Ch 11 Drugs for the Respiratory System Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which term is used to define the exchange of gases between blood and air?

Ventilation
Aeration
Respiration
Inhalation

.

A

Respiration

The medical term for breathing is respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which structures warm and moisten the air and trap dust particles and bacteria?

Flagella
Follicles
Cilia
Tresses

A

Cilia

Cilia warm and moisten the air and trap dust particles and bacteria. They line the nasal mucosa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which structure has a function in both the respiratory and digestive systems?

Larynx
Pharynx
Esophagus
Trachea

A

Pharynx

The pharynx has both respiratory and digestive functions. It is tubelike structure extending from the base of the skull to the esophagus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which structure works to keep food and saliva from entering the lungs?

Epiglottis
Uvula
Frenulum
Larynx

A

Epiglottis

The epiglottis is a leaflike structure on top of the larynx that seals off the air passages to the lungs during swallowing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which structures are the functional units of the lung?

Bronchioles
Capillaries
Alveoli
Pleura

A

Alveoli

The alveoli are the functional units of the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which term describes a technique whereby a probe is attached to the ear, finger, toe, or bridge of the nose to measure the oxygen concentration of the blood?

Arterial blood gas
Spirometry
Pulse oximetry
Peak flow meter

A

Pulse oximetry

Pulse oximetry is a device that monitors the oxygen saturation by placing a probe on the ear, finger, toe, or bridge of the nose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which term describes an abnormally thick fluid formed in the lower respiratory tract that may contain blood, pus, or bacteria?

Mucus
Sputum
Lymph
Plasma

A

Sputum

Sputum is an abnormally thick fluid formed in the lower respiratory tract that may contain blood, pus, or bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which is a symptom that is frequently seen with asthma and bronchitis, or in patients with allergies?

Hoarseness
Hemoptysis
Wheezing
Orthopnea

A

Wheezing

Wheezing is a high-pitched, musical sound that occurs through a narrowed airway. It is frequently seen in patients with asthma, bronchitis, or allergies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which term describes the cessation of breathing, which may occur during sleep?

Orthopnea
Apnea
Tachypnea
Hyperpnea

A

Apnea

Apnea is the stoppage of breathing, which may occur during sleep; it may be temporary or fatal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Which term describes a person who has difficulty breathing when lying down?

Orthopnea
Apnea
Tachypnea
Hyperpnea

A

Orthopnea

Orthopnea is an abnormal condition in which the patient has difficulty breathing when lying flat or reclining.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which term describes an infection of the lower respiratory tract (bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli)?

Bronchitis
Pneumonia
Emphysema
Pleurisy

A

Pneumonia

All pneumonias are infections of the lower respiratory tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which term describes the inflammation of the air passageways caused by irritants?

Bronchitis
Pneumonia
Emphysema
Pleurisy

A

Bronchitis

Bronchitis is an inflammation of the air passageways caused by irritants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Which term describes a condition that is the result of the enlargement of, and damage to, the alveolar sacs?

Bronchitis
Pneumonia
Emphysema
Pleurisy

A

Emphysema

Emphysema is a condition in which the air sacs dilate and are unable to contract to their original size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. With which condition may a patient with a “barrel chest” be diagnosed?

Bronchitis
Pneumonia
Emphysema
Pleurisy

A

Emphysema

A patient with a “barrel chest” may be diagnosed with emphysema. The air becomes stale and backs up in the alveoli, which makes it impossible to take in much air on the next breath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which condition causes the muscles around the bronchioles to contract, narrowing the air passages and causing the alveoli to become plugged with unusually thick sputum that is hard to cough up?

Bronchitis
Pneumonia
Asthma
Emphysema

A

Asthma

In asthma, the muscles around the bronchioles contract, narrowing the air passages and causing the alveoli to become plugged with an unusually thick sputum that is hard to cough up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Which are the drugs of choice to treat asthma?

Antibiotics
Expectorants
Bronchodilators
Decongestants

A

Bronchodilators

The drugs of choice to treat asthma are bronchodilators. They relieve the bronchiole constriction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Which device is used by the patient in the detection and management of asthma attacks?

Pulse oximeter
Peak flow meter
Stethoscope
Ventilator

A

Peak flow meter

A peak flow meter is used by the patient in the detection and management of asthma attacks. It measures the air flowing out of the lungs. The patient forcefully blows into the device.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. A persistent, productive cough may be the first symptom of:

asthma.
bronchitis.
lung cancer.
pleurisy.

