Ch. 11 - Animal Forms and Function (G-I) NO F Flashcards

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1
Q

Muscle contraction can result in movement, ____ of position, movement of substances throughout body, generation of ____

A

____
stabilization
body heat

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2
Q

Organization of Vertebrate Skeleton
- Axial skeleton – ____ (skull, vertebral column, rib cage)

  • Appendicular skeleton – bones of appendages, ____ and ____
A

basic framework
pectoral
pelvic girdles

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3
Q

Organization of Vertebrate Skeleton

  • Bone organization
    o Sutures – ____ (holds together bones of skull)

o Moveable joints – bones that move relative to each other

    • Ligaments – ____ connectors; strengthen joints
    • Tendons- ____; ____ skeleton at moveable joints
A

immovable joints
bone-to-bone
muscle-to-bone
BEND

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4
Q

Organization of Vertebrate Skeleton

o Origin – point of attachment of muscle to ____ bone

o Insertion – point of attachment of muscle to bone that ____

o Extension = ____ of joint

o Flexion = ____ of joint

A

stationary
moves
straightening
bending

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5
Q

Joint types

  1. Fibrous – connect bones without allowing any ____ (Ex: skull, ____, spinous process and vertebrae)
A

movement

pelvis

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6
Q

Joint types

  1. Cartilaginous – bones attached by ____, allow ____ movement (Ex: ____ and ____)
A

cartilage
little
spine
ribs

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7
Q

Joint types

  1. Synovial – allow for much more ____; most common; filled with ____ which acts as a lubricant (Ex: carpals, wrist,
    elbow, humerus & ulna, shoulder and hip joints, knee joint)
A

movement

synovial fluid

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8
Q

Muscular system- consists of ____ held together by ____

  1. Skeletal muscle (____ muscle) – voluntary movement, fibers are ____ cells
    a. Myofibrils – filaments divided into ____
    b. Sarcomeres – individual contractile units separated by a border (____)
    c. Sarcoplasmic reticulum – stores Ca2+; surrounds ____
    d. Sarcoplasm – cytoplasm

e. Sarcolemma – ____ of muscle cells; can propagate ____
i. Invaginated by ____- channels for ion flow
ii. Wraps several myofibrils together to form a muscle cell/muscle fiber

f. Mitochondria – present in large amounts in ____

A

contractile fibers
connective tissue

striated
multinucleated

sarcomeres

Z-line

myofibrils

plasma membrane
action potential
T-tubules

myofibrils

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9
Q

Sarcomere – is composed of thin filaments (____) and thick filaments (____)

  • Z line – ____ of a single sarcomere; anchor ____
  • M line – ____ of sarcomere
  • I band – region containing ____ only (on ends, only purple above)
  • H zone – region containing ____ only (in middle, only green above)
  • A band – actin and myosin ____ (one end of overlap to the other end of overlap)

o H and I ____ during contraction, while A ____

A

actin
myosin

boundary
thin filaments

center

thin filaments (actin)

thick filaments (myosin)

overlap

reduce
does not

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10
Q

Contraction –
Stimulation Process of Sliding Filament Model – ____ response

  1. Action potential of neuron releases ____ when meets neuromuscular jxn
  2. Action potential then generated on ____ and throughout ____
  3. Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases ____
  4. Myosin ____ form – result of Ca2+ binding to troponin on actin helix
A

all or nothing

acetylcholine

sarcolemma
T-tubules

Ca2+

cross bridges

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11
Q

Sliding Filament Model
1. ATP binds to myosin head – converted to ____, which remain attached to head

  1. Ca2+ exposes ____ on actin – binds troponin -> tropomyosin exposes attachment sites
  2. Cross bridges between myosin heads and actin filaments form
  3. ADP + Pi are ____ -> sliding motion of actin bring ____ together (contraction, ____)
  4. New ATP attaches to myosin head, causes cross bridges to ____ – new phosphorylation breaks ____
A

ADP + Pi

binding sites

released
Z-lines
power stroke

unbind
cross bridge

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12
Q

Sliding Filament Model

Without new ATP, the cross bridges remain ____ to myosin head… this is why corpses are stiff

Strength of contraction of ____ cannot be increase, but strength of overall contraction can be increased by recruiting ____

