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Medical Terminology > Chapter 10: The Musculoskeletal System > Flashcards

Chapter 10: The Musculoskeletal System Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Articulation

A

Place of union between 2 or more bones; also called a joint.

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2
Q

Hematopoiesis

A

Production and development of blood cells, normally in bone marrow.

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3
Q

Ligaments

A

Connective tissue that surrounds the joint capsule to bind bones to other bones.

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4
Q

Tendons

A

Connective tissue that binds muscle to bone on either side of a joint. Contraction of the muscle attached to the bone by the tendon forces the bone in the joint to move.

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5
Q

What is a muscle?

A

Tissue composed of contractile fibers that provide movement to an organ or body part. Their primary responsibility is movement.

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6
Q

3 types of muscle tissue:

A

1) skeletal muscle
2) smooth muscle
3) cardiac muscle

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7
Q

What is skeletal muscle?

A

Attached to bones and provides means for movement. These muscles are voluntary and striated.

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8
Q

Define voluntary muscle:

A

Those that contract and relax in response to conscious thought.

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9
Q

Define striated:

A

Muscle tissue that has a striped appearance.

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10
Q

What is a smooth muscle?

A

Mainly responsible for internal processes, such as digestion, circulation, and urination. Also called visceral muscles and are involuntary.

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11
Q

Define involuntary muscle:

A

Their movement is not under control of conscious thought and functions under the control of the autonomic nervous system.

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12
Q

What is cardiac muscle?

A

Found only in the heart wall; forms the myocardium. It’s striated like skeletal muscles, but involuntary like smooth muscles.

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13
Q

Adduction

A

Move closer to midline.

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14
Q

Abduction

A

Move away from midline.

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15
Q

Flexion

A

Decreases the angle of a joint.

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16
Q

Extension

A

Increases the angle of a joint.

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17
Q

Rotation

A

Moves around its own axis.

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18
Q

Pronation

A

Turns palm downward.

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19
Q

Supination

A

Turns palm upward.

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20
Q

Inversion

A

Moves the sole of the foot inward.

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21
Q

Eversion

A

Moves the sole of the foot outward.

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22
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

Elevates the foot.

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23
Q

Plantar flexion

A

Lowers the foot (points toes)

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24
Q

Functions of bones:

A

1) Provide framework for the body
2) Protect internal organs
3) Allows for movement
4) Stores calcium and other minerals
5) Hematopoiesis
6) Provide points of attachment for muscles, tendons, and ligaments.

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25
Q

Describe and give an example of a short bone:

A

Somewhat cube-shaped, equal in length and width.

Example: carpals and tarsals

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26
Q

Describe and give an example of an irregular bone:

A

Any bones that can’t be classified as short or long because of their complex shapes.

Example: vertebrae and bones of the middle ear.

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27
Q

Describe and give an example of a flat bone:

A

Provide broad surfaces for muscular attachment or protection for internal organs.

Example: bones of the skull, scapulae, and sternum.

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28
Q

Describe and give an example of a long bone:

A

Found in the extremities of the body and have regular well-defined shapes.

Example: femur, humerus.

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29
Q

Diaphysis (of long bones)

A

The shaft of a long bone. Consists of compact bone that surrounds a central canal called the medullary cavity, which is filled with yellow bone marrow.

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30
Q

Epiphyses (2, proximal and distal)

A

The proximal and distal epiphyses are the 2 ends of long bones. They have a bulbous shape that provides points of attachment for muscles, ligaments, and tendons near each joint. Each consists of 3 layers of tissue; Articular cartilage, compact bone, and spongy/cancellous bone.

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31
Q

Articular cartilage:

A

Thin outer layer of the epiphysis where bones meet to form joints.

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32
Q

Epiphyseal line (growth plate)

A

Located in the articular cartilage of bones. This is an area of cartilage constantly being replaced by new bone tissue as bone grows; this calcifies when the bone is fully grown.

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33
Q

Compact bone:

A

thick, dense layer.

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34
Q

Spongy/cancellous bone:

A

Inner layer of porous tissue that’s filled with red bone marrow.

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35
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

Dense, white, fibrous membrane that covers the remaining surface of the bone. Contains numerous blood/lymph vessels and nerves. Contains osteoblasts. Provides means for bone repair and general bone nutrition.

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36
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Bone forming cells.

