Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Administering Medications > Ch 8 Drugs for the Eye and Ear > Flashcards

Ch 8 Drugs for the Eye and Ear Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which term describes the transparent anterior portion of the eye?

Pupil
Iris
Cornea
Retina

A

Cornea

The transparent anterior portion of the eye is the cornea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which term describes the “white” of the eye?

Conjunctiva
Cornea
Sclera
Retina

A

Sclera

The nontransparent “white” of the eye is the sclera.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which structure gives the eye its color?

Retina
Pupil
Iris
Cornea

A

Iris

The iris gives the eye its color.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which term means farsightedness, a condition that normally occurs as a result of the aging process?

Amblyopia
Diplopia
Presbyopia
Myopia

A

Presbyopia

Farsightedness that occurs as a result of aging is called presbyopia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which lenses are used to correct age-related blurred vision?

Bifocal lenses
Convex corrective lenses
Concave corrective lenses
Crystalline lenses

A

Bifocal lenses

Bifocal lenses are used to correct age-related blurred vision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which visual structure undergoes decreased tear production, causing dry, irritated eyes as the patient ages?

Conjunctiva
Lens
Lacrimal ducts
Vitreous humor

A

Lacrimal ducts

As an individual ages, decreased tear production occurs in the lacrimal ducts causing dry, irritated eyes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which visual structure demonstrates decreased pupil size; slower dilation after exposure to light, and decreased near vision and accommodation as the patient ages?

Iris
Lens
Retina
Cornea

A

Iris

The iris demonstrates decreased pupil size, slower dilation after exposure to light, and decreased near vision and accommodation as the patient ages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which visual structure has decreased sharpness of vision and loss of central vision as the patient ages?

Lens
Retina
Cornea
Iris

A

Retina

The retina causes decreased sharpness of vision and loss of central vision as the patient ages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which is an eye disorder characterized by increased intraocular pressure?

Cataracts
Glaucoma
Blepharitis
Hordeolum

A

Glaucoma

Glaucoma is characterized by increased intraocular pressure caused by failure of the aqueous humor to drain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Which condition may occur if glaucoma goes unnoticed and untreated?

Diplopia
Blindness
Vertigo
Photophobia

A

Blindness

Untreated and unnoticed, glaucoma may cause blindness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which term describes an opacity that appears within the crystalline lens and may affect one or both eyes?

Conjunctivitis
Cataracts
Hordeolum
Floater

A

Cataracts

A cataract is opacity of the crystalline lens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Miotics, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, and beta-adrenergic blocking agents are the treatment of choice for which condition?

cataracts.
macular degeneration.
glaucoma.
presbyopia.

A

glaucoma.

The drug treatment of choice for glaucoma includes miotics, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, and beta-adrenergic blocking agents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Which condition may be caused by bacterial, viral, or chlamydial microorganisms?

Blepharitis
Conjunctivitis
Tinnitus
Ophthalmitis

A

Conjunctivitis

Conjunctivitis may be caused by bacterial, viral, or chlamydial microorganisms. Conjunctivitis is an infection or inflammation of the conjunctiva.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which term is used to describe an extreme sensitivity to light?

Photophobia
Diplopia
Presbyopia
Hyperopia

A

Photophobia

Photophobia is an abnormal intolerance to light that can result from conjunctivitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which term describes a bacterial infection of the eyelids that causes crusting, redness, and irritation of the eyelids?

Conjunctivitis
Blepharitis
Canthitis
Scleritis

A

Blepharitis

A bacterial infection of the eyelids that causes crusting, redness, and irritation of the eyelids is called blepharitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Which term describes an infection of the sebaceous glands, commonly referred to as a sty?

Adenitis
Blepharitis
Hordeolum
Canthus

A

Hordeolum

An infection of the sebaceous glands, which is the result of a blocked gland, is commonly known as a sty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Tobramycin (Tobrex) is an ophthalmic ointment used to treat which condition?

cataracts.
glaucoma.
eye infections.
diplopia.

A

eye infections.

Eye infections are treated by the ophthalmic ointment tobramycin (Tobrex).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which statement describes how miotics work to constrict the pupil?

They increase the intraocular pressure.
They decrease the aqueous humor outflow.
They contract the ciliary muscles.
They dilate the Schlemm’s canal.