A

attached

single muscle fiber
more muscle fibers

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13
Q

Types of Muscle Response

A) Simple Twitch – response of a ____ to brief stimulus; latent, contraction, relax
1. Latent period – time btw ____ and ____; lag
o Action potential spreads on ____ and Ca2+ ions released
2. Contraction
3. Relaxation (absolute refractory period) – ____ to stimulus

A
single muscle fiber
stimulation
onset of contraction
sarcolemma
unresponsive
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14
Q

Types of Muscle Response

B) Summation and Tetanus –
a. Summation – contractions combine and become stronger and ____ (repeated APs summate)
b. Tetanus – continuous sustained contraction; muscle ____; will release if maintained (in tetanus, rate of muscle stimulation
so fast that twitches blur into one ____)

A

more prolonged

cannot relax
smooth constant

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15
Q

Types of Muscle Response

C) Tonus – state of ____; muscle never completely ____

A

partial contraction

relaxed

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16
Q

Smooth Muscle – mainly involuntary, ____ central nucleus;

____ striation; stimulated by ____ nervous system (EX: lining of bladder, uterus, digestive tract, blood vessel walls, etc).

No ____ organization: intermediate filaments attached to ____ spread throughout cell.

Thick & thin filaments attached to IFs, contract -> IF’s pull ____ together -> smooth muscle length ____.

A

one

lack
autonomic

sarcomere
dense bodies

dense bodies
shrink

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17
Q

Two types of smooth muscle:

  • Single-unit: aka ____, connected by ____, contract as single unit (stomach uterus, urinary bladder)
  • Multiunit: each fiber directly attached to ____; can contract ____ (iris, bronchioles, etc)

In addition to neuronal response, can respond to: hormones, change in ____, O2, ____ levels, ____, [ion]

A

visceral
gap junctions

neuron
independently

pH
CO2
temperature

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18
Q

Cardiac Muscle – ____ appearance (____); ____ central nuclei;

cells separated by ____ that have gap jxn to allow AP’s to ____ via electrical synapse;

involuntary; lots of ____

A

striated
sarcomeres
one or TWO

intercalated discs
chain flow

mitochondria

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19
Q

Both smooth and cardiac muscle are ____ – capable of contracting without stimuli from nerve cells

A

myogenic

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20
Q
  • Muscle fibers of single muscle don’t all contract at once. Single neuron innervates multiple muscle fibers (collectively called ____). Usually: smaller motor units activated ____, then larger ones as needed -> smooth increase in ____. Fine movement uses ____ motor units.
A

motor units
first
force
smallers

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21
Q
  • Skeletal muscle types: Type I (____), lots of ____, lots of mitochondria, ____ endurance.

Type IIA: ____, endurance by not as much as type 1 (____ endurance).

Type IIB: ____, low ____, lots of ____, power.

A

slow-twitch
myoglobin
aerobic

fast-twitch
anaerobic

fast-twitch
myoglobin
glycogen

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22
Q
  • Skeletal muscle generally doesn’t undergo ____ to create new muscle cells (____), but will increase in size (____)
A

mitosis
hyperplasia
hypertrophy

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23
Q

Unicellular locomotion-

  • Protozoans & primitive algae – cilia or flagella by means of ____ and ____
  • Amoeba – extend ____; advancing cell membrane extends forward
A

power stroke
recovery stroke
pseudopodia

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24
Q

Invertebrate locomotion

  • Hydrostatic skeletons
    • Flatworms – bi-layered muscles, ____ and ____, contract against ____
  • —o Contraction causes hydrostatic skeleton to flow ____, lengthening animal
  • Segmented worms (____) – advance by action of ____ on hydrostatic skeleton
  • —o Bristles in lower part of each segment, ____, anchor worm in earth while muscles push ahead
A

longitudinal
circular
hydrostatic skeleton
longitudinally

annelids
muscles
setae

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25
Q

Exoskeleton

- Arthropods – insect exoskeletons composed of hard ____, necessitates ____ for growth

A

chitin

molting

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26
Q

Vertebrate Skeleton- comprised of an ____. Two major components are ____ and ____

A

endoskeleton
cartilage
bone

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27
Q

Vertebrate Skeleton

Cartilage – ____ connective tissue; softer and more flexible; (ex: ear, nose, larynx, trachea, joints)
o 3 types: ____ (most common – reduced friction/absorbs shock in joints), ____, and ____.
o from mesenchyme tissue -> ____ -> produce collagen (present in tissue as ____ with hydroxyproline and
hydroxylysine, ground substance, & elastin fibers ??. Composed primarily of collagen, receive nutrients via diffusion.