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37
Q

Trochanter

A

Large, irregularly-shaped process only found on the femur.

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38
Q

Tubercle

A

Small, rounded process.

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39
Q

Tuberosity

A

Large, rounded process.

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40
Q

Condyle

A

Rounded, articulating knob

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41
Q

Head

A

Prominent, rounded articulating end of a bone.

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42
Q

Foramen

A

Rounded opening through a bone to accommodate blood vessels and nerves.

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43
Q

Fissure

A

Narrow, slit-like opening.

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44
Q

Meatus

A

Opening or passage into a bone.

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45
Q

Sinus

A

Cavity, or hollow space in a bone.

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46
Q

How many bones are in the adult skeleton?

A

206

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47
Q

What are the 2 divisions of the skeletal system?

A

Axial and Appendicular skeleton.

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48
Q

3 regions of the axial skeleton:

A

Skull, rib cage, vertebral column.

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49
Q

What are sutures?

A

Lines of junction between bones that are usually immovable.

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50
Q

Cranial bones (8):

A 
Frontal bone
Parietal bones (2)
Occipital bone
Temporal bones (2)
Sphenoid bone
Ethmoid bone
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51
Q

What are fontanels?

A

Fibrous membranes that connect the cranial bones in an undeveloped skull. These enable infants to pass more easily through the birth canal.

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52
Q

Frontal bone:

A

Forms the anterior portion of the skull (forehead), and the roof of the orbits.

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53
Q

Parietal bones (2):

A

Situated on each side of the skull just behind the frontal bone, and form the upper sides and roof of the cranium.

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54
Q

Coronal sutures:

A

Where the frontal bone meets the parietal bones.

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55
Q

Occipital bone:

A

Forms the back and base of the skull, and contains an opening in the base through which the spinal cord passes.

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56
Q

Temporal bones (2):

A

Form the lower part of the cranium. These have an irregular shape that contain various cavities and recesses associated with the inner ear.

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57
Q

Mastoid process

A

Downward projection of the temporal bone that provides a point of attachment for neck muscles.

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58
Q

Sphenoid bone

A

Located in the middle part of the base of the skull, and forms a central wedge that connects all other cranial bones.

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59
Q

Ethmoid bone

A

Anterior, located between the nasal cavity and parts of the orbits of the eyes.

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60
Q

Mandible

A

Lower jaw bone; only movable facial bone not joined by sutures. This movement is necessary for speaking and mastication. Contains sockets for the roots of teeth.

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61
Q

Maxillae (2), singular maxilla

A

Paired upper jaw bones that are fused together by sutures. Forms the hard palate of the mouth and contains pockets for the roots of teeth.

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62
Q

Cleft palate:

A

Deformity that occurs when the maxillae don’t fuse properly .

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63
Q

Nasal bones (2)

A

Thin, almost rectangular; lay side by side and are fused medially to form the bridge of the nose.

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64
Q

Lacrimal bones (2)

A

Located at the inner corner of each eye and unite to form the groove for the lacrimal sac and canals for tears to pass into the nasal cavity.

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65
Q

Zygomatic bones (2):

A

Cheekbones; Located on the sides of the face below the eyes to form the higher portion of the cheeks.

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66
Q

Vomer

A

Single, thin bone that forms the lower part of the nasal septum.

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67
Q

Paranasal sinuses:

A

Cavities located in the facial and cranial bones; named after the bones in which they’re located.

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68
Q

Thorax

A

Refers to the entire chest; includes the heart and lungs, which are enclosed by the thoracic cage (rib cage).

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69
Q

How many total pairs of ribs are there?

A

12

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70
Q

What are false ribs?

A

Ribs 8-12 that aren’t fastened directly to the sternum with costal cartilage.

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71
Q

What are floating ribs?

A

Ribs 11 and 12; are not attached to the sternum at all.

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72
Q

What’s the vertebral column?

A

Composed of 26 vertebrae that protect the spinal cord.

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73
Q

What are the 4 curvatures of the spine?

A

1) Cervical
2) Thoracic
3) Lumbar
4) Sacral

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74
Q

Cervical vertebrae (7)

A

form the skeletal framework of the neck

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75
Q

What’s the atlas?

A

1st cervical vertebra that supports the skull.

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76
Q

What’s the axis?

A

2nd cervical vertebra that makes rotation of the skull on the neck possible.