A

They contract the ciliary muscles.

Miotics constrict the pupil by contracting the ciliary muscles, increase aqueous humor outflow, and decrease intraocular pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Which term is used to describe drugs that are used to dilate the pupil?

Miotics
Mydriatics
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Beta-adrenergic blocking agents

A

Mydriatics

Mydriatics dilate the pupil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which term is used to describe a technique which uses the administration of anticholinergic mydriatics to determine if corrective lenses are required?

Cycloplegic refraction
Ophthalmoscopy
Laser photocoagulation
Retinopexy

A

Cycloplegic refraction

During cycloplegic refraction, anticholinergic mydriatrics produce papillary dilation that interferes with the ability of the eye to properly focus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Which structure is part of the external ear?

Pinna
Stapes
Cochlea
Tympanic membrane

A

Pinna

The external ear consists of an auricle or pinna and the external auditory meatus or ear canal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Which structure connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx and works to equalize air pressure on both sides of the eardrum?

Tympanic membrane
External auditory meatus
Eustachian tube
Auricle

A

Eustachian tube

The eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx and equalizes pressure on both sides of the eardrum, preventing it from rupturing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Which term is used to describe the conduction and amplification of sounds waves from the environment?

Acoustic
Amplification
Air conduction
Otic

A

Air conduction

Air conduction is the conduction and amplification of sound waves from the environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Which condition describes a problem with either the external or middle ear?

Conductive hearing loss
Sensorineural hearing loss
Central hearing loss
Acoustic hearing loss

A

Conductive hearing loss

Conductive hearing loss is a problem with either the external or middle ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. The malleus, incus, and stapes bones pick up vibrations of the __________________ and transmit these vibrations to specialized hearing cells in the inner ear.

eustachian tube
tympanic membrane
external auditory meatus
cochlea

A

tympanic membrane

The maleus, incus, and staples bones pick up vibrations of the eardrum or tympanic membrane. The bones transmit vibrations to specialized hearing cells in the inner ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Which structure of the ear is necessary to maintain equilibrium?

Cochlea
Eustachian tube
Vestibule
Pinna

A

Vestibule

The vestibule is the structure of the ear that maintains equilibrium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Which structure of the ear is the primary organ of hearing?

Malleus
Cochlea
Semicircular canals
Vestibule

A

Cochlea

The cochlea is the primary organ of hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Which type of hearing loss occurs as a result of disease or injury in the inner ear?

Conductive
Sensorineural
Central
Peripheral

A

Sensorineural

Sensorineural hearing loss occurs as a result of disease or injury to the inner ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Which type of hearing loss results from damage to the central nervous system from the auditory nucleus to the cortex?

Conductive
Sensorineural
Central
Peripheral

A

Central

Central hearing loss occurs as a result to damage to the central nervous system from the auditory nucleus to the cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Which type of hearing loss results in difficulty in understanding the meaning of words heard, or in the inability to understand the meaning of incoming sounds and words?

Conductive
Sensorineural
Central
Peripheral

A

Central

Central hearing loss leads to difficulty understanding the meaning of words heard or the inability to understand the meaning of incoming sounds and words.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Which type of hearing loss results in an alteration in the patient’s perception of, or sensitivity to, sounds?

Conductive
Sensorineural
Central
Peripheral

A

Conductive

Conductive hearing loss results in an alteration in the patient’s perception of or sensitivity to sounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Which type of hearing loss results in an alteration in the perception of, or sensitivity to, high-pitched tones?

Conductive
Sensorineural
Central
Peripheral

A

Sensorineural

Sensorineural hearing loss results in an alteration in the perception of, or sensitivity to, high-pitched sounds that occur with problems in the inner ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Which term describes a lessened ability, as a result of aging, to hear high-pitched sounds?

Tinnitus
Presbycusis
Ménière’s disease
Serous otitis media

A

Presbycusis

A lessened ability to hear high-pitched sounds as a result of aging is termed presbycusis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. Which term means ringing in the ears?

Presbycusis
Tinnitus
Vertigo
Otitis

A

Tinnitus

Ringing in the ears is called tinnitus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Which auditory structure has, as an effect of aging, an increase in cerumen, drier cerumen, and an increase in hair?