A
avascular
hyaline
fibrocartilage
elastic
chondrocytes
triple helix
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28
Q

Vertebrate Skeleton

Bone – connective tissue; hard and strong, while elastic and lightweight
o Functions: support of ____, protection of ____, assistance in body movement, mineral storage, blood cell production, and energy storage in form of ____ in marrow

A

soft tissue
internal organs
adipose cells

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29
Q

Bone has four types of cells surrounded by extensive matrix:
1. Osteoprogenitor/Osteogenic: differentiate into ____

  1. Osteoblasts: secrete collagen and organic compounds upon which bone is formed. Incapable of ____. As matrix released around them -> enveloped by matrix -> differentiate into ____ (remember, Blast means Build)
  2. Osteocytes: incapable of ____; exchange nutrients and waste material w/ blood
  3. Osteoclasts: resorb (destroy) bone matrix, releasing minerals back to blood. Develop from ____.
A

osteoblasts

mitosis
osteocytes

mitosis

monocytes

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30
Q

STRUCTURE OF BONE

Compact bone- highly organized, dense bone that doesn’t appear to have cavities from outside: osteoclasts burrow tunnels (____) throughout.

Osteoclasts are followed by osteoblasts, which lay down new matrix onto tunnel walls forming concentric rings (____).

Osteocytes trapped between the lamella (____) exchange nutrients via ____.

A

haversian canals
lamellae
lacunae
canaliculi

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31
Q

STRUCTURE OF BONE

COMPACT BONE

The Haversian canals also contain blood+lymph vessels and are connected by ____. Entire system of lamellae+Haversian canals is called an ____ (Haversian system). Compact bone is filled with yellow bone marrow that contains ____ cells for fat storage.

A

volkmann’s canals
osteon
adipose

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32
Q

STRUCTURE OF BONE

Spongy (____) bone- less dense and consists of an interconnecting lattice of bony spicules (____); filled with red bone marrow (site of ____ development)

A

cancellous
trabeculae
RBC

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33
Q

STRUCTURE OF BONE

***Bone growth occurs at cartilaginous ____ that are replaced by bone in ____. Bone increases in length but also in diameter along the ____ as well.

A

epiphyseal plates
adulthood
diaphysis

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34
Q

STRUCTURE OF BONE

Most of the Ca2+ in body is stored in bone matrix as ____

A

hydroxyapatite

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35
Q

Bone Formation – during ____ stage of development
o Endochondral ossification- ____ -> ____ (EX: long bones; limbs, fingers, toes)

o ____- undifferentiated connective tissue replaced by bone
(EX: flat bones; skull, sternum, mandible, clavicles)

A

FETAL
cartilage
bone

intramembranous ossification

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36
Q

____ contains bone nerves and blood supply

A

Haversian canal

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37
Q

Functions of skin:

  • ____: helps regulate body temp
  • ____: skin is a physical barrier to abrasion, bacteria, dehydration, many chemicals, UV radiation
  • Environmental ____: skin gathers info about environment by sensing temp, pressure, pain, touch
  • ____: water and salts excreted through skin
A

thermoregulation
protection
sensory input
excretion

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38
Q

Functions of skin:

  • ____: specialized cells of the epidermis are components of immune system
  • ____: Vessels in the dermis hold up to 10% of the blood in resting adult
  • ____: UV radiation activates skin molecule that is a precursor to Vit D
A

immunity
blood reservoir
Vit D synthesis

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39
Q

STRUCTURE OF SKIN

Epidermis – superficial; avascular epithelial tissue (depends on ____ for oxygen and nutrients).
Layers from top down:
a. Stratum ____ – 25-30 dead layers; filled w/ keratin and surrounded by lipids
i. ____ make it water repellent

b. Stratum ____ – only in ____ and ____, and ____; 3-5 layers, clear/dead
c. Stratum ____–3-5 layer of ____ cells; ____ release hydrophobic lipids

d. Stratum ____ – strength and flexibility; 8-10 layers held together by (____-keratin involving
adhesion proteins)

A

dermis
corneum
lamellar granulues

lucidum
palms
soles of feet
finger tips

granulosum
dying
lamellar bodies

spinosum
desmosomes

40
Q

STRUCTURE OF SKIN

EPIDERMIS

Stratum \_\_\_\_ (\_\_\_\_) – contains \_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_ that divide to produce keratinocytes; attached by \_\_\_\_.
i. The keratinocytes are pushed to the top layer. Rise -> accumulate keratin and die -> lose cytoplasm/nucleus/other organelles -> at outermost layer of skin, \_\_\_\_
A
basale
germinativum
merkel cells
stem cells
basement membrane
slough off body
41
Q

Cells of the epidermis:

  1. Keratinocytes: produce the protein keratin that helps ____ the skin
  2. Melanocytes: transfer skin pigment ____ to keratinocytes
  3. Langerhans cells: interact with helper ____ of immune system
  4. Merkel cells: attach to sensory neurons and fxn in ____
A

waterproof
melanin
T-cells
touch sensation

42
Q

STRUCTURE OF SKIN

Dermis – primarily ____ tissue; collagen and elastic fibers; contains ____, glands, nerves, and ____

a. ____ – top 20%
b. ____ – ____ tissue, collagen and elastic fibers; packed with oil glands, sweat gland ducts, fat, and hair follicles; provides strength, and elasticity (stretch marks are ____)

A

connective
hair follicles
blood vessels

papillary region

reticular region
dense connective
dermal tears

43
Q

STRUCTURE OF SKIN

Hypodermis (subcutaneous) – not part of ____; ____ and ____ tissue; fat storage; pressure sensing ____; passage for blood vessels

A

skin
areolar
adipose
nerve endings

44
Q

Glands of the Skin
1. Sebaceous (oil) glands – connected to ____; absent in ____ and ____

  1. ____ (sweat) glands
    a. ____ (most of the body)- regulate ____ through perspiration; eliminate urea
    b. ____ – armpits, pubic region, and nipples; secretions are more ____
A

hair follicles
palms
soles

sudoriferous
eccrine
temperature
apocrine
viscous
45
Q

GLANDS OF THE SKIN

  1. ____ (wax) glands – found in ear canal; produce wax-like material as barrier to entrance
  2. ____ (milk) glands
A

ceruminous

mammary

46
Q

IMMUNE SYSTEM

  • Nonspecific 1st line of defense: ____ – generalized protection
  • Skin: physical and hostile barrier covered with oily and acidic (____) secretions from sweat glands.
  • Antimicrobial proteins: ____ (saliva, tear) which breaks down cell wall of bacteria.
  • Cilia: line the ____ serve to sweep invaders out.
  • Gastric juice: stomach kills most ____.
  • Symbiotic bacteria: ____ and ____ outcompetes many other organisms.
A
innate immunity
pH 3-5
lysozyme
lungs
microbes
digestive tract
vagina
47
Q
  • Nonspecific 2nd line of defense – also ____
    Types of WBCs (leukocytes) – all WBC’s originate from ____ but some multiply + become non-naive in the ____ (lymph drainage acts as a sewer system of antigens; cell recognizes antigen, goes from naïve -> activated; multiplies).
A

innate
bone marrow
lymph node

48
Q
  • Nonspecific 2nd line of defense

TYPE OF WBC

PHAGOCYTE
____ foreign particles/bacteria/dead or dying cells

o Neutrophils – fxn in destruction of pathogens in ____; drawn to infected or injured areas by chemicals
in process called ____; slip between endothelial cells of capillary (into tissue) via ____

o Monocytes – move into tissues (____) where they develop into ____ (which phagocytize cell
debris + pathogens, are a professional antigen-presenting cell)

o Eosinophils – work collectively to surround and destroy ____

o Dendritic Cells – responsible for the ingestion of pathogens and stimulate ____ (“main function as
APCs that activates ____”)

o Mast Cells – fxn in ____, inflammatory response (____ release), ____

A

engulf

infected tissues
chemotaxis
diapedesis

diapedesis
macrophages

multicellular parasites

acquired immunity
t-lymphocytes

allergic response
histamine
anaphylaxis

49
Q
  • Nonspecific 2nd line of defense

TYPE OF WBC

 Lymphocytes – covered below
 Basophils – release ____ for inflammatory response

A

histamines

50
Q
  • Nonspecific 2nd line of defense
  • Phagocytes: leukocytes (WBC’s) engulf pathogens by phagocytosis (____ and ____ [enlarge into ____]). Other WBCs called ____ attack abnormal body cells-tumors or pathogen-infected.
A

neutrophils
monocytes
macrophages
natural killer cells (NK cells)

51
Q
  • Nonspecific 2nd line of defense

- Complements: ____ complement proteins; help ____ phagocytes to foreign cells and help destroy by promoting ____

A

20
attract
cell lysis

52
Q
  • Nonspecific 2nd line of defense
  • Interferons: secreted by ____ that stimulate ____ to produce proteins defend
    against virus.
A

cells invaded by viruses/pathogens

neighboring cells

53
Q
  • Nonspecific 2nd line of defense
  • Inflammatory: series of ____ events that occur in response to pathogens. EX: when skin is damaged and bacteria enter the body
  1. Histamine is secreted by ____ (white blood cells found in CT) -> causes ____.
  2. Vasodilation- stimulated by histamine, increases ____ to area- increase in ____ that stimulates ____
    and can kill pathogens
  3. Phagocytes attracted to injury by chemical gradients of ____, engulf pathogens and damaged cells.
  4. Complement helps phagocytes ____ foreign cells, stimulate ____ to release histamine, and help ____ foreign cells
A

non-specific

basophils
vasodilation
blood supply
temperature
WBCs

complement
engulf
basophils
lyse

54
Q
  • Specific 3rd line of defense (Immune response-targets specific antigen) (____ – develops after body has been attacked)
  • Major histocompatibility complex: mechanism by which immune system is able to differentiate between ____. MHC is a collection of ____ that exists on membranes of all body cells. The proteins of single individual are unique (20 genes, each w/ 50+ alleles, ____ to have same cells w/ same MHC set as someone else). ____ presentation.
A

acquired immunity

self and nonself
glycoprotein
unlikely
antigen

55
Q
  • Specific 3rd line of defense
  • Lymphocytes: ____ of immune response, leukocytes that originate in ____ but concentrate in lymphatic tissues such as lymph nodes, thymus gland, and ____.
A

primary agent
bone marrow
spleen

56
Q
  • Specific 3rd line of defense
  1. B cells (____): originates and mature (?) in ____ (B cell for bone); response to antigens. Plasma membrane of B cells contains ____.
    - are proteins; specific to each antigen, ____ classes (IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM-variation in Y-shaped protein-constant region and variable regions).
    - Note that ____ connect the heavy chains to each other and to light chains. Include fxn of each Ig?
A

antibodies
bone marrow
antigen receptor-antibodies (immunoglobulins)
disulfide bonds

57
Q
  • Specific 3rd line of defense
    1. B cells (antibodies)
  • Antibodies inactivate antigens upon binding -> mark for ____ or ____ phagocytosis, lysis by ____, ____ of antigenic substance, or chemical inactivation (if a toxin)
A

macrophage
natural killer cell
complement proteins
agglutination

58
Q
  • Specific 3rd line of defense
    1. B cells (antibodies)
  • When antigen bound to B cell -> proliferation (2 copies) into ____ (assisted by helper T) ->
    a. ____: B cells that release specific antibodies that circulate in blood

b. ____: long-lived B cells that ____ antibodies in response to immediate antigen invasion;
instead, they circulate the body, proliferate, and response quickly (via ____) to eliminate ____ invasion by same antigen. (____ – takes less time, ~5 days)

A

daughter B cells

plasma cells
memory cells
do not release
antibody synthesis
subsequent
2ndary response
59
Q
  • Specific 3rd line of defense
    2. T cells (foreign): originates in bone marrow but mature in ____.

T cells have antigen receptors but ____ antibodies; they check molecules displayed by ____.

In the thymus, if a T cell binds to a self- antigen, it is ____. If not, released for work in ____.

A

thymus gland (T for thymus)

do not make
nonself cells

destroyed
lymphoid tissue

60
Q
  • Specific 3rd line of defense
T cells (foreign)
Discrimination of self and nonself are as follow:
  • ____ on plasma membrane of cells distinguish between self and nonself cells.
  • When body cell is invaded by pathogen (nonself), it displays a combination of self and nonself markers. T cells interpret this as ____.
  • Cancer cells or tissues transplant cells are often recognized as ____ by T cells due to the ____.
A

MHC markers

nonself

nonself
combination

61
Q
  • Specific 3rd line of defense

T cells (foreign)

+ When T cells encounter nonself cells: they divide and produce four kinds of cells:

a. ____: ____ T cells recognize and destroy by releasing ____ protein to puncture them (lysis).
b. ____: stimulate activation of ____, cytotoxic T cells, and ____ cells
c. ____: play ____ feedback role in immune system
d. ____: similar fxn to memory B cells

A

cytotoxic T cells
killer
perforin

helper t cells
B cells
suppressor T

suppressor T cells
negative

memory T cells

62
Q
  • Specific 3rd line of defense

3. ____: attack virus-infected cells or abnormal body cells (tumors)

A

natural killer cells

63
Q
  • ____: when antigen bind to B cell or when nonself binds to T cell -> divide into daughter cells, only B or T cells that bears ____ is “selected” and reproduces to make clones.
A

clonal selection

effective antigen receptor

64
Q
  • Responses of immune system are categorized into two kinds of reactions:
  1. Cell-mediated response: Effective against ____. Uses mostly ____ and responds to ____ cell, including
    cells invaded by pathogens. Nonself cell binds T cell -> clonal selection -> chain of events:

a. Produce ____ and ____.
b. ____ bind ____ (engulf pathogens = whole is nonself).
c. ____ cells then produce ____ to stimulate proliferation of ____ and ____ and macrophages

A

infected cells
T cells
any nonself

cytotoxic T cell (destroy)
helper T cell

helper T cell
macrophage

helper T cell
interleukins
t cells
b cells

65
Q
  • Responses of immune system are categorized into two kinds of reactions:
    2. Humoral response (____ response): responds to ____ or ____ that circulate in lymph or blood (bacteria, fungi, parasites, viruses, blood toxins). Basically the B-cell stuff. ____ is body fluid and the following events:

a. B cells produce ____.
b. B cells produce ____.
c. ____ and ____ (in cell-mediated of macrophages engulf-nonself) stimulate ____ production.
d. General progression: ____ -> Mature -> ____ -> ____

Note that antibodies are released from ____, are specific for an antigen, and a single B lymphocyte produces only ____ antibody type.

A

antibody-mediated
antigens
pathogens
humor

plasma cells
memory cells
macrophage
helper t cells
b cell
naive
plasma
antibody

plasma cell
one

66
Q

Humans supplement natural body defenses by:

  • ____: are chemicals derived from bacteria/fungi that are harmful to other microorganisms.
  • Vaccines: stimulate production of ____ from ____ viruses or weakened bacteria (artificially active immun)
  • ____: transferred antibodies from another individual- EX: newborns from mother
    a. Acquired immediately, but ____ and non-specific
    b. ____ (blood containing antibodies) – can confer temporary protection against ____ and other
    diseases
A

antibiotics

memory cells
inactivated

passive immunity
short-lived
gamma globulin
hepatitis

67
Q

First time immune system is exposed to an antigen -> ____, requires 20 days to reach full potential

A

primary response

68
Q

Recap of humoral response: imagine a bacterial infxn.

1st, inflammation. Macrophages + neutrophils engulf the bacteria.

____ flushed into lymphatic system where lymphocytes are waiting in lymph nodes.

Macrophages process + present bacterial antigen to ____. W/ help of helper-T, B differentiate into ____ and ____ cells.

____ prepare for event of same bacteria ever attacking again (____); plasma cells produce ____ released to blood to attack the bacteria.

A

interstitial fluid

b-lymphocytes
plasma
memory

memory cells
2ndary response
antibodies

69
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Endocrine – synthesize and secretes hormones into ____

A

bloodstream

70
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Exocrine – secrete substances into ____ (ex. gall bladder) (Pancreas is both ____)
- ____ (sweat), ____ (oil), mucous, digestive, mammary glands are examples

A

ducts
exo and endo

sudoriferous
sebaceous

71
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Paracrine – cell signaling where target is nearby; ____ is cell signaling via hormone/chemical messenger that binds to receptors on ____ cell

A

autocrine

same

72
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

____ – locally acting autocrine/paracrine lipid messenger molecules that have physiological effect (e.g. contract/relax smooth muscle)

A

prostaglandins

73
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

  • General characteristics of hormone: are transported throughout body in ____; small amount = ____; ____ effect
A

blood
large impact
slower

74
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Hormone Types

Peptide – synth’d in ____ and modified in Golgi (requires vesicle to cross membrane), acts on surface receptors typically via ____ (ex. Cyclic AMP)
- Manufactured in rough ER as larger ____ -> cleaved in ER lumen to ____ -> cleaved again (possibly modified w/
____) in Golgi to final form

  • Receptor-mediated endocytosis: protein stimulates production of ____ (G-protein -> cAMP-produced from ATP; IP3- produced from membrane phospholipids which triggers Ca release from ER).
A

rough ER
secondary messengers

preprohormone
prohormone
carbs

secondary messengers

75
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

PEPTIDE

  • Include (AP) FSH, LH, ACTH, hGH, TSH, ____;

(PP) ADH & ____;

(PT) ____;

(PANCR) ____ & insulin

A

prolactin
oxytocin
PTH
glucagon

76
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Hormone Types

Steroid – synth’d from ____ in ____;; hydrophobic = freely diffuse but require ____ to dissolve in blood; intracellular receptors
- Direct stimulation: “steroid” diffuses past plasma membrane and binds receptor in cytoplasm -> hormone+receptor transported to
____ -> binds activate portion of DNA.
- Incudes ____ and mineralicorticoids of the ____: cortisol & aldosterone;

the gonadal hormones: estrogen,
progesterone, and testosterone (estrogen & progesterone are also produced by ____)

A

cholesterol
smooth ER
protein transport molecules

nucleus

glucocorticoids
adreanl cortex

placenta

77
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Hormone Types

Tyrosine Derivatives – formed by enzymes in ____ or on ____
- Thyroid hormones: ____ soluble; require protein carrier in ____; bind to ____ in nucleus

  • Catecholamines: (epi and norepi) ____ soluble; ____ in blood; bind to receptors on ____ and mainly act via ____
  • Includes thyroid hormones (____ and ____) and catecholamines formed in ____: epi and norepi
A

cytosol
rough ER

lipid
blood
receptors

water
dissolve
target tissue
2nd messenger

T3
T4, aka thyroxine
adrenal medulla

78
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

All hormones bind to receptors highly ____ to them. Some hormones have receptors on almost all cells, some have receptors only on specific tissues. Hormone regulation can occur by increasing/decreasing # of these ____ in response to hormone amount.

A

specific

receptors

79
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Hypothalamus- monitors external environment and internal conditions of the body;

Contains ____ cells that link the hypothalamus to the ____.

Regulation of the pituitary = ____ mechanisms and by secretion of ____ and ____; secretes ____ (vasopressin) and ____ to be stored in ____ pituitary;

also secretes ____ (gonadotropin releasing hormone) from neurons, which stimulates ____ pituitary to secrete ____ and ____

A

neurosecretory
pituitary gland

negative feedback
releasing
inhibiting hormones
ADH
oxytocin
posterior

GnRH
anterior
FSH
LH

80
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Anterior Pituitary- mainly regulates hormone production by other glands – itself regulated by ____
1. Direct hormones: directly stimulate target organs
o Growth hormone (HGH)-aka ____; stimulates ____ growth

o Prolactin-stimulates ____ in females

o Endorphins-inhibit ____ (technically a neurohormone)

A

hypothalamus

somatotropin
bone and muscle

milk production

perception of pain

81
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

ANTERIOR PITUITARY

  1. Tropic hormones: stimulate ____
    o Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)- stimulates ____ -> release glucocorticoids- involved in regulation
    of metabolism of ____

o Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)- stimulates thyroid gland (↑ ____) to ____ thyroid hormone (T4 and T3)

o Luteinizing hormone (LH): females- stimulates formation of ____ / males-stimulates interstitial cells of
testes to produce ____

o Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): females-stimulates maturation of ____ to secrete ____ / males-
stimulates maturation of ____ and sperm prod

A

other endrocrine glands
adrenal cortext
glucose

size, cell #
release

corpus luteum
testosterone

ovarian follicles
estrogen
seminiferous tubules

82
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Posterior Pituitary- does not synthesize ____, ____ ADH and oxytocin produced by ____

  • Antidiuretic hormone (ADH/vasopressin)- increases reabsorption of ____ by increasing permeability of nephron’s
    ____ -> water reabsorption and increased ____. ____ blocks ADH.
  • Oxytocin- secreted during ____- increases strength of ____ and stimulates ____
A

hormones
stores
hypothalamus

water
collecting duct
blood volume and pressure
coffee

childbirth
uterine contractions
milk ejection

83
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Pineal gland- secretes ____- plays role in ____

A

melatonin

circadian rhythm

84
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Thyroid- located on ventral surface of ____

  • Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3)
    o Derived from ____ and necessary for growth and neurological development in ____ and increase basal metabolic rate in body (negative feedback on ____)
    o Hypothyroidism-____ -> low heart rate and respiratory rate
    o Hyperthyroidism- ____ -> increased metabolic rate and ____
    — Both lead to ____
A

trachea

tyrosine
children
TSH

undersecretion
oversecretion
sweating
goiters

85
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

THYROID

Calcitonin (“tones down” ____) in blood
o ____ plasma Ca2+ by inhibiting its release from bone
o____ osteoclast activity and number

A

Ca2+
decreases
decreases

86
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Disorders of the thyroid include ____ (AD; dwarfism) and ____ (AR; premature aging)

A

achondroplasia

progeria

87
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Parathyroid- four pea-shaped structures attached to back of ____

  • Parathyroid hormone (PTH)- ____ to calcitonin
  • –____ Ca2+ concentrations in blood by stimulating release from bone
  • —-Increases ____ of Ca + P from bone; stimulates ____ proliferation

–Increases renal Ca ____

A
thyroid
antagonistic
increases
osteocyte absorption
osteoclast
reabsorption
88
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Thymus- involved in immune response
- Secretes ____ that stimulate lymphocytes (WBCs) to become ____ (identification and destroying of infected body
cells)

A

thymosins

T-cells

89
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Adrenal gland- on top of ____ and consist of:

- Adrenal cortex – secretes only \_\_\_\_ hormones
o Glucocorticoids (\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_)-raise blood glucose levels (stimulates \_\_\_\_ in the liver); affect fat and protein metabolism; stress hormones
o Mineralcorticoids (\_\_\_\_)- increases \_\_\_\_ of Na+ and \_\_\_\_ of K+
--- Causes \_\_\_\_ reabsorption of water in nephron -> rise in \_\_\_\_

o Cortical sex hormones (____=male sex hormones)-effect is small due to ____

A

kidneys
steroid

cortisol
cortisone
gluconeogenesis

aldosterone
reabsorption
excretion
passive
blood volume/pressure

androgens
testis

90
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Adrenal gland

Adrenal medulla
o ____ and ____ (adrenaline and noradrenaline) -“fight or flight”–the ____

—- “fight or flight”(sympathetic N.S.); considered ____ hormones

—- glycogen -> ____, ____ to internal organs+skin but ____ to skeletal muscle, increased
____

A

epinephrine
norepinephrine
catecholamines

stress

glucose
vasoconstrictor
vasodilator
heartbeat

91
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Pancreas- both ____ and ____; has bundles of cells called ____ which contains two cell types:

  • Alpha cells secrete ____ (α “active”): catabolic, released when energy charge ____; raises blood glucose levels
  • – Stimulates ____ to glycogen -> glucose
A
exocrine
endocrine
islet of landerhans
glucagon
low

liver

92
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

PANCREAS

ISLET OF LANDERHAN CELL TYPE (2)

  • Beta cells secrete ____ (β “bumming”): anabolic, released when energy charge is ____; lower blood glucose levels
  • Stimulates liver (and most other body cells) to absorb ____
  • Liver +muscle cells: glucose -> ____; fat cells: glucose -> ____
A

insulin
high
glucose

glycogen
fat

93
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

PANCREAS

____ is released by ____ cells of pancreas; inhibits both ____; possibly increases ____ time

A
somatostatin
delta
insulin
glucogen
nutrient absorption
94
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Testis- ____ - spermatogenesis, secondary sex characteristics

A

testosterone

95
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Ovaries-
- ____- menstrual cycle, secondary sex characteristics

  • ____- menstrual cycle, pregnancy
A

estrogen

progesterone

96
Q

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

Gastrointestinal hormones
- ____- food in stomach, stimulates secretion of HCl

  • ____- small intestine- when acidic food enters from stomach -> ____ acidity of chime by secretion of ____
  • ____- small intestine- presence of fats -> causes contraction of gall-bladder and release of ____(involved in
    digestion of fats)
A

gastrin

secretin
neutralize
alkaline bicarbonate

chloecystokinin
bile