A

lung cancer.

The first symptom of lung cancer may be a persistent, productive cough.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Which condition has seen a rise in prevalence secondary to HIV infection and new strains that are resistant to drug therapy?

Bronchitis
Tuberculosis
Bacterial pneumonia
Pleurisy

A

Tuberculosis

Tuberculosis has seen a rise in prevalence secondary to HIV infection and new strains that are resistant to drug therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which term describes an allergic reaction to pollen in the air during late summer and fall?

Asthma
Seasonal rhinitis
Sinusitis
Pneumonia

A

Seasonal rhinitis

Seasonal rhinitis is an allergic reaction to pollen in the air during the late summer and fall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Which is the greatest at-risk population for nicotine dependence?

Adolescents
Adults 35-45 years of age
Adult 50-60 years of age
Adults older than 60 years of age

A

Adolescents

Adolescents are at a greater risk of nicotine dependency. Over 90 percent of smokers begin smoking between the ages of 18 and 21.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Which works best to prevent tobacco dependence?

Nicotine patch
Antidepressant medication
Not starting to smoke
Commit lozenges

A

Not starting to smoke

The most effective way to prevent tobacco dependency is never to start smoking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Which category of medications are cough suppressants?

Expectorants
Mucolytics
Antitussives
Antihistamines

A

Antitussives

Antitussives are cough suppressants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Which term describes a cough that brings up sputum?

Productive cough
Sputum cough
Mucous cough
Wet cough

A

Productive cough

A productive cough brings up mucous or sputum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
25. Which category of drugs liquefy or break down tenacious mucous so it can be coughed up more easily? 
Antitussives 
Decongestants 
Antihistamines 
Expectorants
A

Expectorants

An expectorant or a mucolytic drug liquefies or breaks down tenacious mucous so it can easily be coughed up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Which category of drugs are vasoconstrictors used for nasal congestion because they shrink engorged mucous membranes?

Antitussives
Antihistamines
Decongestants
Mucolytics

A

Decongestants

Decongestants are used for nasal congestion because they shrink mucous membranes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Which term describes the reappearance of symptoms in an even stronger form after a drug has worn off?

Reappearance effect
Opposite effect
Rebound effect
Synergistic effect

A

Rebound effect

The rebound effect refers to the reappearance of symptoms in even stronger form after a drug has worn off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Which category of drugs is used in allergic conditions such as hay fever?

Mucolytics
Antitussives
Antihistamines
Expectorants

A

Antihistamines

Antihistamines are drugs used in allergic conditions such as hay fever. They counteract the effect of histamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Which category of drugs increase the vital capacity of the lungs by dilating the bronchi and relaxing the smooth muscles?

Antihistamines
Decongestants
Antitussives
Bronchodilators

A

Bronchodilators

Bronchodilators increase the vital capacity of the lungs by dilating the bronchi and relaxing the smooth muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Which term describes a physical therapy technique that uses positioning, along with vibration and percussion, to drain secretions from the lungs and bronchi?

Vibrational therapy
Postural drainage
Tracheal drainage
Percussion therapy

A

Postural drainage

Postural drainage is a physical therapy technique that uses positioning, along with vibration and percussion, to drain secretions from the lungs and bronchi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Which term describes physical therapy for respiratory patients that involves the tapping of various body organs and structures?

Palpation
Manipulation
Percussion
Vibration

A

Percussion

Percussion is a type of physical therapy for respiratory patients that involves the tapping of various body organs and structures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Which term describes a physical therapy technique for respiratory patients whereby fine, shaking pressure is applied to the chest wall during exhalations?

Palpation
Manipulation
Percussion
Vibration

A

Vibration

Vibration is a physical therapy technique for respiratory patients whereby fine, shaking pressure is applied to the chest wall during exhalations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Which is NOT a sign of respiratory problems?

The soft tissues of the chest retracting with each breath
Holding the mouth open while breathing
Making barely audible breath sounds
Spreading the nostrils

A

Making barely audible breath sounds

Signs of respiratory problems include the soft tissues of the chest retracting with each breath, the patient holding the mouth open while breathing, and the patient spreading the nostrils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. Which should be given with expectorants and antitussives?

