Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Basic Human Pathology > Ch 7: Neoplasia > Flashcards

Ch 7: Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

what are the hallmarks of cancer

A

set of properties that produce certain cellular phenotypes that dictate the natural history of cancer and response to therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is neoplasia

A

new tissue growth that is unregulated, irreversible, and monoclonal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is monoclonal

A

neoplastic cells derived from a single mother cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is benign

A

microscopic and gross features are innocent, the humor is localized, and easily removable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is malignant

A

lesion can invade and destroy nearby structures, can spread, and can cause death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the two basic microscopic components of neoplasia

A

parenchyma is made of transformed cells
supporting host stroma contains connective tissue, blood vessels, and inflammatory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is a fibroma

A

benign growth of fibrous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is a chondroma

A

benign growth of cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is an adenoma

A

benign lesion that produced gland-like features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is a papilloma

A

benign lesion on the surface that produces fronds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is a cystadenoma

A

benign hollow cystic mass
usually in ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is a sarcoma

A

malignant tumor of mesenchymal tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are leukemias and lymphomas

A

malignant tumor of mesenchymal cells in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is a carcinoma

A

malignant tumor of epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is an adenocarcinoma

A

malignant, epithelial tumor with glandular pattern of growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is a squamous cell carcinoma

A

malignant, epithelial tumor that produces squamous cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does differentiation mean

A

when new growing parenchymal cells resemble the corresponding normal parenchymal cells
(does the cell still look and function like itself)
if poorly differentiated, suggestive of malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is divergent differentiation and what are three examples

A

mixed tumors due to the progenitor cell having the ability to differentiate into more than one lineage
ex. pleomorphic adenoma, fibroadenoma, and teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is a pleomorphic adenoma

A

mixed salivary gland tumor made of a epithelial component and fibromxyoid stroma
example of divergent differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is a pleomorphic tumor

A

tumor with more than one form; mixed tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is a fibroadenoma

A

proliferating ductal elements and in loose fibrous tissue
example of divergent differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is a teratoma

A

mixed tumor of mature and immature elements derived from one or more germ layers
example of divergent differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is a solitary fibrous tumor

A

benign, lung pleural tumor made of solid dense fibrous tissue
not linked to asbestos exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is malignant mesothelioma and what is it caused by

A

malignant lung pleural tumor with disseminated nodules or plaques
spreads
caused by homozygous deletion of chromosome 9p leading to loss of the tumor suppressor gene CDKN2A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is a hamartoma

A

benign mass of proliferating cartilage outside of the bronchial tree in the lung parenchyma
appear as coin lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is a choristoma

A

a benign congenital anomaly consisting of a heterotropic nest of cells in a place where they shouldn’t be
believed to occur during embryonic development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is a lingual osseous choristoma

A

benign area of bone found in the tongue due abnormal folding during embryonic development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is a choristoma of foregut

A

presence of pancreatic tissue in different places of the foregut or mesentery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is anaplasia

A

lack of differentiation - cells don’t look like they should
indication of malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is hyperchromatic

A

darkly stained nuclei that is suggestive of malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is pleomorphism

A

variation in size and shape of tumor cells that is suggestive of malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is anisonucleosis

A

variation in size and shape of nuclei that is suggestive of malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is nuclei-cytoplasmic ratio

A

ratio of size of nucleus to cell (normal is 1:4 - 1:6)
can increase 1:1 and be suggestive of malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are nucleolar changes

A

prominent or lots of changes in the nucleolus which are suggestive of malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is loss of polarity

A

disrupted orientated of cells (they become crooked) which is suggestive of malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are mitotic figures

A

numerous mitotic figures which can be suggestive of malignancy
easiest thing to recognize malignancy through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are tumor giant cells

A

multinucleate tumor giant cells with large bizarre nuclei that are suggestive of malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are functional changes

A

certain things like glands stop functioning which can be suggestive of malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are chromosomal abnormalities in relation to malignancy

A

those with certain chromosomal abnormalities are more susceptible to malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are a few of the main differences between a benign and malignant tumor

A

capsulated vs non-capsulated
slow vs fast growing
metastasis
cell morphology
necrosis vs no necrosis
invasive vs non-invasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are the three pathways of malignant dissemination (metastasis)

A

seeding
lymphatic spread
hematogenous spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is seeding within the body cavities

