Ch. 35 WS Flashcards

1
Q

Where in the prostate do most cancers occur?

A

in the peripheral glands

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2
Q

Where in the prostate does most benign hyperplasia occur?

A

central (periurethral) portion

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3
Q

List the nodes (in order) in which prostate cancer spreads.

A

Nodes: Periprostatic, obturator, iliac, hypogastric, common iliac, and periaortic.

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4
Q

List the signs and symptoms of prostate cancer (clinical presentation).

A

Decreased urinary stream, frequency, difficulty in starting urination, dysuria, and infrequently even hematuria.

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5
Q

What is a transurethral resection?

A

A surgical procedure of the prostate performed for lower urinary tract obstructive symptoms

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6
Q

What is the standard method used to diagnose prostate cancer?

A

Physical and rectal examination

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7
Q

What is the sensitivity rate for a digital rectal exam?

A

70%

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8
Q

What is the specificity rate for a digital rectal exam?

A

50%

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9
Q

What is the most common histologic type of prostate cancer?

A

adenocarcinoma

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10
Q

What stage disease is prostate cancer that has invaded the seminal vesicles?

A

T3b

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11
Q

What two stages of prostate cancer indicate localized disease limited to the prostate?

A

T1 and T2

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12
Q

What stage disease is prostate cancer that is fixed to the pelvic sidewall or invaded the bladder or rectum?

A

T4

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13
Q

What does M1b mean in the staging of prostate cancer?

A

Metastasized to bone

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14
Q

List the instances in which observation may be a good course of treatment (be sure to read the whole section under the observation heading).

A
  • Patients older than 75 years of age,
  • 65-75 year old patients with small, well-differentiated tumors,
  • T1-T2 stage tumor,
  • Gleason sore of 2-6,
  • a PSA less than 10 ng/mL and
  • a life expectancy of less than 5 years
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15
Q

Which patients are good candidates for a prostatectomy?

A

Patients with resectable stage T1 or T2 prostate cancer who are in good general medical condition and have a life expectancy of at least 10 years.

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16
Q

Which patients are good candidates for external beam radiation and what other treatment is often included with radiation?

A

Stage T3 along with hormone therapy

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17
Q

Which patients are good candidates for radioactive seed implants?

A

Patients with early stage (T1c, T2a-b), low-grade (Gleason sore ,< or = 6), low PSA(< or =10 ng/mL).

18
Q

What permanent sources are used for implants?

A

I-125 and palladium-103

19
Q

How does hormone therapy work?

A

Cuts off the supply of testosterone

20
Q

Which patients are good candidates for chemotherapy?

A

Patients whose cancer has spread outside of the prostate or whose disease does not respond to hormone therapy.

21
Q

When receiving external beam radiation, what determines if the seminal vesicles are to be included in the treatment field?

A

When the risk of involvement is at least in the 10% - 15% range (patients with PSA values greater than 10 ng/mL and with tumors with Gleason scores greater than 6.

22
Q

What is the conventional dose and fractionation scheme to treat the prostate?

A

76Gy (7600cGy) in 38 fractions with 2 Gy(200cGy) per fraction.

23
Q

What is the dose for permanent implants alone?

A

160Gy

24
Q

If a patient is getting external beam radiation followed by permanent seed implants as a boost, what is the typical dose for the external beam portion?

And how much is given during the boost?

A

45 Gy

110Gy with Iodine-125(I-125) and 90 Gy with Palladium-103(Pd-103)

25
Q

What is the dose used for HDR and what radioisotope is used?

A

45.5 Gy using Iridium-192(Ir-192)

26
Q

List three radioactive isotopes used to treat pain due to metastatic prostate cancer to the bone.

A

Strontium-89, radium-226, Samarium-153

27
Q

List some acute side effects of radiation to the prostate.

A

Diarrhea, abdominal cramping, rectal discomfort, and occasionally rectal bleeding which may be caused by transient proctitis.

28
Q

What is the clinical presentation for testicular cancer?

A

Painless swelling or nodular mass in the scrotum

Also sometimes, patients report a dull ache, heaviness, or puling sensation in the scrotum or an aching sensation in the lower abdomen.

29
Q

Why is a biopsy of the testicular mass not recommended?

A

Because seeding into the scrotum could occur and further the disease

30
Q

What is the recommended procedure to make a diagnosis for testicular cancer?

A

Radical orchiectomy through an inguinal incision

31
Q

List two critical structures when treating testicular cancer and the maximum dose to be delivered to each of these structures/organs.

A

Kidney and liver.

If the primary radiation therapy field encompasses most of one kidney, care must be taken to protect at least 2/3 of the kidney from receiving doses higher than 1800 cGy. Limit the dose to a significant volume of the liver to less than 3000 cGy.

32
Q

What is BPH?

A

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy-Enlarged prostate.

Common disorder of men over 65 that is hyperplasia of prostatic tissue, with formation of nodules surrounding the urethra. Can lead to compression of urethra and obstruction of urine.

Is not associated with prostate cancer.

33
Q

What is the most common malignancy of males in the U.S.?

A

Prostate cancer

34
Q

Explain how the Gleason scale works.

A

Gleason devised a quantitative histologic grading system based on the morphologic tumor characteristics

The primary and secondary tumor grades are labeled from 1-5.

35
Q

Define nadir as it relates to prostate cancer?

A

The PSA nadir is the lowest level that the PSA reaches following treatment. It’s an indication of how effective the treatment was and how likely cancer is to recur but the nadir needs to be maintained to be a good indication of the effectiveness of treatment; therefore, measurements should be taken over a period of time

36
Q

What is PSA and what is its relationship to prostate cancer?

A

Prostate Specific antigen. It is a serum marker which can indicate a higher risk for prostate cancer if elevated.

37
Q

Where is the perineum located in males?

A

Between the scrotum and anus

38
Q

What is cryptorchidism?

And What is its relationship to testicular cancer?

A

one or both of the testes fails to descend into the proper position in the scrotum which usually happens in the third trimester of pregnancy.

Increases risk of testicular cancer

39
Q

What age group is most susceptible to testicular cancer?

A

15-35 year old age group

40
Q

How does testicular cancer treatment affect fertility and as a result what might the patient choose to do in order to ensure he can still have children?

A

Chemotherapy commonly causes infertility during treatment and for an undetermined amount of time afterwards. Radiation therapy is thought to not affect the patient’s fertility, but a small dose does reach the opposite testicle. For these reasons it is often necessary to deposit sperm in a sperm bank before any treatment has started.