Auditory nucleus
External ear
Middle ear
Inner ear

A

External ear

Increase in cerumen, drier cerumen, and an increase in hair are the effects of aging.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. Which may occur in a patient who experiences a hearing loss later in life?

Increased chance that hearing will return
Better balance
Increased personal hygiene
Withdraw from social contact

A

Withdraw from social contact

Withdrawal from social contact may occur in patients with hearing loss later in life. Severe depression, isolation, and poor personal hygiene may also occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. Which statement describes why the incidence of hearing loss is increasing?

Healthcare team members are helping with early identification of problems.
People are living longer.
More equipment is available to screen more patients for hearing loss.
More senior citizens have access to healthcare.

A

People are living longer.

The rationale for increased hearing loss is people are living longer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. Which term describes an inflammation and infection of the auricle and ear canal, also called “swimmer’s ear”?

External otitis
Internal otitis
Otitis media
Otitis labyrinth

A

External otitis

Inflammation and infection of the epithelium of the auricle and ear canal is called external otitis or swimmer’s ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. Which condition would be treated using lubricating drops and irrigation of the ear canal?

External otitis
Cerumen
Otitis media
Vertigo

A

Cerumen

Cerumen, or earwax, is treated by irrigating the ear canal with lubricating drops to soften the earwax.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. Polymyxin B, colistin, neomycin, and chloromycetin are examples of medications used to treat:

external ear disorders.
cerumen.
middle ear disorders.
otic fungal infections.

A

external ear disorders.

External ear disorders are treated with polymycin B, colistin, neomycin and chloromycetin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. Otic drops should be administered at room temperature because cold drops can cause which symptom?

pain
dizziness
tinnitus
hearing loss

A

dizziness

Otic drops should always be administered at room temperature because cold drops can cause dizziness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. Which statement describes the correct procedure to use when administering antibiotics in the ear canal?

Avoid touching the tip of the dropper to the auricle. Use an applicator to transfer medication from the bottle to the affected site.
Soak a wick in the bottle and place the wick in the affected ear.
Cleanse the lip of the bottle before and after each use.

A

Avoid touching the tip of the dropper to the auricle.

Avoid touching the tip of the dropper to the auricle when administering antibiotics to prevent contamination of the solution in the bottle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. Which sign/symptom does NOT indicate a potential hearing loss?

Asking others to speak up
Answering questions inappropriately
Having increased sensitivity to changes in noise level Feeling a spinning sensation in the head while sitting

A

Feeling a spinning sensation in the head while sitting

Asking others to speak up, answering questions inappropriately, and having increased sensitivity to changes in noise level may indicate hearing loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. Which procedure should be followed prior to instilling eye medications if crusting or drainage is present?

Wash from inner to outer canthus.
Wash from outer to inner canthus.
Cleanse the eyelid with a damp cloth.
Cleanse the eyelid with a dry cloth.

A

Wash from inner to outer canthus.

Wash from the inner to outer canthus prior to instilling eye medications if crusting or drainage is present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. Which procedure should be followed when administering an ophthalmic medication that causes systemic effects?

Press gently against the outer canthus.
Instruct the patient to keep his eye closed for 30 to 90 seconds.
Press gently against the inner corner of the eye and the nose bone.
Instruct the patient to close the eye and rub the eyelid in a circular motion.

A

Press gently against the inner corner of the eye and the nose bone.

Pressing gently against the inner canthus of the eye and nose bone is the correct procedure to follow when administering an ophthalmic medication that causes systemic effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. Which procedure should be followed after instilling eye ointment?

Press gently against the outer canthus.
Instruct the patient to keep the eye closed for 30 to 90 seconds.
Press gently against the inner corner of the eye and the nose bone.
Instruct the patient to close the eye and rub the eyelid in a circular motion.

A

Instruct the patient to close the eye and rub the eyelid in a circular motion.

Instruct the patient to close the eye and rub the eyelid in a circular motion with a cotton ball to spread the ointment over the eye after instilling eye ointment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. Which procedure should be followed when instilling ear drops in a child?

Pull the auricle upward and outward.
Pull the auricle down and back.
Pull the tragus upward and outward.
Pull the tragus down and back.

A

Pull the auricle down and back.

When instilling ear drops in a child, pull the auricle down and back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. Which procedure should be followed when instilling ear drops in an adult?