A

a metastasis mechanism where seeds of the tumor break off and spread to other areas
typical of ovarian cancers going to peritoneal surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is lymphatic spread and which cancers use it most

A

tumor travels through lymphatics
typical of carcinomas like breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is hematogenous spread and which cancers use it most

A

tumor spreads through vascular supply
typical of sarcomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is a sentinel lymph node

A

the first node in a regional lymphatic basin that receives lymph flow from the primary tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are the four steps of metastasis

A

1.) loosening of cell to cell contacts
2.) degradation of the extracellular matrix
3.) attachment to the novel extracellular matrix components
4.) migration of tumor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is loss of cell-to-cell contacts

A

first step of metastasis which is caused by inactivation of E-cadherin by a variety of pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the breakdown of the extra-cellular matrix

A

second step of metastasis which is mediated by proteolytic enzymes secreted by the tumor and stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the attachment of extra-cellular matrix components

A

third step of metastasis where proteolytic enzymes release growth factors that cleave fragments from the ECM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the migration of tumor cells

A

fourth step of metastasis where tumor moves, usually to a specific site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is organ tropism

A

when a primary tumor metastasizes to a specific site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

where do breast, colon, kidney, and lung cancers like to metastasis to

A

liver and lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is skip metastasis

A

cancer reaches blood vessel by thoracic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

which tumor tends to grow in veins

A

renal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the relationship between age and cancer

A

as you age, you’re more likely to get cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

cancer accounts for what % of all deaths in children under 15

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what are three acquired predisposing conditions to cancer

A

chronic inflammation (IBD)
immunodeficiency status (HIV)
precursor lesions (cervical dysplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what are proto-oncogenes

A

genes that are essential for cell growth and differentiation
once mutated, become oncogenes which lead to unregulated cell growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is p53

A

protein produced by the tumor suppressor gene TP53 gene
regulates progression of cell cycle from G1 to S phase (guardian of the genome)
induces apoptosis if cells are beyond repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is the most frequently mutated gene in human cancers

A

TP53
50% of cancer cases have this gene mutated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is Li-Fraumeni Syndrome

A

mutation in TP53 gene with one defective copy
gives a 25-fold greater chance of developing a malignant tumor before age of 50
can cause: sarcoma, breast cancer, leukemia, brain cancer, and adrenal cortex cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is RB gene

A

tumor supressor gene that regulates progression of cell cycle from G1 to S phase
called governor of cell cycle
if both alleles are mutated, leads to retinoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what do tumor suppressor genes do

A

stop cell proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are some hallmarks of cancer

A

self sufficient in growth signals
insensitive to growth inhibitory signals
altered cell metabolism
won’t go through apoptosis
limitless replicative potential
angiogenesis
metastasis
evasion of immune surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is a point mutation

A

mutation in single nucleotide that can either activate or deactivate protein products
convert porto-oncogenes to oncogenes
can reduce suppressor genes ability to suppress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is the most common, point mutated oncogene

A

KRAS (rat sarcoma)
seen in 30% of tumors
higher in pancreatic adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what are passenger mutations

A

acquired genes that are neutral and do not affect cell behavior
occur randomly throughout genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what are driver mutations

A

alter function of cancer genes and directly contribute to the development or progression of a given cancer
usually acquired but can be inherited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what are gene rearrangements

A

translocation or inversions
seen commonly in hemopoietic or mesenchymal derived malignancies
can activate proton-oncogenes
occur mostly in lymphoid tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what are gene deletions

A

deletion of specific regions of chromosomes can lead to loss of particular tumor suppressor gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what are gene amplifications

A

porto-oncogenes converted into oncogenes during amplification
leads to over-expression of normal protein

72
Q

what are epigenetic modifications

A

stable and heritable alterations in gene expression and cellular function without changes to original DNA sequence
regulate gene expression

73
Q

what is APC gene

A

adenomatous polypsis coli - gatekeeper of colonic neoplasms
tumor suppressor genes that down regulate growth promoting signal pathways

74
Q

what is von Hipple-Lindau gene

A

targets other proteins to be broken down when not needed
mutation causes von Hipple Syndrome which is associated with renal cell cancers

75
Q

what is HNPCC (hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer syndrome)

A

Lynch syndrome
mutation that causes deficits in the mismatch repair system leading to carcinomas of the colon

76
Q

what is xeroderma pigmentosum

A

rare genetic syndrome with a defective DNA nucleotide excision repair
presents with extreme sensitivity to UV light and has a high risk of developing skin cancer

