye. “Artificial enlargement” of the pupils is achieved through the use of medicated drops.

A

dialation

63
Q

Medication placed into the eyes to produce temporary paralysis, forcing the pupils to remain dilated even in the presence of bright light.

A

mydriatic drops

64
Q

A diagnostic procedure in which a narrow beam of light is focused onto parts of the eye to permit the ophthalmologist to examine the structures at the front of the eye, including the cornea, iris, and lens. Often fluorescein staining is used to help detect foreign bodies or an infected or injured area of the eye.

A

slit-lamp ophthalmoscopy [SLE- Slit-lamp examination]

65
Q

A radiographic study of the blood vessels in the retina of the eye following the intravenous injection of a fluorescein dye as a contrast medium. The resulting picture are used to determine whether there is proper circulation in the retinal vessels.

A

fluorescein angiography (FA), (FAG) [produces an angiogram]

66
Q

What does the acronym PERRLA stand for?

A

Pupils are Equal, Round, Responsive to Light and Accommodation [This diagnostic abbreviation, and any abnormally here could indicate a head injury or damage to the brain.]

67
Q

The surgical incision into the orbit (bony socket). This procedure is performed for biopsy, abscess drainage, or removal of a tumor or foreign object.

A

orbitotomy

68
Q

The partial or complete suturing together of the upper & lower eyelids to protect the eye when the lids are paralyzed and unable to close normally.

A

tarsorrhaphy

69
Q

The surgical replacement of a scarred or diseased cornea with clear corneal tissue from a donor.

A

corneal transplant, aka keratoplasty

70
Q

The removal of an eyeball, leaving the eye muscles intact.

A

enucleation

71
Q

May be fitted to wear over a malformed eye or to replace an eyeball that is either congenitally missing or has been surgically removed.

A

ocular prosthesis, aka artificial eye

72
Q

The surgical removal of a portion of the tissue of the iris. This procedure is performed to treat closed-angle glaucoma.

A

iridectomy

73
Q

The surgical procedure to treat myopia. During the surgery, incisions are made in the cornea to cause it to flatten. These incisions allow the sides of the cornea to bulge outward and thereby flatten the central portion of the cornea. This brings the focal point of the eye closer to the retina and improves distant vision.

A

radial keratotomy (RK)

74
Q

A silicone band or sponge used to repair a detached retina. The detached layers are brought closer together by attaching this band onto the sclera, or outer wall, of the eyeball, creating an indentation or buckle effect inside the eye.

A

scleral buckle

75
Q

The removal of the vitreous humor and its replacement with a clear solution. This procedure is sometimes performed to treat a retinal detachment or when diabetic retinopathy causes blood to leak and cloud the vitreous humor.

A

vitrectomy

76
Q

The general term used to describe the surgical removal of a cataract-clouded lens.

A

lensectomy

77
Q

The use of ultrasonic vibration to shatter and remove the lens clouded by cataract. This is performed through a very small opening, and the same opening is used to slide the intraocular lens into place.

A

phacoemulsification

78
Q

Is the surgical implanted replacement for a natural lens that has been removed.

A

intraocular lens

79
Q

Refractive errors in the eye can often be corrected with lenses that alter the angle of light rays before they reach the cornea.

A

corrective lenses

80
Q

Type of corrective lens used for myopia (nearsightedness):

Corrective lens used for hyperopia (farsightedness):

A 
concave lens (curved inward)
convex lens (curved outward)
81
Q

Refractive lenses that float directly on the tear film in front of the eye. Rigid gas-permeable lenses cover the central part of the cornea, and disposable soft lenses cover the entire cornea.

A

contact lenses

82
Q

Uses a focused beam of light to create a hole in the iris of the eye. This procedure is performed to treat closed-angle glaucoma by creating an opening that allows the aqueous humor to flow btw the anterior and posterior chambers of the anterior segment of the eye.

A

laser iridotomy

83
Q

Used to treat open-angle glaucoma by creating openings in the trabecular meshwork to allow the fluid to drain properly.

A

laser trabeculoplasty

84
Q

Is used to treat vision conditions, such as myopia, that are caused by the shape of the cornea. During this procedure, a flap is opened in the surface of the cornea and then a laser is used to change the shape of a deep corneal layer.

A

LASIK, Laser-Assisted in Situ Ker-atomileusis [in situ means in its original place]

85
Q

The use of a laser to treat some forms of wet macular degeneration by sealing the leaking or damaged blood vessels. This technique is also used to repair small retinal tears by intentionally forming scar tissue to seal the holes.

A

photocoagulation

86
Q

Is used to reattach the detached area in a retinal detachment. Lasers are used to remove clouded tissue that can have formed in the posterior portion of the lens capsule after cataract extraction.

A

retinopexy

87
Q

A type of retinopexy - a gas bubble is injected into the vitreous cavity to put pressure on the area of repair while it heals.

A

pneumatic retinopexy

88
Q

The process whereby the eyes make adjustments for seeing objects at various distances. These adjustments include contraction (narrowing) and dilation (widening) of the pupil, movements of the eyes, and changes in the shape of the lens.

A

accommodation

89
Q

The simultaneous inward movement of the eyes toward each other. This occurs in an effort to maintain single binocular vision as an object comes nearer.

A

convergence

90
Q

The normal relationship btw the refractive power of the eye and the shape of the eye that enables light rays to focus correctly on the retina.

A

emmetropia (EM) (em)

91
Q

The ability of the lens to bend light rays so they focus on the retina.

A

refraction, aka refractive power

92
Q

The ability to distinguish object details and shape at a distance.

A

acuity (means sharpness) [VA= Visual Acuity]

93
Q

The part of a routine eye examination in which intraocular pressure (IOP) is measured.

A

Tonometry

94
Q

An exam of how two eyes work together, used to assess binocular vision. One eye at a time is covered while the patient focuses on an object across room.

A

Cover Test

Medical Terminology 2 (20 decks)

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