Pull the auricle upward and outward.
Pull the auricle down and back.
Pull the tragus upward and outward.
Pull the tragus down and back.

A

Pull the auricle upward and outward.

When instilling ear drops in an adult, pull the auricle upward and outward.

49
Q
  1. Which procedure should be used when instilling eardrops to move the medication inward?

Massage the auricle.
Massage the pinna.
Massage the tragus.
Massage the external auditory meatus.

A

Massage the tragus

When instilling eardrops, move the medicine inward by massaging the tragus.

50
Q
  1. Ototoxicity can be caused by which type of drugs?

Aspirin
Penicillins
Mydriatics
Beta blockers

A

Aspirin

Aspirin can cause ototoxicity. Other drugs are loop diuretics, quinidine, quinine, antineoplastics, and aminoglycosides.

51
Q
  1. Which immunization may assist with preventing hearing problems?

Influenza
Hepatitis B virus
Pneumonia
Measles

A

Measles

Ear infections occur in about 1 in 10 measles cases and permanent loss of hearing can result. The measles immunization is important to get to prevent hearing loss.

52
Q
  1. Which condition can affect the fetus if a pregnant woman is exposed to rubella during the first 16 weeks of gestation?

Congenital atrial-ventral defects
Congenital deafness
Congenital cataracts
Congenital spina bifida

A

Congenital deafness

Congenital deafness can develop in the fetus during pregnancy if the woman is exposed to rubella during the first 16 weeks.

53
Q
  1. Which test would be performed to identify the causative organism of external otitis (otitis externa)?

Culture and sensitivity
DNA probe
Pap test
Hematocrit

A

Culture and sensitivity

A culture and sensitivity test should be done to identify the causative organism for external otitis (prior to medication being ordered to treat).

54
Q
  1. Which is the function of cerumen?

Protects the ear from dust
Conducts sound
Lubricates middle ear bones
Keeps tympanic membrane pliable

A

Protects the ear from dust

The function of cerumen is to protect the external ear from dust. Cerumen is wax in the ear.

55
Q
  1. Which condition is highly contagious among children?

Conjunctivitis
Glaucoma
Blepharitis
External otitis

A

Conjunctivitis

Conjunctivitis is highly contagious in children. Conjunctivitis is commonly called “pink eye.”

56
Q
  1. Which of the following means dizziness?

Vertigo
Presbycusis
Tinnitus
Diplopia

A

Vertigo

Vertigo is the medical term for dizziness.

57
Q
  1. The _________________ is the transparent anterior portion of the eye.
A

cornea

Explanation: The cornea is the transparent anterior portion of the eye.

58
Q
  1. The ____________ is commonly referred to as the “white” of the eye.
A

sclera

Explanation: The “white” of the eye is called the sclera.

59
Q
  1. The iris gives the eye its ____________.
A

color

Explanation: The iris gives the eye its color.

60
Q
  1. The _____________ ensures that a received image falls in sharp focus on the retina.
A

lens

Explanation: The lens ensures that a received image falls in sharp focus on the retina.

61
Q
  1. Farsightedness that normally occurs between the ages of 40 and 45 is termed _______________.
A

presbyopia

Explanation: Presbyopia is farsightedness that occurs in people between ages 40 and 45.

62
Q
  1. ______________ lenses are prescribed to correct vision affected by presbyopia.
A

Bifocal

Explanation: Bifocal lens are necessary to correct presbyopia in people between ages 40 and 45. The individual loses its ability to accommodate and results in eye fatigue and blurred vision.

63
Q
  1. The effects of aging on the ____________ will cause the patient to experience a change in color perception, a decreased sharpness of vision, and loss of central vision.
A

retina

Explanation: A change in color perception, a decreased sharpness of vision, and loss of central vision results as an effect of aging on the retina.

64
Q
  1. The effects of aging on the ___________________ can cause the patient to experience decreased tear production and dry, irritated eyes.
A

lacrimal glands

Explanation: The effects of aging on the lacrimal glands can cause decreased tear production and dry, irritated eyes.

65
Q

Nontransparent specks that are small pieces of cells in the vitreous humor as a result of the effects of aging are termed _______________.

A

floaters

Explanation: Aging of the vitreous humor results in the formation of floaters which are specks in the eye.

66
Q
  1. An eye disorder that is characterized by increased intraocular pressure and damage to the optic nerve is termed ______________.
A

glaucoma

Explanation: Glaucoma is an eye disorder characterized by increased intraocular pressure and damage to the optic nerve.

67
Q
  1. If glaucoma goes unnoticed and untreated, it can lead to _____________.
A

blindness

Explanation: Blindness results from glaucoma that goes unnoticed and untreated.

68
Q
  1. Miotics, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, and beta-adrenergic blocking agents are used to treat ________________.
A

glaucoma

Explanation: Glaucoma is treated with miotics, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, and beta-adrenergic blocking agents.

69
Q
  1. Double vision is termed _______________.
A

diplopia

Explanation: Diplopia is double vision and a side effect of the medications used to treat glaucoma.

70
Q
  1. An opacity that appears within the crystalline lens and may affect one or both eyes is a(n) ______________.
A

cataract

Explanation: A cataract is an opacity that appears within the crystalline lens and may affect one or both eyes.

71
Q
  1. Cataracts are the _____________ most common cause of blindness.
A

third

Explanation: Cataracts are the third most common cause of blindness.

72
Q
  1. The second leading cause of blindness is ______________.
A

glaucoma

Explanation: Glaucoma is the second leading cause of blindness.

73
Q
  1. In adults over 65 years old, ___________ percent will have some cataract formation.
A

50

Explanation: Cataract formation occurs in 50 percent of adults over age 65.

74
Q
  1. The treatment of choice for cataracts is ___________.
A

surgery

Explanation: The treatment of choice for cataracts is surgery.

75
Q
  1. Conjunctivitis, referred to as _______________, is a common eye disorder that is highly contagious among children.
A

“pink eye”

Explanation: Conjunctivitis, also called “pink eye,” is a common eye disorder that is highly contagious among children.

76
Q
  1. Extreme sensitivity to light, a symptom of conjunctivitis, is termed ________________.
A

photophobia

Explanation: An extreme sensitivity to light is called photophobia.

77
Q
  1. ______________________ is a bacterial infection of the eyelid that causes crusting, redness, and irritation.
A

Blepharitis

Explanation: Blepharitis is a bacterial infection of the eyelid that causes crusting, redness, and irritation.

78
Q
  1. Infection of the sebaceous glands, hordeolum, is commonly referred to as a(n) ________.
A

sty

Explanation: Infection of the sebaceous glands, hordeolum, is commonly known as a sty.

79
Q
  1. Tobramycin (Tobrex) is an ophthalmic ointment used to treat eye _____________.
A

infections

Explanation: Tobramycin (Tobrex) is an ophthalmic ointment used to treat eye infections.

80
Q
  1. Drugs that cause the pupil to constrict by decreasing the intraocular pressure, increasing the aqueous humor outflow, and contracting the ciliary muscle are termed ____________.
A

miotics

Explanation: Miotics are drugs that cause the pupil to constrict by decreasing the intraocular pressure, increasing the aqueous humor outflow, and contracting the ciliary muscle.

81
Q
  1. Miotics are used to treat _______________. glaucoma
A

glaucoma

Miotics are used to treat glaucoma.

82
Q
  1. Mydriatics are drugs that ____________ the pupil. One use of mydriatics is to facilitate an eye examination.
A

dilate

Explanation: Mydriatrics are drugs used to dilate the pupil.

83
Q
  1. The function of the external ear is ______________, pertaining to sound.
A

acoustic

Explanation: The function of the external ear is acoustic, pertaining to hearing or sound.

84
Q
  1. The eustachian (auditory) canal equalizes the ___________________ on both sides of the eardrum, preventing it from rupturing.
A

air pressure

Explanation: The eustachian (auditory) canal equalizes the air pressure on both sides of the eardrum, preventing it from rupturing.

85
Q
  1. The external and middle ear function to conduct and amplify sound waves from the environment is called ________________.
A

air conduction

Explanation: The external and middle ear conduct and amplify sound waves from the environment known as air conduction.

86
Q
  1. Problems with either the external or middle ear cause a(n) _______________ hearing loss.
A

conductive

Explanation: Conductive hearing loss results from problems with either the external or middle ear.