Hard candy
Demulcents
Fluids
Food

A

Fluids

Expectorants and antitussives should be given with fluids. Fluids help thin out respiratory secretions so that they can be coughed up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Which drug can be administered using a nasal cannula, nasal catheter, or face tent?

Oxygen
Corticosteroids
Antibiotics
Beta-agonist

A

Oxygen

Oxygen can be administered using a nasal cannula, nasal catheter, or face tent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. Which is the goal of oxygen therapy?

To relieve hypoxia
To relieve orthopnea
To relieve dyspnea
To relieve hemoptysis

A

To relieve hypoxia

The goal of oxygen therapy is to relieve hypoxia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. Which is a serious respiratory virus that strikes from November through April, and causes the death of as many as 20,000 people annually?

Pneumonia
Pneumococcal disease
Influenza
Respiratory syncytial virus

A

Influenza

Influenza is respiratory disease that strikes from November through April and causes the death of as many as 20,000 people annually.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. People over the age of 65; individuals with weakened immune systems or chronic diseases of the heart, lung, or kidneys; and healthcare workers should receive which of the following vaccines as recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)?

Pneumovax
Influenza vaccine
Pneumococcal vaccine
MMR vaccine

A

Influenza vaccine

Because individuals over the age of 65 may have weakened immune systems or chronic diseases of the heart, lungs, or kidneys, the CDC recommends these people receive the influenza vaccine. Healthcare workers should also receive the vaccine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. Healthcare team members should ask individuals if they are allergic to __________ to prevent an adverse reaction to the influenza vaccine.

Shellfish
Penicillin
Eggs
Pollen

A

Eggs

Healthcare workers should ask individuals if they are allergic to eggs to help select the correct vaccination protocol for administration of the influenza vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. Which is a condition treated by a combination of three drugs for two to six months?

Tuberculosis
Strep throat
Sinusitis
Bronchitis

A

Tuberculosis

Tuberculosis is treated by a combination of three drugs for two to six months. The drugs are isoniazid, rifampin, and ethambutol for two months, followed by four months of isoniazid and rifampin. After a negative culture, continue therapy for three months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. Which is a nicotine patch used to promote smoking cessation?

Nitro-Dur
Habitrol
Zyban
Proventil

A

Habitrol

Habitrol is a nicotine patch used to promote smoking cessation. It is applied topically.

42
Q
  1. Which is an example of a narcotic antitussive?

Codeine
Dextromethorphan
Rifampin
Albuterol

A

Codeine

Codeine is a narcotic antitussive.

43
Q
  1. Fexofenadine (Allegra), loratadine (Claritin), and cetirizine hydrochloride (Zyrtec) are all examples of which of the following types of medication?

Antihistamines
Decongestants
Antitussives
Mucolytics

A

Antihistamines

Fexofenadine (Allegra), loratadine(Claritin), and cetirizine hydrochloride (Zyrtec) are all antihistamines used to treat respiratory problems.

44
Q
  1. Which is one of the first signs of upper respiratory cancer?

Dyspnea
Persistent hoarseness
Productive cough
Orthostatic hypotension

A

Persistent hoarseness

One of the first signs of upper respiratory cancer is persistent hoarseness.

45
Q
  1. Which of the following apply to lung cancer?

Inhalation of cigarette smoke is a well-known risk Always spreads to other parts of the body
Coughing is part of treatment
May only be treated surgically

A

Inhalation of cigarette smoke is a well-known risk

Inhalation of cigarette smoke, including second hand smoke, is a well-known risk for lung cancer.

46
Q
  1. The exchange of gases between blood and air is called _______________.
A

respiration

Explanation: The exchange of gases between blood and air is called respiration.

47
Q
  1. As air enters the nose, very small hairs called ___________ warm and moisten the air and trap dust particles and bacteria.
A

cilia

Explanation: As air enters the nose, small hairs called cilia warm and moisten the air and trap dust particles and bacteria.

48
Q
  1. The _______________ is a tubelike structure that extends from the base of the skull to the esophagus, and serves both the respiratory tract and the digestive tract.
A

pharynx

Explanation: Serving both the respiratory and digestive tracts, the pharynx is a tubelike structure that extends from the base of the skull to the esophagus.

49
Q
  1. The __________, or voice box, lies at the upper end of the trachea just below the pharynx.
A

larynx

Explanation: The medical term for voice box is the larynx. It lies at the upper end of the trachea just below the pharynx.

50
Q
  1. The ________________ is a leaf-shaped structure on top of the larynx that closes the airway when a person swallows, and keeps food and saliva from entering the lungs.
A

epiglottis

Explanation: The epiglottis is a leaf-shaped structure on top of the larynx that closes the airway when the patient swallows, and keeps food and saliva from entering the lungs.

51
Q
  1. The _______________ is also called the windpipe, and connects the larynx to the bronchi.
A

trachea

Explanation: The medical term for windpipe is trachea; it connects the larynx to the bronchi.

52
Q
  1. The trachea branches off into two tubes, the right and left _______________, which lead to the right and left lungs.
A

bronchi

Explanation: The trachea branches off into two tubes, the right and left bronchi, which lead to the right and left lungs.

53
Q
  1. The ________________ are tiny air sacs in the lungs that permit the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide through the capillary walls.
A

alveoli

Explanation: Alveoli are tiny air sacs in the lungs that permit the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide through the capillary walls.

54
Q
  1. The normal adult respiration rate varies between _________ and ___________ breaths per minute.
A

12; 20

Explanation: The normal respiratory rate for adults is between 12 and 20 breaths per minute.

55
Q
  1. Breathing is accomplished by the muscles around the ribs and by the ___________________, a layer of muscle tissue that separates the chest cavity from other internal organs.
A

diaphragm

Explanation: Breathing is accomplished by the muscles around the ribs and by the diaphragm. The diaphragm is a layer of muscle tissue that separates the chest cavity from other internal organs.

56
Q
  1. As a routine part of a physical examination, the doctor examines the patient with a ______________, an instrument that amplifies breathing sounds.
A

stethoscope

Explanation: A stethoscope is an instrument that amplifies breathing sounds and is used as part of a routine physical examination.

57
Q
  1. ____________________ is a technique whereby a probe is attached to the ear, finger, toe, or bridge of the nose to measure the oxygen concentration in the blood.
A

Pulse oximetry

Explanation: A technique where a probe is attached to the ear, finger, toe, or bridge of the nose is called a pulse oximetry; it measures the oxygen concentration in the blood.

58
Q
  1. ________________ is a protective reflex to clear the trachea, bronchi, and lungs of secretions and irritants.
A

Coughing

Explanation: The protective reflex to clear the trachea, bronchi, and lungs of secretion is termed coughing.

59
Q
  1. An abnormally thick fluid formed in the lower respiratory tract that may contain blood, pus, or bacteria is called _____________.
A

sputum

Explanation: Sputum is an abnormally thick fluid formed in the lower respiratory tract that may contain blood, pus, or bacteria.

60
Q
  1. A signal that bleeding is occurring in the respiratory tract is blood in the sputum or _________________.
A

hemoptysis

Explanation: Hemoptysis or blood in the sputum is usually a sign that bleeding is occurring in the respiratory tract.

61
Q
  1. __________________ is a high-pitched, musical sound that occurs through a narrowed airway. It is frequently seen in patients with asthma, bronchitis, or allergies.
A

Wheezing

Explanation: Wheezing is a high-pitched, musical sound that occurs through a narrowed airway. It is frequently seen in patients with asthma, bronchitis, or allergies.

62
Q
  1. Shortness of breath or labored breathing is termed ______________.
A

dyspnea

Explanation: Dyspnea is the medical term for shortness of breath or labored breathing.

63
Q
  1. The cessation of breathing, which often occurs during sleep, is termed ____________.
A

apnea

Explanation: The medical term for cessation of breathing, which often occurs while sleeping, is apnea.

64
Q
  1. A patient who has great difficulty breathing when lying down, but who can breathe more easily when in a sitting or standing position, demonstrates _____________.
A

orthopnea

Explanation: The medical term for having great difficulty breathing when lying down is called orthopnea. The individual normally can breathe easier when in a sitting or standing position.

65
Q
  1. Tachypnea is __________ breathing.
A

rapid

Explanation: The medical term for rapid breathing is tachypnea.

66
Q
  1. All pneumonias are ____________ of the lower respiratory tract (bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli).
A

infections

Explanation: Pneumonia is defined as an infection of the lower respiratory tract (bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli).

67
Q
  1. Bronchitis is a(n) ____________________ of the air passageways caused by irritants.
A

inflammation

Explanation: The definition of bronchitis is an inflammation of the air passageways caused by irritants.