77
Q

how is angiogenesis controlled/regulated/treated

A

triggered by hypoxia
regulated by p53 protein, RAS, and MYC
treated using VEGF inhibitors

78
Q

what is VEGF

A

proangiogenic factor released by tumor cells
increases blood vessel expression and movement to tumor

79
Q

what is cancer immunoediting

A

ability for a neoplasm to shape its immunogenic properties to avoid elimination
creates immune tolerance and immune suppression

80
Q

what is the most important class of tumor antigens

A

oncogenic viruses

81
Q

what are three stages of cancer enabling inflammation

A

anemia
fatigue
cachexia

82
Q

how does inflammation effect the tumor microenvironment (TME)

A

causes:
proliferation
unregulated growth
invasion and metastasis
resistance to cell dead
resistance to therapy

83
Q

explain the two steps of chemical carcinogenesis

A

initiation: cells exposed to sufficient dose of carcinogen to cause mutations (cells now initiated)
promotors: promotors cause cell proliferation of initiated (mutated) cells; cells pick up more mutations on the wall until they become cancer

84
Q

what is a direct acting carcinogen

A

chemicals that require no metabolic conversion to become carcinogenic
most are weak as carcinogens
can cure cancers but cause a second form (acute myeloid leukemia)

85
Q

what is an indirect acting carcinogen and give three examples

A

chemicals that require metabolic conversion to become active carcinogens (ultimate carcinogen)
ex. polycyclic hydrocarbons, aromatic amines, and azo dyes

86
Q

what is a “hotspot”

A

clustered mutations in specific sequences or bases

87
Q

what are promotors

A

chemical agents that stimulate cell proliferation and expansion of a clone of mutated cells

88
Q

what is a quiescent tissue

A

one that is not actively dividing

89
Q

what is a mitogenic stimulus

A

small protein that stimulates mitosis

90
Q

what are three types of carcinogenic radiant energy

A

UV rays of sunlight
ionizing electromagnetic
particulate radiation

91
Q

what is human T-cell Leukemia Virus Type 1

A

a type of retrovirus that causes adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma

92
Q

what is a retrovirus

A

virus that inserts a copy of its RNA genome into DNA of a host cell that it invades, thus changing the genome of that cell

93
Q

which types of HPV cause benign squamous papilloma’s

A

1,2,4, and 7

94
Q

high risk types of HPV, 16 and 18, are known to cause which three types of squamous cell carcinomas

A

cervix
anogenital region
head and neck

95
Q

which strains of HPV are genital warts

A

6 and 11

96
Q

what is Burkitt lymphoma

A

a disease caused by Epstein-Barr virus
causes nasopharyngeal and gastric cancers

97
Q

what percent of hepatocellular carcinomas are caused by infection with Hep B or Hep C

A

70 to 85%

98
Q

what are the oncogenic effects of Hep B and Hep C

A

chronic inflammation and hepatocyte death

99
Q

what is Helicobacter pylori

A

bacteria that causes peptic ulcers, gastric adenocarcinomas, and gastric lymphoma of B cell origin

100
Q

what is thought to be the cause of cachexia in cancer patients

A

TNFalpha (cachectin)

101
Q

what is type 1 hypercoagulability

A

balance of endogenous heparin production and degradation is disturbed with increase degradation of heparin by tumor-secreting heperanse

102
Q

what is type 2 hypercoagulability

A

procoagulant molecules secreted from tumor cells, leading to hypercoagulability

103
Q

what are paraneoplastic syndromes

A

when cancer patients have signs and symptoms that cannot be explained by the tumor
occurs in 10% of patients

104
Q

what types of cancers can cause cushings

A

small cell carcinoma of lung
pancreatic carcinoma
neural tumors

105
Q

what 4 types of cancers can cause hypercalcemia

A

squamous cell carcinoma of lung
breast carcinoma
renal carcinoma
adult T-cell leukemia

106
Q

what are the two processes involved in cancer-associated hypercalacemia

A

osteolysis (breaking down of bone cells)
production of calcemic humoral substances by extra osseous neoplasms

107
Q

what is a tumor marker

A

present in or produced by cancer cells in response to cancer or other condition
provides information about a cancer like how aggressive it is or what kinda of treatment it needs

108
Q

explain grading of a cancer

A

based on degree of differentiation of cells
ex. changing architecture in the cells (nuclei size)
low to high grade