87
Q
  1. The malleus, incus, and stapes are small bones that pick up vibrations from the ________________ and transmit them to specialized cells in the inner ear.
A

eardrum

Explanation: Vibrations from the eardrum are picked up by three tiny bones in the middle ear—the malleus, incus, and stapes—and are transmitted to specialized hearing cells in the inner ear.

88
Q
  1. An important function of the vestibule in the inner ear is to maintain _____________.
A

equilibrium

Explanation: Equilibrium is maintained by the vestibule in the inner ear.

89
Q
  1. When disease occurs in the inner ear, a(n) __________________ hearing loss may occur.
A

sensorineural

Explanation: Sensorineural hearing loss results from disease in the inner ear.

90
Q
  1. Patients who have difficulty understanding the meaning of words heard or are unable to understand the meaning of incoming sounds and words have a(n) _________________ hearing loss.
A

central

Explanation: Patients who have difficulty understanding the meaning of words heard or are unable to understand the meaning of incoming sounds have a central hearing loss.

91
Q
  1. A lessened ability to hear high-pitched sounds, a result of the aging process, is termed _________________.
A

presbycusis

Explanation: A decreased ability to hear high-pitched sounds is called presbycusis.

92
Q
  1. Ringing in the ears is termed ____________.
A

tinnitus

Explanation: The medical term for ringing in the ears is tinnitus.

93
Q
  1. Whenever a hearing loss occurs, especially later in life, severe _________ and isolation may occur.
A

depression

Explanation: Severe depression and isolation may result when hearing loss occurs later in life.

94
Q
  1. An inflammation and infection of the epithelium of the auricle and ear canal called “swimmer’s ear” is also termed ________________.
A

external otitis

Explanation: “Swimmer’s ear,” or external otitis, is an inflammation and infection of the epithelium of the auricle and ear canal. It occurs in summer months and is associated with contaminated water.

95
Q
  1. Irrigation of the ear canal or the instillation of lubricating drops placed in the ear canal are treatments for softening ______________, or earwax.
A

cerumen

Explanation: Treatments to soften cerumen, or earwax, are irrigation of the ear canal or instillation of lubricating drops placed in the ear canal.

96
Q
  1. Polymyxin B, colistin, neomycin, and chloromycetin are all topical ________________ for external ear disorders.
A

antibiotics

Explanation: Topical antibiotics such as polymyxin B, colistin, neomycin, and chloromycetin are used in the treatment of external ear disorders.

97
Q
  1. Otic (ear) drops should be administered at room temperature because cold drops can cause _____________________.
A

dizziness

Explanation: Otic (ear) drops should be administered at room temperature because cold drops can cause dizziness.

98
Q
  1. When instilling otic drops, avoid touching the tip of the dropper to the auricle because that ______________________ the remainder of the solution in the bottle.
A

contaminates

Explanation: When instilling otic drops, avoid touching the tip of the dropper because that contaminates the remainder of the solution in the bottle.

99
Q
  1. Dizziness, or the inability to maintain balance in either a sitting or standing position, is termed ________________.
A

vertigo

Explanation: Vertigo is the medical term for dizziness or the inability to maintain balance in either a sitting or standing position.

100
Q

100.Answering questions inappropriately, or an increased sensitivity to even slight changes in noise level, can indicate __________________.

A

hearing loss

Explanation: Answering questions inappropriately or an increased sensitivity to even slight changes in noise level may indicate hearing loss.

101
Q

101.Certain drugs, including aspirin, loop diuretics, quinine, antineoplastics, and aminoglycosides, can cause _______________.

A

ototoxicity

Explanation: Aspirin, loop diuretics, quinine, antineoplastics, and aminoglycerides can cause ototoxicity.

102
Q

102.When instilling eye medications, gently wash eyelid margins or inner ___________ (angle or corner of the eye) if crusting or drainage is present.

A

canthus

Explanation: When instilling eye medications, gently wash eyelid margins or inner canthus (angle or corner of the eye) if crusting or drainage is present.

103
Q

103.Once eye ointment has been instilled, instruct the patient to close the eye and rub the eyelid in a ______________ motion with a cotton ball to spread the ointment over the eye.

A

circular

Explanation: When instilling eye ointment, instruct the patient to close the eye and rub the eyelid in a circular motion with a cotton ball to spread the ointment over the eye.