68
Q
  1. The term ______________ is used to describe a condition that is long term, usually lasting more than six months.
A

chronic

Explanation: Chronic is defined as a long-term condition usually lasting more than six months.

69
Q
  1. A condition in which the air sacs dilate and are unable to contract to their original size, causing residual air to be trapped in them, is _________________.
A

emphysema

Explanation: The condition in which the air sacs dilate and are unable to contract to their original size, causing residual air to be trapped in them, is called emphysema.

70
Q
  1. Substances in the environment, food additives, exercise, drug allergies, illness, or emotional upset can cause a(n) _____________ attack. .
A

asthma

Explanation: Causative agents of asthma are substances in the environment, food additives, exercise, drug allergies, illness, or emotional upset

71
Q
  1. The goal of asthma treatment is to relieve the constriction of the bronchioles. To do this, the drugs of choice are ___________________.
A

bronchodilators

Explanation: The drugs of choice for asthma are bronchodilators. They relieve the constriction of the bronchioles.

72
Q
  1. A(n) ________________ is a device that measures the air flowing out of the lungs, called the peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR), as a patient blows forcefully into the device.
A

peak flow meter

Explanation: A peak flow meter is a device that measures the air flowing out of the lungs, called the peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR), as a patient blows forcefully into the device.

73
Q
  1. Cancer of the lung is the most common cancer of the lower respiratory tract; it is the leading cause of all cancer _____________.
A

deaths

Explanation: The leading cause of all cancers is cancer of the lung, the most common cancer of the lower respiratory tract.

74
Q
  1. To treat strep throat, the disease-causing bacterium may need to be identified by means of a throat culture. Then, a systemic _________________ is prescribed to kill that specific bacterium.
A

antibiotic

Explanation: To treat strep throat, the disease-causing bacterium may need to be identified by means of a throat culture. Then systemic antibiotic is prescribed to kill that specific bacterium.

75
Q
  1. “Seasonal rhinitis” is an allergic reaction to the ____________ in the air during the late summer and fall.
A

pollen

Explanation: Seasonal rhinitis is an allergic reaction to the pollen in the air during the late summer and fall.

76
Q
  1. Nicotine ________________, which is brought on by tobacco products, is a physical vulnerability of the body to the chemical nicotine.
A

dependence

Explanation: Nicotine dependence, which is caused by tobacco products, is a physical vulnerability of the body to the chemical nicotine.

77
Q
  1. The greatest at-risk population for nicotine dependence is _______________.
A

adolescents

Explanation: Adolescents are at greatest risk for nicotine dependence. Over 90 percent of smokers are between the ages of 18 and 21.

78
Q
  1. Smoking cessation generally occurs with nicotine _______________ therapy.
A

replacement

Explanation: Smoking cessation generally occurs with nicotine replacement therapy. Examples are nicotine gum and nicotine lozenges, which are available without a prescription.

79
Q
  1. Antitussive drugs are ____________ suppressants.
A

cough

Explanation:
Antitussive drugs are cough suppressants.

80
Q
  1. A cough that brings up sputum is called a(n) _______________ cough.
A

productive

Explanation: A productive cough brings up sputum.

81
Q
  1. A(n) _________________ is a drug that liquefies or breaks down tenacious mucus so it can be coughed up more easily.
A

mucolytic

Explanation: A mucolytic is a drug that liquefies or breaks down tenacious mucus so it can be coughed up more easily.

82
Q
  1. Drugs that reduce congestion or swelling, especially in nasal passages, by constricting blood vessels and restricting blood flow to the area are termed _____________________.
A

decongestants

Explanation: Decongestants are vasoconstrictors used for nasal congestion. They decrease swelling, especially in nasal passages, by constricting blood vessels and restricting blood flow to the area.

83
Q
  1. The reappearance of symptoms in even stronger form after a drug dose has worn off is termed the ________________ effect.
A

rebound

Explanation: The reappearance of symptoms in even stronger form after a drug dose has worn off is called the rebound effect.

84
Q
  1. A drug that counteracts the effects of histamine, thereby relieving allergy symptoms, is a(n) ____________________.
A

antihistamine

Explanation: A drug that counteracts the effects of histamine, relieving symptoms, is called an antihistamine.

85
Q
  1. Drugs for the respiratory system are often given in _______________; for example, a medicine might contain a bronchodilator to open the air passages and an expectorant to loosen the sputum so it can be coughed up.
A

combination

Explanation: Drugs for the respiratory system are often given in combination, such as a medicine that might contain a bronchodilator to open the passages and an expectorant to loosen the sputum so it can be coughed up.

86
Q
  1. A(n) ___________________ may be needed to help patients breathe regularly by mechanical means.
A

ventilator

Explanation: A ventilator may be needed to help patients breathe regularly by mechanical means.

87
Q
  1. The postural drainage technique consists of placing the patient in one of several ________________ so that gravity helps draw secretions from certain areas of the lungs and bronchi into the trachea.
A

positions

Explanation: Postural drainage consists of placing the patient in one of several positions so that gravity helps draw secretions from certain areas of the lungs and bronchi into the trachea.

88
Q
  1. Physical therapy for respiratory patients that involves the tapping of various body organs and structures is termed ________________.
A

percussion

Explanation: Percussion is a type of physical therapy for respiratory patients that involves the tapping of various body organs and structures.

89
Q
  1. Some respiratory drugs, especially antihistamines, may cause ________________. Warn patients not to drive a car or operate heavy equipment while taking them.
A

drowsiness

Explanation: Some respiratory drugs, especially antihistamines, my cause drowsiness. Warn patients not to drive a car or operate heavy equipment while taking them.

90
Q
  1. Lack of oxygen is called _____________.
A

hypoxia

Explanation: The medical term for lack of oxygen is hypoxia.

91
Q
  1. Oxygen should be considered a(n) ________________ and should be prescribed and administered as such.
A

drug

Explanation: Oxygen should be considered a drug and should be prescribed and administered as such.

92
Q
  1. A serious disease that leads to infections of the lungs (pneumonia), the blood (bacteremia), and the covering of the brain (meningitis) is _____________________ disease. This disease kills more people in the United States every year than any other vaccine-preventable disease.
A

pneumococcal

Explanation: A serious disease that leads to infections of the lungs (pneumonia), the blood (bacteremia), and the covering of the brain (meningitis) is pneumococcal disease. The disease kills more people in the United States every year than any other vaccine-preventable disease.

93
Q
  1. The CDC recommends the ________________ vaccine for people over the age of 65 years; individuals with weakened immune systems or chronic diseases of the heart, lungs, and kidneys; and healthcare workers.
A

influenza

Explanation: The CDC recommends the influenza vaccine for people over the age of 65 years; individuals with weakened immune
Page 21of 25
systems or chronic diseases of the heart, lungs, and kidneys; and healthcare workers.

94
Q
  1. The functional units of the lung are termed the ____________.
A

alveoli

Explanation: The functional units of the lung are called the alveoli.

95
Q
  1. During exhalation, _________________ and other waste gases pass out of the body.
A

carbon dioxide

Explanation: During exhalation, carbon dioxide and other waste gases pass out of the body

96
Q
  1. A serious respiratory virus that strikes from November to April is _____________________.
A

influenza

Explanation: Influenza is a serious respiratory virus that strikes from November through April.

97
Q
  1. Because the causative agent of pneumococcal disease is resistant to medication therapy, at-risk patients should be encouraged to get the __________________________ that prevents this deadly disease.
A

vaccine

Explanation: Because the causative agent of pneumococcal disease is resistant to medication therapy, at-risk patients should be encouraged to get the vaccine that prevents this deadly disease.

98
Q
  1. Afrin is an example of a decongestant sprayed into the nasal cavity to reduce ______________.
A

swelling

Explanation: Decongestants such as Afrin are sprayed into the nasal cavity to reduce swelling

99
Q
  1. Tremor, anxiety, nervousness, and restlessness are the side effects of albuterol, which is used to treat ________________________.
A

asthma

Explanation: Albuterol is used to treat asthma. The side effects are tremor, anxiety, nervousness, and restlessness.

100
Q

100.A patient with asthma should be educated to use his or her _____________________________ daily to monitor PEFR in order to prevent an attack.

A

peak flow meter

Explanation: Instruct a patient with asthma to use his or her peak flow meter in order to prevent an attack. The peak flow meter provides information on how well the airways are open. It tells how well the treatment plan is working, when to stop or add a medication, when to seek medical care, and what may trigger an asthma attack.