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77
Q

Thoracic vertebrae (12)

A

Support the chest and serve as a point of articulation for the ribs.

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78
Q

Lumber vertebrae (5)

A

Situated in the low back and carry most of the weight of the torso.

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79
Q

Sacral vertebra (1)

A

Composed of 5 vertebrae fused into 1 bone.

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80
Q

Coccyx

A

Also called the tail of the vertebral column; consists of 4-5 fragmented fused vertebrae.

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81
Q

Intervertebral discs

A

A fibrocartilaginous substance with a gelatinous mass in the center (nucleus pulposus).

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82
Q

What is the appendicular skeleton?

A

Consists of the bones of the upper and lower limbs and their girdles, which attach the limbs to the axial skeleton.

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83
Q

What 2 bones make up the pectoral girdle?

A

clavicle and scapula; also known as the shoulder girdle.

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84
Q

Medical word for collarbone:

A

clavicle

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85
Q

Medical word for shoulder blade:

A

Scapula(e)

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86
Q

What is the name of the upper arm bone?

A

Humerus

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87
Q

What are the 2 bones of the forearm?

A

Radius (thumb side) and ulna (pinky side)

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88
Q

What is the medical term for bones of the wrist?

A

Carpals

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89
Q

What is the medical name for bones of the hand?

A

Metacarpals

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90
Q

What is the medical term for the bones of the fingers/toes?

A

phalanges

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91
Q

What is the pelvic girdle?

A

Also known as the hip bone; basin-shaped structure that attaches the lower limbs to the axial skeleton. Male and female pelves differ in size and shape, but have the same basic structure.

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92
Q

What are the 3 parts of the pelvis?

A

Ilium, ischium, and pubis.

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93
Q

Acetabulum

A

Deep socket of the hip joint.

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94
Q

What is the symphysis pubis?

A

Area where the 2 pubic bones meet medially and are joined by sutures.

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95
Q

Medical term for the thigh bone:

A

Femur; largest, strongest, and longest bone in the body.

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96
Q

2 bones of the lower leg:

A

Tibia and fibula

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97
Q

Medical term for the kneecap:

A

Patella; small triangular bone anterior to the knee joint.

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98
Q

Medical term for bones of the ankle:

A

Tarsals (7)

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99
Q

Medical term for long bones of the foot:

A

Metatarsals (5)

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100
Q

How many phalanges are in the toes?

A

24

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101
Q

What surrounds a joint?

A

Joint capsule

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102
Q

What is the joint capsule filled with?

A

Synovial fluid that nourishes and protects the joint.

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103
Q

What are the 3 types of joints?

A

Diarthroses, amphiarthroses, and synarthroses.

104
Q

Diarthroses:

A

Freely movable joints that are encased in a sleeve-like extension of the periosteum

Example: elbow joint

105
Q

Amphiarthroses:

A

Slightly movable joints; articulations between 2 bones connected by ligaments or elastic cartilage.

Example: vertebral joints

106
Q

Synarthroses:

A

Immovable joints; have no mobility.

Example: Sutures of the skull.

107
Q

leiomy/o

A

Smooth (visceral) muscle

leiomy/oma: tumor of the smooth muscle

108
Q

muscul/o

my/o

A

muscle

109
Q

rhabd/o

A

rod-shaped; striated

110
Q

rhabdomy/o

A

rod-shaped; striated muscle

111
Q

brachi/o

A

arm

112
Q

carp/o

A

carpus (wrist bone)

113
Q

cephal/o

A

head

114
Q

cervic/o

A

neck; cervix uteri (neck of the uterus)

115
Q

calvicul/o

A

clavicle

116
Q

cost/o

A

ribs

117
Q

crani/o

A

cranium (skull)

118
Q

dactyl/o

A

fingers; toes

119
Q

humer/o

A

humerus

120
Q

metacarp/o

A

metacarpals

121
Q

phalang/o

A

phalanges

122
Q

radi/o

A

radius

123
Q

spondyl/o

vertebr/o

A

vertebra(e)

124
Q

stern/o

A

sternum

125
Q

thorac/o

A

chest

126
Q

calcane/o

A

calcaneum

127
Q

femor/o

A

femur

128
Q

fibul/o

A

fibula

129
Q

ili/o

A

ilium

130
Q

ischi/o

A

ischium

131
Q

lumb/o

A

loins (low back

132
Q

metatars/o

A

metatarsals

133
Q

patell/o

A

patella

134
Q

pelv/i

pelv/o

A

pelvis

135
Q

pod/o

A

foot

136
Q

pub/o

A

pubis

137
Q

tibi/o

A

tibia

138
Q

ankyl/o

A

stiffness; bent, crooked

139
Q

arthr/o

A

joint

140
Q

chondr/o

A

cartilage

141
Q

fasci/o

A

fascia

142
Q

fibr/o

A

band; fascia (fibrous membrane supporting and separating muscles.