104
Q

104.When instilling ear drops, grasp the outer ear and pull gently to straighten the ear canal. In children, pull the auricle _________ and ____________.

A

down, back

Explanation: When instilling ear drops, grasp the outer ear and pull gently to straighten the ear canal. In children, pull the auricle down and back.

105
Q

105.After instilling ear drops, gently apply pressure or massage the ____________ (small cartilage projection in front of entrance) of the ear with the finger to help move medication inward.

A

tragus

Explanation: After instilling ear drops, gently apply pressure or massage the tragus (small projection in front of entrance) of the ear with the finger to help move medication inward.

106
Q

106.The term that means pertaining to the eyes or sight is ___________________.

A

optic

Explanation: Optic means pertaining to the eyes or sight.

107
Q

107.The term that means pertaining to the ears is _______________.

A

otic

Explanation: Otic means pertaining to the ears.

108
Q

108.The medical term for earwax is ________________________.

A

cerumen

Explanation: The medical term for earwax is cerumen.

109
Q

109.Presbyopia is usually corrected by the use of __________________ lenses.

A

bifocal

Explanation: Presbyopia or farsightedness normally occurs between ages 40 and 45. The eye loses its ability to accommodate, and the individual experiences fatigue and blurred vision. Bifocal lenses are prescribed to correct vision.

110
Q

110.During swallowing, chewing, yawning, or jaw movement, the ____________________ tube is opened to equalize air pressure on both sides of the eardrum.

A

Eustachian

Explanation: The eustachian tube is usually collapsed, except during swallowing, chewing, yawning, or jaw movement. The tube equalizes pressure on both sides of the eardrum.

111
Q

111.The bones in the middle ear that pick up vibrations of the eardrum are the _______________, ________________, and _______________.

A

malleus, incus, stapes

Explanation: The three tiny bones in the middle ear that pick up vibrations of the eardrum are the malleus, incus, and stapes.

112
Q

112.A patient with external otitis or “swimmer’s ear” may be prescribed _____________ antibiotics.

A

topical

Explanation: Topical antibiotics may be prescribed for external otitis or “swimmer’s ear.” External otitis is an inflammation and infection of the epithelium of the auricle and ear canal.

113
Q

113.Identify the external parts of the eye.

A

Feedback:

The external parts of the eye are the eyelids, lashes, lacrimal glands, sclera, and conjunctiva.

114
Q

114.Identify the external parts of the ear.

A

Feedback:

The external parts of the ear are the auricle or pinna and external meatus or ear canal.

115
Q

115.Describe the major disorders of the eye for which medications are given.

A

Feedback:

Major disorders of the eye for which medications are given include: glaucoma, eye infections, and cataracts.

116
Q

116.Describe the major disorders of the ear for which medications are given.

A

Feedback:

Major disorders of the ear for which medications are given include: external otitis, ear infections, otitis media, and cerumen buildup.

117
Q

117.Describe the proper procedure for instilling eye drops.

A

Feedback:

Clean the canthus from the inner corner to the outer. For eyedrops, in your dominant hand, resting on the patient’s cheekbone, hold a cotton ball. In the nondominant hand, gently resting on the patient’s forehead, hold the dropper 1-2 to 3-4 inch above the conjunctival sac. Drop the prescribed number of drops into the conjunctival sac. If the patient blinks or if a drop lands on the outer eyelid, repeat. Wipe up any liquid overflow with cotton or tissue.

118
Q

118.Describe the proper procedure for instilling an eye ointment.

A

Feedback:

Holding the ointment applicator above the lower lid, apply a small layer of ointment evenly along the inner edge of the lower lid margins on the inner conjunctiva from inner canthus to outer canthus. Instruct the patient to close the eye and rub the eyelid in a circular motion with a cotton ball to spread the ointment over the eye. Wipe up excess ointment with tissue or cotton.

119
Q

119.Describe the proper procedure for instilling ear drops.

A

Feedback:

In children, pull the auricle down and back. In adults, pull the auricle upward and outward. Instill ear drops holding the dropper 1-2 inch above the ear canal. Upon completion, gently apply pressure or massage the tragus of the ear with a finger to help move the medication inward.

Administering Medications (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions