Ch. 19 Reading Flashcards

1
Q

clinical condition in which the pulmonary system fails to maintain adequate gas exchange.
ALF results from a deficiency in the performance of the pulmonary system
The causes of ALF may be classified as extrapulmonary or intrapulmonary, depending on the origin of the patient’s primary disorder. Extrapulmonary causes include disorders that affect the brain, the spinal cord, the neuromuscular system, the thorax, the pleura, and the upper airways. Intrapulmonary causes include disorders that affect the lower airways and alveoli, the pulmonary circulation, and the alveolar-capillary membrane.
Assessment and dx
Medical management
Nursing managment

A

Acute lung failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The clinical manifestations commonly seen in patients with ALF are usually related to the development of hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and acidosis. ALF is generally accepted as being present when the PaO2 is less than 60 mm Hg. If the patient is also experiencing hypercapnia, the PaCO2 will be greater than 45 mm Hg. In patients with chronically elevated PaCO2 levels, these criteria must be broadened to include a pH less than 7.35.
Tests include bronchoscopy for airway surveillance or specimen retrieval, chest radiography, thoracic ultrasound, thoracic computed tomography (CT), and selected lung function studies.

A

Assessment and dx - Acute lung failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

aimed at treating the underlying cause, promoting adequate gas exchange, correcting acidosis, initiating nutrition support, and preventing complications.
Oxygenation
Ventilation
Pharmacology
Acidosis
Nutrition support
Complications

A

Medical management - Acute lung failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

include supplemental oxygen administration, with either a low-flow system or a high-flow system, and the use of positive pressure ventilation.
The goal is to keep the tissues’ needs satisfied but not produce hypoxemia or hyperoxemia.
Supplemental oxygen administration is effective in treating hypoxemia related to alveolar hypoventilation and V/Q mis-matching.

A

Oxygenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

include the use of nonin-vasive and invasive mechanical ventilation. Depending on the underlying cause and the severity of the ALF, the patient may be treated initially with noninvasive ventilation.
The selection of ventilatory mode and settings depends on the patient’s underlying condition, severity of respiratory failure, and body size. Initially, the patient is started on volume ventilation in the assist/control mode. In a patient with chronic hypercapnia, the settings are adjusted to keep the ABG values within the parameters expected to be maintained by the patient after extubation.

A

Ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Medications to facilitate dilation of the airways may also be beneficial in the treatment of ALF. Bronchodilators, such as beta-2 agonists and anticholinergic agents, aid in smooth muscle relaxation and are of particular benefit to patients with airflow limitations. Methylxanthines, such as aminophylline, are no longer recommended because of their negative side effects. Steroids also are often administered to decrease airway inflammation and enhance the effects of the beta-2 agonists.
Neuromuscular paralysis may be necessary to facilitate optimal ventilation.

A

Pharmacology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hypoxemia causes impaired tissue perfusion, which leads to the production of lactic acid and the development of metabolic acidosis.
Impaired ventilation leads to the accumulation of carbon dioxide and the development of respiratory acidosis.
Sodium bicarbonate may be used if metabolic acidosis is severe (pH less than 7.2), refractory to therapy, and causing dysrhythmias or hemodynamic instability.

A

Acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Failure to provide the patient with adequate nutrition support leads to the development of malnutrition. Both malnutrition and over-feeding can interfere with the performance of the pulmonary system, further perpetuating ALF. Malnutrition decreases the patient’s ventilatory drive and muscle strength, whereas over-feeding increases carbon dioxide production, which increases the patient’s ventilatory demand, resulting in respiratory muscle fatigue.
The enteral route is the preferred method nutrition support is initiated before the third day of mechanical ventilation for well-nourished patients and within 24 hours for malnourished patients.

A

Nutrition support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

experience many complications including ischemic-anoxic encephalopathy, cardiac dysrhythmias, venous thromboembolism (VTE), and stress ulcers.
Ischemic-anoxic encephalopathy: hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and acidosis.
Dysrhythmias: hypoxemia, acidosis, electrolyte imbalances, and the administration of beta-2 agonists; Maintaining oxygenation, normalizing electrolytes, and monitoring medication levels facilitate the prevention and treatment of encephalopathy and dysrhythmias.
VTE: venous stasis resulting from immobility and can be prevented through the use of intermittent pneumatic compression devices and low-dose unfractionated heparin or low molecular-weight heparin (LMWH); be prevented through the use of histamine receptor antagonists and proton pump inhibitors.
at risk for the complications associated with the artificial airway, mechanical ventilation, enteral and parenteral nutrition, and vascular access devices.

A

Complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Nursing actions are driven by the specific cause of the respiratory failure, although there are some common interventions that are appropriate for all patients with ALF.
Optimize oxygenation and ventilation
Educate the patient and family

A

Nursing managment - Acute lung failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

positioning, preventing desaturation, and promoting secretion clearance (providing adequate systemic hydration, humidifying supplemental oxygen, coughing, and suctioning)

A

Optimize oxygenation and ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Early in the patient’s hospital stay, the patient and family are taught about ALF, its causes, and its treatment. Closer to discharge, patient and family education focuses on the interventions necessary for preventing the reoccurrence of the precipitating disorder
Importance of participating in a pulmonary rehabilitation program is stressed.

A

Educate the patient and family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

is a systemic process that is considered to be the pulmonary manifestation of multiple-organ dysfunction syndrome. It is characterized by noncardiac pulmonary edema and disruption of the alveolar-capillary membrane as a result of injury to either the pulmonary vasculature or the airways.
Timing: Within 1 week of known clinical insult or new or worsening respiratory symptoms
Chest imaging: Bilateral opacities not fully explained by effusions, lobar/lung collapse, or nodules
Origin of edema: Respiratory failure not fully explained by heart failure or fluid overload; objective assessment needed to exclude hydrostatic edema if no risk factor present
Oxygenation: Mild (200 mm Hg less than PaO2/fraction of inspired oxygen [FIO2] less than or equal to 300 mm Hg with positive end-expiratory airway pressure [PEEP] or continuous positive airway pressure [CPAP] greater than or equal to 5 cm H2O); moderate (100 mm Hg less than PaO2/FIO2 less than or equal to 200 mm Hg with PEEP greater than or equal to 5 cm H2O); or severe (PaO2/FIO2 less than or equal to 100 mm Hg with PEEP greater than or equal to 5 cm H2O).
Exudative phase
Fibroproliferative phase
Assessment and dx
Medical management
Nursing management

A

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Within the first 72 hours after the initial insult, the exudative phase or acute phase ensues. Once released, the mediators cause injury to the pulmonary capillaries, resulting in increased capillary membrane permeability leading to the leakage of fluid filled with protein, blood cells, fibrin, and activated cellular and humoral mediators into the pulmonary interstitium. Hypoxemia occurs as a result of intrapulmonary shunting and V/Q mismatching secondary to compression, collapse, and flooding of the alveoli and small airways.

A

Exudative phase - Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

begins as disordered healing and starts in the lungs. Cellular granulation and collagen deposition occur within the alveolar-capillary membrane. The alveoli become enlarged and irregularly shaped (fibrotic), and the pulmonary capillaries become scarred and obliterated. This leads to further stiffening of the lungs, increasing pulmonary hypertension, and continued hypoxemia.

A

Fibroproliferative phase - Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

During the exudative phase, the patient presents with tachypnea, restlessness, apprehension, and moderate increase in accessory muscle use. During the fibroproliferative phase, the patient’s signs and symptoms progress to agitation, dyspnea, fatigue, excessive accessory muscle use, and fine crackles as respiratory failure develops.
Initially the chest radiograph may be normal, because changes in the lungs do not become evident for up to 24 hours. As the pulmonary edema becomes apparent, diffuse, patchy interstitial and alveolar infiltrates appear. This progresses to multifocal consolidation of the lungs, which appears as a “whiteout” on the chest radiograph.

A

Assessment and dx - Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

treating the underlying cause, promoting gas exchange, supporting tissue oxygenation, and preventing complications. Given the severity of hypoxemia, the patient is intubated and mechanically ventilated to facilitate adequate gas exchange.
Ventilation
Oxygen therapy
Tissue perfusion

A

Medical management - Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Low tidal volume
Permissive hypercapnia
Pressure control ventilation
Inverse ratio ventilation
High-frequency oscillatory ventilation

A

Ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Low tidal volume ventilation uses smaller
tidal volumes (6 mL/kg) to ventilate the patient in an attempt to
limit the effects of barotrauma and volutrauma.
Goal: provide the maximum tidal volume possible, while maintaining
end-inspiratory plateau pressure less than 30 cm H2O.
allow
for adequate carbon dioxide elimination, the respiratory rate is
increased to 20 to 30 breaths/min.42,43

A

Low tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Allow for adequate carbon dioxide elimination, the respiratory rate is increased to 20 to 30 breaths/min.
As a general rule, the patient’s PaCO2 should not rise faster than 10 mm Hg per hour and overall should not exceed 80 to 100 mm Hg. Because of the negative cardiopulmonary effects of severe acidosis, the arterial pH is generally maintained at 7.20 or greater.
is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial pressure, pulmonary hypertension, seizures, and heart failure.