143
Q

kyph/o

A

humpback

144
Q

lamin/o

A

lamina

145
Q

lord/o

A

curve; swayback

146
Q

myel/o

A

bone marrow; spinal cord

147
Q

orth/o

A

straight

148
Q

oste/o

A

bone

149
Q

ped/o

ped/i

A

foot; child

150
Q

synov/o

A

synovial membrane; synovial fluid

151
Q

scoli/o

A

crooked, bent

152
Q

ten/o

tend/o

tendin/o

A

tendon

153
Q

-asthenia

A

weakness; debility

154
Q

-clasia

A

to break; surgical fracture

155
Q

-clast

A

to break; surgical fracture

156
Q

-desis

A

binding; fixation (of a bone or joint)

157
Q

-malacia

A

softening

158
Q

-porosis

A

porous

159
Q

-sarcoma

A

malignant tumor of the connective tissue

160
Q

a-

A

without, not

161
Q

dys-

A

bad; painful; difficult

162
Q

syn-

A

union, together, joined

163
Q

What’s orthopedics?

A

Branch of medicine concerned with the prevention, diagnosis, care, and treatment of musculoskeletal disorders.

164
Q

What’s an orthopedist?

A

The physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of musculoskeletal disorders.

165
Q

What’s a rheumatologist?

A

Specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of joint disease.

166
Q

What’s a doctor of osteopathy (DO)?

A

They combine manipulative procedures with state-of-the-art methods of medical treatment, including prescribing drugs and performing surgeries. They have the same rights and privileges as doctors of medicine (MDs).

167
Q

What’s a fracture?

A

A break or crack in a bone.

168
Q

Open (compound) fracture

A

Type of broken bone where the end pierces through the skin.

169
Q

Pathological fracture

A

A fracture caused by disease rather than trauma.

170
Q

Closed fracture

A

Bone is broken but there’s no open wound in the skin.

171
Q

Comminuted fracture

A

Bone is crushed into several pieces.

172
Q

Impacted fracture

A

Broken ends of bones are forced into one another.

173
Q

Incomplete fracture

A

Line of fracture does not include the whole bone.

174
Q

Greenstick fracture

A

Bone is broken on only one side, common in most kids because growing bones are soft.

175
Q

Colles fracture

A

Distal radius is fractured by a FOOSH mechanism.

176
Q

Reduction

A

Restoring a broken bone to its normal position.

177
Q

Closed reduction

A

Physician repairs the fracture without incision of the skin; bone is aligned through manipulation/traction and is then stabilized.

178
Q

Open reduction

A

Realignment of the 2 broken ends of the bone takes place under direct observation during surgery.

179
Q

Internal fixation devices

A

Screws, pins, nails, and wires; used to maintain stability and alignment while healing takes place.

180
Q

Define arthritis:

A

General name for many joint diseases; inflammation of a joint, usually accompanied by pain, swelling, and deformity.

181
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Systemic disease characterized by inflammatory changes in joints and their related structures, resulting in crippling deformities; caused by an autoimmune disease that destroys joint tissue and has no known cure.

182
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

Also known as degenerative joint disease (DJD); progressive, and most common, form of arthritis that occurs when the protective cartilage at the ends of bones wears down.

183
Q

Osteophyte/bone spur

A

New bone growth.

184
Q

Heberden nodes

A

Classic bony enlargement at the ends of bones with OA.

185
Q

What’s muscular dystrophy?

A

A group of over 30 inherited diseases that cause progressive weakness of skeletal muscles and loss of muscle mass. There is no known cure, but medications and therapy can slow the course of disease.

186
Q

Primary bone cancer:

A

Malignancy that arises directly from bone; rare.

187
Q

Secondary bone cancer:

A

Malignancy that arises in another region and metastasizes to the bone; prevalent.

188
Q

What’s a sarcoma:

A

Malignancy that arises from bone, muscle, fat, bone marrow, cartilage, or cells of the lymphatic system. Signs and sx include swelling and tenderness, or tendency to fractures in the area. Treatment includes chemo/radiation and amputation in extreme cases.

189
Q

Fibrosarcoma

A

Develops in the cartilage and generally affects the pelvis, upper legs, and shoulders; usually occurs in those 50-60.

190
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

Develops from bone tissue and generally affects the knees, upper arms, and upper legs; usually occurs in those 20-25.

191
Q

Ewing sarcoma

A

Develops from primitive nerve cells in bone marrow, and usually occurs in the shaft of long bones; normally occurs in boys ages 10-20.

192
Q

Bunion (Hallux valgus)

A

Deformity in which the great toe is angled laterally toward the other toes. Commonly seen in women who wear pointed-toe shoes.

193
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS)

A

Painful condition resulting from compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel.

194
Q

Claudication

A

Lameness, limping.

195
Q

Contracture

A

Fibrosis of the connective tissue of the skin, fascia, muscle, or joint capsule that prevents normal mobility of the related tissue or joint.

196
Q

Crepitation

A

Dry, grating sound or sensation caused by bone ends rubbing together, including fracture or joint destruction.

197
Q

Ganglion cyst

A

Fluid-filled tumor that commonly develops along the tendons of a joint or the wrists of the hands; may also appear in the feet.

198
Q

Gout

A

Joint inflammation caused by uric acid crystal deposits in the joint spaces. This causes painful swelling and inflammation; joint chiefly affected is the big toe.

199
Q

Herniated disc

A

Rupture of the nucleus pulposus through the outer edge; also called a slipped disc or herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP).

200
Q

Hypotonia

A

Loss of muscle tone or diminished resistance to passive stretching.

201
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

Chronic, progressive disorder characterized by muscle weakness and droopiness, especially in the eyes, face, and limbs. Loss of neurotransmitter receptors produces increasing muscle weakness.

202
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Inflammation of bone, bone marrow, and the soft tissue that surrounds the bone. Generally caused by pyogenic bacteria and most commonly occurs in long bones.

203
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Loss of calcium and bone tissue, causing bones to become porous, brittle, and easily fractured; most commonly seen in postmenopausal women.

204
Q

Paget disease

A

Chronic inflammation of bones, resulting in thickening and softening of bones. Most common in middle-aged and elderly adults and is also called osteitis deformans.

205
Q

Phantom limb

A

Perceived sensation that a limb still exists following amputation of that limb.

206
Q

Rickets

A

Form of osteomalacia in children caused by vitamin D deficiency; also called rachitis.

207
Q

Scoliosis

A

Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, either to the right or left; may be congenital or caused by poor posture in childhood.

208
Q

Kyphosis

A

Abnormal curvature of the upper portion of the spine; also known as humpback or hunchback.

209
Q

Lordosis

A

Abnormal inward curvature of a portion of the lower part of the spine; also known as swayback.

210
Q

Spondylolisthesis

A

Any slipping (subluxation) of a vertebra from its normal position in relation to the one beneath it.

211
Q

Spondylolysis

A

Degeneration of the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae and related tissues. May cause pressure on nerve roots which can result in paresthesia.

212
Q

Sprain/strain

A

Overstretching/tearing of ligaments (sprain) or tendons/muscles (strain). Tx includes RICE, but sometimes surgery is necessary for repair.

213
Q

Subluxation

A

Partial or incomplete dislocation of one or more vertebrae.

214
Q

Talipes equinovarus

A

Congenital deformity of one or both feet in which the foot is pulled downward and laterally to the side; also called clubfoot. Treatment can include applying casts to correct the deformity or surgery.

215
Q

Arthrography

A

Series of radiographs taken after injection of a contrast material into the joint cavity.

216
Q

Bone density test (bone densitometry)

A

Non-invasive procedure that uses low-energy x-ray absorption to measure bone mineral density (BMD); also called dual-energy x-ray absorption (DEXA). Areas of decreased density indicate osteoporosis and osteopenia.

217
Q

Discography

A

Radiologic examination of the intervertebral disc structures with injection of a contrast medium; helps diagnose HNP (herniated disc).

218
Q

Lumbosacral spinal radiography

A

Radiography of the 5 lumbar vertebrae and the sacral vertebrae; helps identify pathologies of the low back.

219
Q

Myelography

A

Radiography of the spinal cord after injection of a contrast medium to identify and study spinal distortions caused by tumors, cysts, herniated discs or other lesions.

220
Q

Bone scintigraphy

A

Nuclear medicine procedure that involves IV injection of a radionuclide taken up into the bone. Helps detect bone disorders.

221
Q

Amputation

A

Partial or complete removal of an extremity as a result of disease, trauma, or circulatory disorder. After removal of the extremity, the surgeon cuts a flap from muscle and cutaneous tissue to cover the end of the bone and provide cushion and support for a prosthesis.

222
Q

Arthrocentesis

A

Puncture of a joint space with a needle to remove accumulated fluid or inject medications.

223
Q

Arthroclasia

A

Surgical breaking of an ankylosed joint to provide movement.

224
Q

Arthroscopy

A

Visual examination of the interior of a joint using an arthroscope. Other instruments may be inserted to scrape or cut damaged cartilage, excise tumors, remove fluid, and obtain biopsies.

225
Q

Bone grafting

A

Implantation or transplantation of bone tissue from another part of the body, or from another person, to serve as replacement for damaged or missing bone tissue.

226
Q

Bursectomy

A

Excision of a bursa; commonly performed to treat bursitis.

227
Q

Laminectomy

A

Excision of the posterior arch of the vertebra; most commonly performed to relieve symptoms of a slipped disc.

228
Q

Sequestrectomy

A

Excision of a sequestrum (segment of necrosed bone).

229
Q

Total Hip Replacement (THR)

A

Surgical procedure used to replace a hip joint damaged by DJD; commonly arthritis. Femoral head and acetabular ball are replaced with metal prostheses.

230
Q

Bone immobilization by application of a solid, stiff dressing formed with plaster of Paris or similar material. What’s this called?

A

Casting

231
Q

Bone immobilization by application of an orthopedic device to the injured body part. May be constructed from wood, metal, or plaster of Paris, and may be movable or immovable. What’s this called?

A

Splinting

232
Q

What is traction?

A

Set of mechanisms for straightening broken bones or relieving pressure on the spine or skeletal system.

233
Q

Prevent bone loss and strengthen bone affected by osteoporosis by inhibiting bone resorption and prevent fractures associated with osteoporosis.

What medicine does this?

A

Bone resorption inhibitors

234
Q

Treat and prevent hypocalcemia. They help prevent osteoporosis when the diet lacks adequate amounts of calcium.

What medicine does this?

A

Calcium supplements

235
Q

Slow progression of joint destruction in arthritis by inhibiting a substance that triggers inflammation.

What medicine does this?

A

Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)

236
Q

Relieve muscle spasms and stiffness.

What medicine does this?

A

Muscle relaxants.

237
Q

Decrease pain and suppress inflammation.

What medicine does this?

A

NSAIDs

238
Q

Relieve mild to moderate pain and reduce inflammation.

What medicine does this?

A

Salicylates

239
Q

Fat-soluble vitamins that facilitate the absorption and utilization of calcium to improve bone strength and structure.

What medicine does this?

A

Vitamin D analogs

240
Q

ACL

A

anterior cruciate ligament

241
Q

BMD

A

bone mineral density

242
Q

C1, C2, and so on

A

First cervical vertebra, second cervical vertebra, and so on

243
Q

CTS

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

244
Q

DEXA or DXA

A

Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

245
Q

DJD

A

degenerative joint disease

246
Q

DMARDs

A

Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs

247
Q

DO, D.O.

A

Doctor of osetopathy

248
Q

HNP

A

herniated nucleus pulposus

249
Q

IV

A

intravenous

250
Q

L1, L2 and so on

A

First lumbar vertebra, second lumbar vertebra, and so on.

251
Q

MD

A

Doctor of medicine

252
Q

MRI

A

magnetic resonance imaging

253
Q

NSAIDs

A

non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

254
Q

PCL

A

Posterior cruciate ligament

255
Q

RA

A

Rheumatoid arthritis; right atrium

256
Q

THR

A

total hip replacement

257
Q

TRAM

A

transverse rectus abdominal muscle

Medical Terminology (15 decks)

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