109
Q

explain staging of a cancer

A

based on size/invasion of the primary lesion, its spread, and metastasis
more helpful than grading
uses TNM system

110
Q

what does T0 mean

A

no tumor

111
Q

which staging system is used for prostate

A

Gleason’s grading pattern

112
Q

which staging system is used for breast

A

Nottingham Histology scoring system

113
Q

new tissue growth that is unregulated, irreversible, and monoclonal

A

what is neoplasia

114
Q

neoplastic cells derived from a single mother cell

A

what is monoclonal

115
Q

benign growth of fibrous tissue

A

what is a fibroma

116
Q

benign growth of cartilage

A

what is a chondroma

117
Q

benign lesion that produced gland-like features

A

what is an adenoma

118
Q

benign lesion on the surface that produces fronds

A

what is a papilloma

119
Q

benign hollow cystic mass
usually in ovary

A

what is a cystadenoma

120
Q

malignant tumor of mesenchymal tissue

A

what is a sarcoma

121
Q

malignant tumor of mesenchymal cells in the blood

A

what are leukemias and lymphomas

122
Q

malignant tumor of epithelial cells

A

what is a carcinoma

123
Q

malignant, epithelial tumor with glandular pattern of growth

A

what is an adenocarcinoma

124
Q

malignant, epithelial tumor that produces squamous cells

A

what is a squamous cell carcinoma

125
Q

when new growing parenchymal cells resemble the corresponding normal parenchymal cells
(does the cell still look and function like itself)
if poorly differentiated, suggestive of malignancy

A

what does differentiation mean

126
Q

mixed tumors due to the progenitor cell having the ability to differentiate into more than one lineage
ex. pleomorphic adenoma, fibroadenoma, and teratoma

A

what is divergent differentiation and what are three examples

127
Q

mixed salivary gland tumor made of a epithelial component and fibromxyoid stroma
example of divergent differentiation

A

what is a pleomorphic adenoma

128
Q

tumor with more than one form; mixed tumors

A

what is a pleomorphic tumor

129
Q

proliferating ductal elements and in loose fibrous tissue
example of divergent differentiation

A

what is a fibroadenoma

130
Q

mixed tumor of mature and immature elements derived from one or more germ layers
example of divergent differentiation

A

what is a teratoma

131
Q

benign, lung pleural tumor made of solid dense fibrous tissue
not linked to asbestos exposure

A

what is a solitary fibrous tumor

132
Q

malignant lung pleural tumor with disseminated nodules or plaques
spreads
caused by homozygous deletion of chromosome 9p leading to loss of the tumor suppressor gene CDKN2A

A

what is malignant mesothelioma and what is it caused by

133
Q

benign mass of proliferating cartilage outside of the bronchial tree in the lung parenchyma
appear as coin lesions

A

what is a hamartoma

134
Q

a benign congenital anomaly consisting of a heterotropic nest of cells in a place where they shouldn’t be
believed to occur during embryonic development

A

what is a choristoma

135
Q

benign area of bone found in the tongue due abnormal folding during embryonic development

A

what is a lingual osseous choristoma

136
Q

presence of pancreatic tissue in different places of the foregut or mesentery

A

what is a choristoma of foregut

137
Q

lack of differentiation - cells don’t look like they should
indication of malignancy

A

what is anaplasia

138
Q

darkly stained nuclei that is suggestive of malignancy

A

what is hyperchromatic

139
Q

variation in size and shape of tumor cells that is suggestive of malignancy

A

what is pleomorphism

140
Q

variation in size and shape of nuclei that is suggestive of malignancy

A

what is anisonucleosis

141
Q

prominent or lots of changes in the nucleolus which are suggestive of malignancy

A

what are nucleolar changes

142
Q

disrupted orientated of cells (they become crooked) which is suggestive of malignancy

A

what is loss of polarity

143
Q

certain things like glands stop functioning which can be suggestive of malignancy

A

what are functional changes

144
Q

a metastasis mechanism where seeds of the tumor break off and spread to other areas
typical of ovarian cancers going to peritoneal surfaces

A

what is seeding within the body cavities

145
Q

tumor travels through lymphatics
typical of carcinomas like breast cancer

A

what is lymphatic spread and which cancers use it most

146
Q

tumor spreads through vascular supply
typical of sarcomas

A

what is hematogenous spread and which cancers use it most

147
Q

the first node in a regional lymphatic basin that receives lymph flow from the primary tumor