A

Permissive hypercapnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In pressure control ventilation mode, each breath is delivered or augmented with a preset amount of inspiratory pressure as opposed to tidal volume, which is used in volume ventilation. Thus the actual tidal volume the patient receives varies from breath to breath. Pressure control ventilation is used to limit and control the amount of pressure in the lungs and decrease the incidence of volutrauma. The goal is to keep the patient’s plateau pressure (end-inspiratory static pressure) lower than 30 cm H2O.
Known problem with this mode of ventilation is that as the patient’s lungs get stiffer, it becomes harder and harder to maintain an adequate tidal volume, and severe hypercapnia can occur.

A

Pressure control ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

prolongs the inspiratory time and shortens the expiratory time, thus reversing the normal inspiratory-to-expiratory ratio. The goal of IRV is to maintain a more constant mean airway pressure throughout the ventilatory cycle, which helps keep alveoli open and participating in gas exchange. It also increases FRC and decreases the work of breathing. In addition, as the breath is delivered over a longer period of time, the peak inspiratory pressure in the lungs is decreased. A major disadvantage to IRV is the development of auto-PEEP. As the expiratory phase of ventilation is shortened, air can become trapped in the lower airways, creating unintentional PEEP (or auto-PEEP), which can cause hemodynamic compromise and worsening gas exchange. Patients on IRV usually require heavy sedation with neuromuscular blockade to prevent them from fighting the ventilator.

A

Inverse ratio ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The goal of this method of ventilation is similar to that of IRV in that it uses a constant airway pressure to promote alveolar recruitment while avoiding overdistention of the alveoli. High-frequency oscillatory ventilation uses a piston pump to deliver very low tidal volumes (1 to 3 mL/breath) at very high rates or oscillations (300 to 900 breaths/min).

A

High-frequency oscillatory ventilation

24
Q

Continued exposure to high levels of oxygen can lead to oxygen toxicity, which perpetuates the entire process. The goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain an arterial hemoglobin oxygen saturation of 90% or greater using the lowest level of oxygen, preferably less than 0.50
Positive end-expiratory pressure
Extracorporeal and intracorporeal gas exchange.

A

Oxygen therapy

25
Q

The purpose of using PEEP in a patient with ARDS is to improve oxygenation while reducing FIO2 to less toxic levels. PEEP has several positive effects on the lungs, including opening collapsed alveoli, stabilizing flooded alveoli, and increasing FRC. Thus PEEP decreases intrapulmonary shunting and increases compliance. PEEP also has several negative effects, including (1) decreasing CO as a result of decreasing venous return secondary to increased intrathoracic pressure and (2) barotrauma as a result of gas escaping into the surrounding spaces secondary to alveolar rupture. The amount of PEEP a patient requires is determined by evaluating both arterial hemoglobin oxygen saturation and CO.
10-15 cm H2O usually adequate
If PEEP is too high, it can result in over distention of the alveoli, which can impede pulmonary capillary blood flow, decrease surfactant production, and worsen intrapulmonary shunting. If PEEP is too low, it allows the alveoli to collapse during expiration, which can result in more damage to alveoli.

A

Positive end-expiratory pressure

26
Q

are last-resort techniques used in the treatment of severe ARDS when conventional therapy has failed. These methods allow the lungs to rest by facilitating the removal of carbon dioxide and providing oxygen external to the lungs by means of an “artificial lung,” or membrane/fiber oxygenator.

A

Extracorporeal and intracorporeal gas exchange.

27
Q

depends on an adequate supply of oxygen being transported to the tissues. An adequate CO and hemoglobin level is critical to oxygen transport. CO depends on heart rate, preload, afterload, and contractility.
Goal is to decrease the amount of fluid leakage into the lungs.

A

Tissue perfusion

28
Q

The nurse has a significant role in optimizing oxygenation and ventilation, providing comfort and emotional support, and maintaining surveillance for complications.
Optimize oxygenation and ventilation
include positioning, preventing desaturation, and promoting
secretion clearance.
Prone positioning
appears to be more effective when initiated during the early phases of ARDS and applied for at least 12 hours a day.

A

Nursing management - Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

29
Q

Description and etiology
Assessment and dx
Medical management
Nursing management

A

Pneumonia

30
Q

is an acute inflammation of the lung parenchyma that is caused by an infectious agent that can lead to alveolar consolidation. Pneumonia can be classified as community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP), or ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP).

A

Description and etiology - Pneumonia

31
Q

clinical manifestations of pneumonia vary with the offending pathogen. The patient may first be seen with a variety of signs and symptoms including dyspnea, fever, and cough (productive or nonproductive).
Coarse crackles on auscultation and dullness to percussion may also be present.
Patients with severe CAP may present with confusion and disorientation, tachypnea, hypoxemia, uremia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, hypothermia, and hypotension.
Chest radiography is used to evaluate a patient with suspected pneumonia. The diagnosis is established by the presence of a new pulmonary infiltrate.
sputum Gram stain and culture are done to facilitate identification of the infectious pathogen.

A

Assessment and dx - Pneumonia

32
Q

Includes antibiotic therapy, oxygen therapy for hypoxemia, mechanical ventilation if ALF develops, fluid management for hydration, nutrition support, and treatment of associated medical problems and complications. For patients having difficulty mobilizing secretions, a therapeutic bronchoscopy may be necessary.
Abx therapy
Independent lung ventilation

A

Medical management - Pneumonia

33
Q

Empiric therapy has become a generally acceptable approach. In this approach, choice of antibiotic treatment is based on the most likely etiologic organism while avoiding toxicity, superinfection, and unnecessary cost. If available, Gram stain results are used to guide choices of antibiotics.

A

Abx therapy

34
Q

unilateral pneumonia or severely asymmetric pneumonia, independent lung ventilation, an alternative mode of mechanical ventilation, may be necessary to facilitate oxygenation. As the alveoli in the affected lung become flooded with pus, the lung becomes less compliant and difficult to ventilate. This results in a shifting of ventilation to the good lung without a concomitant shift in perfusion and thus an increase in V/Q mismatching.
allows each lung to be ventilated separately, controlling the amount of flow, volume, and pressure each lung receives.

A

Independent lung ventilation

35
Q

significant role in optimizing oxygenation and ventilation, preventing the spread of infection, providing comfort and emotional support, and maintaining surveillance for complications.
Optimize oxygenation and ventilation
Prevent spread of infection

A

Nursing management

36
Q

include positioning, preventing desaturation, and promoting secretion clearance.

A

Optimize oxygenation and ventilation

37
Q

directed at eradicating pathogens from the environment and interrupting the spread of organisms from person to person.
Proper hand hygiene is the most important measure
meticulous oral care, including suctioning of the secretions pooling above the cuff of the artificial airway, is critical to decreasing the bacterial colonization of the oropharynx.

A

Prevent spread of infection

38
Q

Description and etiology
Assessment and dx
Medical management
Nursing management

A

Air Leak Disorders

39
Q

consist of conditions that result in extraalveolar air accumulation. These disorders are commonly divided into two categories: pneumothorax and barotrauma.
A pneumothorax occurs with the accumulation of air or other gas in the pleural space. Barotrauma is the result of excessive pressure in the alveoli that can lead to extreme alveolar wall stress and damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane, causing air to escape into the surrounding spaces.
The two main causes of air leak disorders are (1) disruption of the parietal or visceral pleura, which allows air to enter the pleural space, and (2) rupture of alveoli, which allows air to enter the interstitial space.
One of the most common causes of barotrauma is mechanical ventilation.

A

Description and etiology - Air Leak Disorders

40
Q

pneumothorax
Barotrauma

A

Assessment and dx - Air Leak Disorders

41
Q

A large, decreased respiratory excursion on the affected side may be noticed, along with bulging intercostal muscles. The trachea may deviate away from the affected side. Percussion reveals hyperresonance with decreased or absent breath sounds over the affected area. ABG analysis demonstrates hypoxemia and hypercapnia. A chest radiograph confirms the pneumothorax with increased translucency evident on the affected side

A

pneumothorax

42
Q

much more subtle. Subcutaneous emphysema is manifested by crepitus, usually around the face, neck, and upper chest. Stabbing substernal pain with position changes and with increased ventilation is the most commonly reported symptom of a pneumomediastinum. A clicking or crunching sound synchronous with the heart sounds may be heard over the apex of the heart (Hamman sign). A friction rub may be heard with a pneumopericardium. Barotrauma is also confirmed by radiography. Extraalveolar air, as evidenced by increased translucency, is present in the affected area

A

Barotrauma

43
Q

pneumothorax of less than 15% usually requires no treatment other than supplemental oxygen administration, unless complications occur or underlying lung disease or injury is present.
A pneumothorax greater than 15% requires intervention to evacuate the air from the pleural space and facilitate reexpansion of the collapsed lung.
Tension pneumothorax

A

Medical management - Air Leak Disorders

44
Q

Interventions include aspiration of the air with a needle and placement of a small-bore (12 to 20 Fr) or large-bore (24 to 40 Fr) chest tube.
After the chest tubes are placed, the suction-control chamber is attached to an external suction regulator, which is adjusted until the desired level of suction is established (usually 20 cm H2O).

A

A pneumothorax greater than 15% requires intervention to evacuate the air from the pleural space and facilitate reexpansion of the collapsed lung.

45
Q

As pressure inside the pleural space increases, it results in collapse of the lung and shifting of the mediastinum and trachea to the unaffected side resulting in decreased venous return and compression of the unaffected lung. Clinical signs include diminished breath sounds, hyperresonance to percussion, tachycardia, and hypotension. Treatment comprises administration of supplemental oxygen and insertion of a large-bore needle or catheter into the second intercostal space at the midclavicular line of the affected side. This action relieves the pressure within the chest. The needle remains in place until the patient is stabilized and a chest tube is inserted.

A

Tension pneumothorax

46
Q

has a significant role in optimizing oxygenation and ventilation, maintaining the chest drainage system, providing comfort and emotional support, and maintaining surveillance for complications.
Optimize oxygenation and ventilation
Maintain chest drainage system

A

Nursing management - Air Leak Disorders

47
Q

include positioning, preventing desaturation, and promoting secretion clearance.

A

Optimize oxygenation and ventilation

48
Q

involves careful attention to the suction applied and to maintenance of unobstructed drainage tubes.
Kinks and large loops of tubing must be avoided because they impede drainage and air evacuation, which may prevent timely lung reexpansion or may result in a tension pneumothorax. Retained drainage also becomes an excellent medium for bacterial growth. The system is routinely observed for air leaks.
After the area of the leak is located, it can be taped to reestablish a seal, or the system can be replaced.
A sterile occlusive dressing and a bottle of sterile water should be available at the patient’s bedside at all times.
Throughout the duration of chest tube placement, the patient is assessed periodically for reexpansion of the lung and for complications associated with the chest drainage system.
The thorax and lungs are assessed, paying particular attention to any tracheal deviation, asymmetry of chest movement, presence of subcutaneous emphysema, characteristics of breathing, quality of lung sounds, and presence of tympany or percussion sounds, which are indicative of pneumothorax.

A

Maintain chest drainage system

49
Q

is a secondary disorder that occurs when a patient requires assisted ventilation longer than expected given the patient’s underlying condition. It is the result of complex medical problems that do not allow the weaning process to take place in a normal and timely manner.
patient has failed multiple weaning attempts.
Short weaning:
Difficult weaning:
Prolonged weaning:

A

Description - Mechanical Ventilation Dependence

50
Q

The first weaning attempt results in termination of the weaning process within 1 day either because of successful separation from the ventilator or death.

A

Short weaning:

51
Q

The weaning process is completed after more than 1 day but in less than 1 week after the first separation attempt either because of successful separation from the ventilator or death.

A

Difficult weaning:

52
Q

The weaning process is still not terminated 7 days after the first separation attempt.
Prolonged weaning leading to a successful separation from the ventilator after 7 days or more after the first attempt
Prolonged weaning without successful separation from the ventilator

A

Prolonged weaning:

53
Q

goal of medical and nursing management of patients with LTMVD is successful weaning.

A

Medical and nursing management - Mechanical Ventilation Dependence

54
Q

Weaning is deemed successful when a patient is able to breathe spontaneously for 24 hours without ventilatory support. When this occurs, the patient may be extubated or decannulated at any time, although this is not necessary for weaning to be considered successful.

A

Weaning completed - Mechanical Ventilation Dependence

55
Q

Weaning is deemed incomplete when a patient has reached a plateau (5 days at the same ventilatory support level without any changes) in the weaning process despite managing the physiologic and psychological factors that impede weaning. Thus the patient is unable to breathe spontaneously for 24 hours without full or partial ventilatory support.

A

Incomplete weaning - Mechanical Ventilation Dependence