Ch 19: Disorders Associated with the Immune System Flashcards

1
Q

What is a hypersensitivity reaction?

A
  • Overreaction of the immune system to antigens, leading to damage
  • Requires sensitization (a prior exposure)
  • Allergies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How long after exposure to an antigen does each of the four types of hypersensitivity reactions occur?

A
  1. Anaphylactic → <30 mins
  2. Cytotoxic → 5-12 hours
  3. Immune complex → 3-8 hours
  4. Delayed cell-mediated/hypersensitivity → 24-48 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do anaphylactic reactions begin?

A
  • IgE to allergen trigger mast cells and basophils
  • Mast cells and basophils release histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where are mast cells located?

A

Connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mast cells play a role in ____ (5)

A
  1. Wound healing
  2. Angiogenesis
  3. Immune tolerance
  4. Defense against pathogens
  5. Allergy and anaphylaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some examples of localized anaphylaxis? (3)

A
  1. Hives
  2. Hay fever
  3. Asthma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

97% of food allergies are due to what 8 foods?

A
  1. Eggs
  2. Peanuts
  3. Tree nuts
  4. Milk
  5. Soy
  6. Fish
  7. Wheat
  8. Peas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Systemic anaphylaxis results from _____

A

Injection or ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cytotoxic reactions are caused by _______ and lead to _____

A
  • Complement activation
  • Cell lysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Blood transfusion reactions are which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type II (cytotoxic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do antibodies against A and B blood group antigens arise?

A
  • Presumed to arise in response to microorganisms in ingested food
  • Have antigenic determinants very similar to blood groups (sugars)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which blood type is more susceptible to cholera?

A

Type O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Populations with low type ____ blood type(s) may be more susceptible in smallpox epidemics

A

Type A and AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which blood type is less severely affected by malaria?

A

Type O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In hemolytic disease of a newborn (HDNB), what are the blood types of mother vs fetus?

A
  • Mother Rh-
  • Fetus Rh+
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In HDNB, what drug is given to pregnant women to bind fetal RBCs and keep them from mounting an immune response to Rh

A

RhoGAM (antibodies to Rh antigen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In drug-induced cytotoxic reactions, upon second exposure the drug binds to the surfaces of platelets, granulocytes, and RBCs. What do they each causing ____(3).

A
  1. Platelets → thrombocytopenic purpura
  2. Granulocytes → agranulocytosis
  3. RBCs → hemolytic anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Explain type III hypersensitivity reactions.

A
  • IgG antibodies and antigens for immune complexes
  • Lodge at basement membrane
  • Attracts neutrophils which release enzymes that cause damage
19
Q

Type IV hypersensitivities are delayed due to?

A

T-cell and macrophage infiltration takes time

20
Q

What are some examples of type IV hypersensitivity reactions?

A
  1. Allergic contact dermatitis
  2. Hives
21
Q

True or false. Having autoantibodies guarantees autoimmune disease.

A

False. Only certain disease of the immune system generate significant amounts of autoantibodies

22
Q

Cytotoxic autoimmune diseases are caused by?

A
  • Antibodies reacting with cell-surface antigens
  • (Ex: Graves’ disease & myasthenia gravis)
23
Q

_____ is caused by autoantibodies that stimulate thyroid gland receptors, thus increasing levels of thyroid hormone.

A

Graves disease

24
Q

____ is caused by autoantibodies that bind acetylcholine receptors, making muscles effectively weaker.

A

Myasthenia gravis

25
Q

____ is caused by immune complex deposition in the kidney.

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

26
Q

_____ is caused by immune complex deposition in the joints.

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

27
Q

_______ is caused by a T-cell mediated attack on myelin in the CNS

A

Multiple sclerosis

28
Q

Organ transplant requires matching ______

A

HLA types

29
Q

Where are the “privileged sites” for transplants? (4)

A
  1. Cornea - no circulation
  2. Brain - blood brain barrier
  3. Heart valve - xenografts are successful
  4. Fetus - in part, due to placent’s HLA molecules
30
Q

What does “pluripotent” mean?

A

Describes a cell that can differentiate into any cell type

31
Q

What is an isograft?

A

Use of an identical twin’s tissue

32
Q

What is an allograft?

A

Use of tissue from another person

33
Q

What is a xenograft?

A

Use of nonhuman tissue

34
Q

_______ can result from transplanted bone marrow that contains immunocompetent cells.

A

Graft-versus-host disease

35
Q

Immunosuppression involves suppression of what cytokine? Why?

A
  • IL-2
  • Major growth factor for T-cells
36
Q

_____ is a drug that is used to down-regulate the expression of IL-2 in T-cells

A

Cyclosporine

37
Q

______ cells lyse abnormal cells, such as cancer cells.

A

CTL (activated TC)

38
Q

What is Coley’s toxin?

A
  • Endotoxin of gram-negative bacteria that cause typhoid fever
  • Stimulates TNF-production of macrophages
  • Potential immunotherapy for cancer
39
Q

______ is caused by a deletion on chromosome location 22q11.2, which results in patients missing a thymus gland

A

DiGeorge syndrome

40
Q

Nude mice lack ______, a transcription factor needed for development of many organs, including the thymus and hair follicles

A

FOXN1

41
Q

HIV primarily infects ______ cells

A

CD4+ T-cells

42
Q

Which surface protein on HIV allows it to enter a cell?

A

gp120

43
Q

Explain the 3 phases of HIV infection.

A
  1. Asymptomatic or chronic lymphadenopathy (~3 years)
  2. Symptomatic; early indication of immune failure
  3. AIDS indicator conditions; extremely low T-cells
44
Q

What is HAART therapy?

A
  • Highly active antiretroviral therapy
  • Combinations of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor plus
    • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor OR
    • Protease inhibitor