A

what is a sentinel lymph node

148
Q

when a primary tumor metastasizes to a specific site

A

what is organ tropism

149
Q

cancer reaches blood vessel by thoracic duct

A

what is skip metastasis

150
Q

genes that are essential for cell growth and differentiation
once mutated, become oncogenes which lead to unregulated cell growth

A

what are proto-oncogenes

151
Q

protein produced by the tumor suppressor gene TP53 gene
regulates progression of cell cycle from G1 to S phase (guardian of the genome)
induces apoptosis if cells are beyond repair

A

what is p53

152
Q

mutation in TP53 gene with one defective copy
gives a 25-fold greater chance of developing a malignant tumor before age of 50
can cause: sarcoma, breast cancer, leukemia, brain cancer, and adrenal cortex cancer

A

what is Li-Fraumeni Syndrome

153
Q

tumor supressor gene that regulates progression of cell cycle from G1 to S phase
called governor of cell cycle
if both alleles are mutated, leads to retinoblastoma

A

what is RB gene

154
Q

mutation in single nucleotide that can either activate or deactivate protein products
convert porto-oncogenes to oncogenes
can reduce suppressor genes ability to suppress

A

what is a point mutation

155
Q

acquired genes that are neutral and do not affect cell behavior
occur randomly throughout genome

A

what are passenger mutations

156
Q

alter function of cancer genes and directly contribute to the development or progression of a given cancer
usually acquired but can be inherited

A

what are driver mutations

157
Q

stable and heritable alterations in gene expression and cellular function without changes to original DNA sequence
regulate gene expression

A

what are epigenetic modifications

158
Q

targets other proteins to be broken down when not needed
mutation causes von Hipple Syndrome which is associated with renal cell cancers

A

what is von Hipple-Lindau gene

159
Q

Lynch syndrome
mutation that causes deficits in the mismatch repair system leading to carcinomas of the colon

A

what is HNPCC (hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer syndrome)

160
Q

rare genetic syndrome with a defective DNA nucleotide excision repair
presents with extreme sensitivity to UV light and has a high risk of developing skin cancer

A

what is xeroderma pigmentosum

161
Q

proangiogenic factor released by tumor cells
increases blood vessel expression and movement to tumor

A

what is VEGF

162
Q

ability for a neoplasm to shape its immunogenic properties to avoid elimination
creates immune tolerance and immune suppression

A

what is cancer immunoediting

163
Q

chemicals that require no metabolic conversion to become carcinogenic
most are weak as carcinogens
can cure cancers but cause a second form (acute myeloid leukemia)

A

what is a direct acting carcinogen

164
Q

chemicals that require metabolic conversion to become active carcinogens (ultimate carcinogen)
ex. polycyclic hydrocarbons, aromatic amines, and azo dyes

A

what is an indirect acting carcinogen and give three examples

165
Q

clustered mutations in specific sequences or bases

A

what is a “hotspot”

166
Q

chemical agents that stimulate cell proliferation and expansion of a clone of mutated cells

A

what are promotors

167
Q

one that is not actively dividing

A

what is a quiescent tissue

168
Q

small protein that stimulates mitosis

A

what is a mitogenic stimulus

169
Q

a type of retrovirus that causes adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma

A

what is human T-cell Leukemia Virus Type 1

170
Q

virus that inserts a copy of its RNA genome into DNA of a host cell that it invades, thus changing the genome of that cell

A

what is a retrovirus

171
Q

a disease caused by Epstein-Barr virus
causes nasopharyngeal and gastric cancers

A

what is Burkitt lymphoma

172
Q

bacteria that causes peptic ulcers, gastric adenocarcinomas, and gastric lymphoma of B cell origin

A

what is Helicobacter pylori

173
Q

balance of endogenous heparin production and degradation is disturbed with increase degradation of heparin by tumor-secreting heperanse

A

what is type 1 hypercoagulability

174
Q

procoagulant molecules secreted from tumor cells, leading to hypercoagulability

A

what is type 2 hypercoagulability

175
Q

when cancer patients have signs and symptoms that cannot be explained by the tumor
occurs in 10% of patients

A

what are paraneoplastic syndromes

176
Q

present in or produced by cancer cells in response to cancer or other condition
provides information about a cancer like how aggressive it is or what kinda of treatment it needs

A

what is a tumor marker

Basic Human Pathology (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions