Ch. 11 - Animal Forms and Function (G-I) NO F Flashcards
Muscle contraction can result in movement, ____ of position, movement of substances throughout body, generation of ____
____
stabilization
body heat
Organization of Vertebrate Skeleton
- Axial skeleton – ____ (skull, vertebral column, rib cage)
- Appendicular skeleton – bones of appendages, ____ and ____
basic framework
pectoral
pelvic girdles
Organization of Vertebrate Skeleton
- Bone organization
o Sutures – ____ (holds together bones of skull)
o Moveable joints – bones that move relative to each other
- Ligaments – ____ connectors; strengthen joints
- Tendons- ____; ____ skeleton at moveable joints
immovable joints
bone-to-bone
muscle-to-bone
BEND
Organization of Vertebrate Skeleton
o Origin – point of attachment of muscle to ____ bone
o Insertion – point of attachment of muscle to bone that ____
o Extension = ____ of joint
o Flexion = ____ of joint
stationary
moves
straightening
bending
Joint types
- Fibrous – connect bones without allowing any ____ (Ex: skull, ____, spinous process and vertebrae)
movement
pelvis
Joint types
- Cartilaginous – bones attached by ____, allow ____ movement (Ex: ____ and ____)
cartilage
little
spine
ribs
Joint types
- Synovial – allow for much more ____; most common; filled with ____ which acts as a lubricant (Ex: carpals, wrist,
elbow, humerus & ulna, shoulder and hip joints, knee joint)
movement
synovial fluid
Muscular system- consists of ____ held together by ____
- Skeletal muscle (____ muscle) – voluntary movement, fibers are ____ cells
a. Myofibrils – filaments divided into ____
b. Sarcomeres – individual contractile units separated by a border (____)
c. Sarcoplasmic reticulum – stores Ca2+; surrounds ____
d. Sarcoplasm – cytoplasm
e. Sarcolemma – ____ of muscle cells; can propagate ____
i. Invaginated by ____- channels for ion flow
ii. Wraps several myofibrils together to form a muscle cell/muscle fiber
f. Mitochondria – present in large amounts in ____
contractile fibers
connective tissue
striated
multinucleated
sarcomeres
Z-line
myofibrils
plasma membrane
action potential
T-tubules
myofibrils
Sarcomere – is composed of thin filaments (____) and thick filaments (____)
- Z line – ____ of a single sarcomere; anchor ____
- M line – ____ of sarcomere
- I band – region containing ____ only (on ends, only purple above)
- H zone – region containing ____ only (in middle, only green above)
- A band – actin and myosin ____ (one end of overlap to the other end of overlap)
o H and I ____ during contraction, while A ____
actin
myosin
boundary
thin filaments
center
thin filaments (actin)
thick filaments (myosin)
overlap
reduce
does not
Contraction –
Stimulation Process of Sliding Filament Model – ____ response
- Action potential of neuron releases ____ when meets neuromuscular jxn
- Action potential then generated on ____ and throughout ____
- Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases ____
- Myosin ____ form – result of Ca2+ binding to troponin on actin helix
all or nothing
acetylcholine
sarcolemma
T-tubules
Ca2+
cross bridges
Sliding Filament Model
1. ATP binds to myosin head – converted to ____, which remain attached to head
- Ca2+ exposes ____ on actin – binds troponin -> tropomyosin exposes attachment sites
- Cross bridges between myosin heads and actin filaments form
- ADP + Pi are ____ -> sliding motion of actin bring ____ together (contraction, ____)
- New ATP attaches to myosin head, causes cross bridges to ____ – new phosphorylation breaks ____
ADP + Pi
binding sites
released
Z-lines
power stroke
unbind
cross bridge
Sliding Filament Model
Without new ATP, the cross bridges remain ____ to myosin head… this is why corpses are stiff
Strength of contraction of ____ cannot be increase, but strength of overall contraction can be increased by recruiting ____
attached
single muscle fiber
more muscle fibers
Types of Muscle Response
A) Simple Twitch – response of a ____ to brief stimulus; latent, contraction, relax
1. Latent period – time btw ____ and ____; lag
o Action potential spreads on ____ and Ca2+ ions released
2. Contraction
3. Relaxation (absolute refractory period) – ____ to stimulus
single muscle fiber stimulation onset of contraction sarcolemma unresponsive
Types of Muscle Response
B) Summation and Tetanus –
a. Summation – contractions combine and become stronger and ____ (repeated APs summate)
b. Tetanus – continuous sustained contraction; muscle ____; will release if maintained (in tetanus, rate of muscle stimulation
so fast that twitches blur into one ____)
more prolonged
cannot relax
smooth constant
Types of Muscle Response
C) Tonus – state of ____; muscle never completely ____
partial contraction
relaxed
Smooth Muscle – mainly involuntary, ____ central nucleus;
____ striation; stimulated by ____ nervous system (EX: lining of bladder, uterus, digestive tract, blood vessel walls, etc).
No ____ organization: intermediate filaments attached to ____ spread throughout cell.
Thick & thin filaments attached to IFs, contract -> IF’s pull ____ together -> smooth muscle length ____.
one
lack
autonomic
sarcomere
dense bodies
dense bodies
shrink
Two types of smooth muscle:
- Single-unit: aka ____, connected by ____, contract as single unit (stomach uterus, urinary bladder)
- Multiunit: each fiber directly attached to ____; can contract ____ (iris, bronchioles, etc)
In addition to neuronal response, can respond to: hormones, change in ____, O2, ____ levels, ____, [ion]
visceral
gap junctions
neuron
independently
pH
CO2
temperature
Cardiac Muscle – ____ appearance (____); ____ central nuclei;
cells separated by ____ that have gap jxn to allow AP’s to ____ via electrical synapse;
involuntary; lots of ____
striated
sarcomeres
one or TWO
intercalated discs
chain flow
mitochondria
Both smooth and cardiac muscle are ____ – capable of contracting without stimuli from nerve cells
myogenic
- Muscle fibers of single muscle don’t all contract at once. Single neuron innervates multiple muscle fibers (collectively called ____). Usually: smaller motor units activated ____, then larger ones as needed -> smooth increase in ____. Fine movement uses ____ motor units.
motor units
first
force
smallers
- Skeletal muscle types: Type I (____), lots of ____, lots of mitochondria, ____ endurance.
Type IIA: ____, endurance by not as much as type 1 (____ endurance).
Type IIB: ____, low ____, lots of ____, power.
slow-twitch
myoglobin
aerobic
fast-twitch
anaerobic
fast-twitch
myoglobin
glycogen
- Skeletal muscle generally doesn’t undergo ____ to create new muscle cells (____), but will increase in size (____)
mitosis
hyperplasia
hypertrophy
Unicellular locomotion-
- Protozoans & primitive algae – cilia or flagella by means of ____ and ____
- Amoeba – extend ____; advancing cell membrane extends forward
power stroke
recovery stroke
pseudopodia
Invertebrate locomotion
- Hydrostatic skeletons
- Flatworms – bi-layered muscles, ____ and ____, contract against ____
- —o Contraction causes hydrostatic skeleton to flow ____, lengthening animal
- Segmented worms (____) – advance by action of ____ on hydrostatic skeleton
- —o Bristles in lower part of each segment, ____, anchor worm in earth while muscles push ahead
longitudinal
circular
hydrostatic skeleton
longitudinally
annelids
muscles
setae
Exoskeleton
- Arthropods – insect exoskeletons composed of hard ____, necessitates ____ for growth
chitin
molting
Vertebrate Skeleton- comprised of an ____. Two major components are ____ and ____
endoskeleton
cartilage
bone
Vertebrate Skeleton
Cartilage – ____ connective tissue; softer and more flexible; (ex: ear, nose, larynx, trachea, joints)
o 3 types: ____ (most common – reduced friction/absorbs shock in joints), ____, and ____.
o from mesenchyme tissue -> ____ -> produce collagen (present in tissue as ____ with hydroxyproline and
hydroxylysine, ground substance, & elastin fibers ??. Composed primarily of collagen, receive nutrients via diffusion.
avascular hyaline fibrocartilage elastic chondrocytes triple helix
Vertebrate Skeleton
Bone – connective tissue; hard and strong, while elastic and lightweight
o Functions: support of ____, protection of ____, assistance in body movement, mineral storage, blood cell production, and energy storage in form of ____ in marrow
soft tissue
internal organs
adipose cells
Bone has four types of cells surrounded by extensive matrix:
1. Osteoprogenitor/Osteogenic: differentiate into ____
- Osteoblasts: secrete collagen and organic compounds upon which bone is formed. Incapable of ____. As matrix released around them -> enveloped by matrix -> differentiate into ____ (remember, Blast means Build)
- Osteocytes: incapable of ____; exchange nutrients and waste material w/ blood
- Osteoclasts: resorb (destroy) bone matrix, releasing minerals back to blood. Develop from ____.
osteoblasts
mitosis
osteocytes
mitosis
monocytes
STRUCTURE OF BONE
Compact bone- highly organized, dense bone that doesn’t appear to have cavities from outside: osteoclasts burrow tunnels (____) throughout.
Osteoclasts are followed by osteoblasts, which lay down new matrix onto tunnel walls forming concentric rings (____).
Osteocytes trapped between the lamella (____) exchange nutrients via ____.
haversian canals
lamellae
lacunae
canaliculi
STRUCTURE OF BONE
COMPACT BONE
The Haversian canals also contain blood+lymph vessels and are connected by ____. Entire system of lamellae+Haversian canals is called an ____ (Haversian system). Compact bone is filled with yellow bone marrow that contains ____ cells for fat storage.
volkmann’s canals
osteon
adipose
STRUCTURE OF BONE
Spongy (____) bone- less dense and consists of an interconnecting lattice of bony spicules (____); filled with red bone marrow (site of ____ development)
cancellous
trabeculae
RBC
STRUCTURE OF BONE
***Bone growth occurs at cartilaginous ____ that are replaced by bone in ____. Bone increases in length but also in diameter along the ____ as well.
epiphyseal plates
adulthood
diaphysis
STRUCTURE OF BONE
Most of the Ca2+ in body is stored in bone matrix as ____
hydroxyapatite
Bone Formation – during ____ stage of development
o Endochondral ossification- ____ -> ____ (EX: long bones; limbs, fingers, toes)
o ____- undifferentiated connective tissue replaced by bone
(EX: flat bones; skull, sternum, mandible, clavicles)
FETAL
cartilage
bone
intramembranous ossification
____ contains bone nerves and blood supply
Haversian canal
Functions of skin:
- ____: helps regulate body temp
- ____: skin is a physical barrier to abrasion, bacteria, dehydration, many chemicals, UV radiation
- Environmental ____: skin gathers info about environment by sensing temp, pressure, pain, touch
- ____: water and salts excreted through skin
thermoregulation
protection
sensory input
excretion
Functions of skin:
- ____: specialized cells of the epidermis are components of immune system
- ____: Vessels in the dermis hold up to 10% of the blood in resting adult
- ____: UV radiation activates skin molecule that is a precursor to Vit D
immunity
blood reservoir
Vit D synthesis
STRUCTURE OF SKIN
Epidermis – superficial; avascular epithelial tissue (depends on ____ for oxygen and nutrients).
Layers from top down:
a. Stratum ____ – 25-30 dead layers; filled w/ keratin and surrounded by lipids
i. ____ make it water repellent
b. Stratum ____ – only in ____ and ____, and ____; 3-5 layers, clear/dead
c. Stratum ____–3-5 layer of ____ cells; ____ release hydrophobic lipids
d. Stratum ____ – strength and flexibility; 8-10 layers held together by (____-keratin involving
adhesion proteins)
dermis
corneum
lamellar granulues
lucidum
palms
soles of feet
finger tips
granulosum
dying
lamellar bodies
spinosum
desmosomes
STRUCTURE OF SKIN
EPIDERMIS
Stratum \_\_\_\_ (\_\_\_\_) – contains \_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_ that divide to produce keratinocytes; attached by \_\_\_\_. i. The keratinocytes are pushed to the top layer. Rise -> accumulate keratin and die -> lose cytoplasm/nucleus/other organelles -> at outermost layer of skin, \_\_\_\_
basale germinativum merkel cells stem cells basement membrane slough off body
Cells of the epidermis:
- Keratinocytes: produce the protein keratin that helps ____ the skin
- Melanocytes: transfer skin pigment ____ to keratinocytes
- Langerhans cells: interact with helper ____ of immune system
- Merkel cells: attach to sensory neurons and fxn in ____
waterproof
melanin
T-cells
touch sensation
STRUCTURE OF SKIN
Dermis – primarily ____ tissue; collagen and elastic fibers; contains ____, glands, nerves, and ____
a. ____ – top 20%
b. ____ – ____ tissue, collagen and elastic fibers; packed with oil glands, sweat gland ducts, fat, and hair follicles; provides strength, and elasticity (stretch marks are ____)
connective
hair follicles
blood vessels
papillary region
reticular region
dense connective
dermal tears
STRUCTURE OF SKIN
Hypodermis (subcutaneous) – not part of ____; ____ and ____ tissue; fat storage; pressure sensing ____; passage for blood vessels
skin
areolar
adipose
nerve endings
Glands of the Skin
1. Sebaceous (oil) glands – connected to ____; absent in ____ and ____
- ____ (sweat) glands
a. ____ (most of the body)- regulate ____ through perspiration; eliminate urea
b. ____ – armpits, pubic region, and nipples; secretions are more ____
hair follicles
palms
soles
sudoriferous eccrine temperature apocrine viscous
GLANDS OF THE SKIN
- ____ (wax) glands – found in ear canal; produce wax-like material as barrier to entrance
- ____ (milk) glands
ceruminous
mammary
IMMUNE SYSTEM
- Nonspecific 1st line of defense: ____ – generalized protection
- Skin: physical and hostile barrier covered with oily and acidic (____) secretions from sweat glands.
- Antimicrobial proteins: ____ (saliva, tear) which breaks down cell wall of bacteria.
- Cilia: line the ____ serve to sweep invaders out.
- Gastric juice: stomach kills most ____.
- Symbiotic bacteria: ____ and ____ outcompetes many other organisms.
innate immunity pH 3-5 lysozyme lungs microbes digestive tract vagina
- Nonspecific 2nd line of defense – also ____
Types of WBCs (leukocytes) – all WBC’s originate from ____ but some multiply + become non-naive in the ____ (lymph drainage acts as a sewer system of antigens; cell recognizes antigen, goes from naïve -> activated; multiplies).
innate
bone marrow
lymph node
- Nonspecific 2nd line of defense
TYPE OF WBC
PHAGOCYTE
____ foreign particles/bacteria/dead or dying cells
o Neutrophils – fxn in destruction of pathogens in ____; drawn to infected or injured areas by chemicals
in process called ____; slip between endothelial cells of capillary (into tissue) via ____
o Monocytes – move into tissues (____) where they develop into ____ (which phagocytize cell
debris + pathogens, are a professional antigen-presenting cell)
o Eosinophils – work collectively to surround and destroy ____
o Dendritic Cells – responsible for the ingestion of pathogens and stimulate ____ (“main function as
APCs that activates ____”)
o Mast Cells – fxn in ____, inflammatory response (____ release), ____
engulf
infected tissues
chemotaxis
diapedesis
diapedesis
macrophages
multicellular parasites
acquired immunity
t-lymphocytes
allergic response
histamine
anaphylaxis
- Nonspecific 2nd line of defense
TYPE OF WBC
Lymphocytes – covered below
Basophils – release ____ for inflammatory response
histamines
- Nonspecific 2nd line of defense
- Phagocytes: leukocytes (WBC’s) engulf pathogens by phagocytosis (____ and ____ [enlarge into ____]). Other WBCs called ____ attack abnormal body cells-tumors or pathogen-infected.
neutrophils
monocytes
macrophages
natural killer cells (NK cells)
- Nonspecific 2nd line of defense
- Complements: ____ complement proteins; help ____ phagocytes to foreign cells and help destroy by promoting ____
20
attract
cell lysis
- Nonspecific 2nd line of defense
- Interferons: secreted by ____ that stimulate ____ to produce proteins defend
against virus.
cells invaded by viruses/pathogens
neighboring cells
- Nonspecific 2nd line of defense
- Inflammatory: series of ____ events that occur in response to pathogens. EX: when skin is damaged and bacteria enter the body
- Histamine is secreted by ____ (white blood cells found in CT) -> causes ____.
- Vasodilation- stimulated by histamine, increases ____ to area- increase in ____ that stimulates ____
and can kill pathogens - Phagocytes attracted to injury by chemical gradients of ____, engulf pathogens and damaged cells.
- Complement helps phagocytes ____ foreign cells, stimulate ____ to release histamine, and help ____ foreign cells
non-specific
basophils vasodilation blood supply temperature WBCs
complement
engulf
basophils
lyse
- Specific 3rd line of defense (Immune response-targets specific antigen) (____ – develops after body has been attacked)
- Major histocompatibility complex: mechanism by which immune system is able to differentiate between ____. MHC is a collection of ____ that exists on membranes of all body cells. The proteins of single individual are unique (20 genes, each w/ 50+ alleles, ____ to have same cells w/ same MHC set as someone else). ____ presentation.
acquired immunity
self and nonself
glycoprotein
unlikely
antigen
- Specific 3rd line of defense
- Lymphocytes: ____ of immune response, leukocytes that originate in ____ but concentrate in lymphatic tissues such as lymph nodes, thymus gland, and ____.
primary agent
bone marrow
spleen
- Specific 3rd line of defense
- B cells (____): originates and mature (?) in ____ (B cell for bone); response to antigens. Plasma membrane of B cells contains ____.
- are proteins; specific to each antigen, ____ classes (IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM-variation in Y-shaped protein-constant region and variable regions).
- Note that ____ connect the heavy chains to each other and to light chains. Include fxn of each Ig?
antibodies
bone marrow
antigen receptor-antibodies (immunoglobulins)
disulfide bonds
- Specific 3rd line of defense
1. B cells (antibodies) - Antibodies inactivate antigens upon binding -> mark for ____ or ____ phagocytosis, lysis by ____, ____ of antigenic substance, or chemical inactivation (if a toxin)
macrophage
natural killer cell
complement proteins
agglutination
- Specific 3rd line of defense
1. B cells (antibodies) - When antigen bound to B cell -> proliferation (2 copies) into ____ (assisted by helper T) ->
a. ____: B cells that release specific antibodies that circulate in blood
b. ____: long-lived B cells that ____ antibodies in response to immediate antigen invasion;
instead, they circulate the body, proliferate, and response quickly (via ____) to eliminate ____ invasion by same antigen. (____ – takes less time, ~5 days)
daughter B cells
plasma cells memory cells do not release antibody synthesis subsequent 2ndary response
- Specific 3rd line of defense
2. T cells (foreign): originates in bone marrow but mature in ____.
T cells have antigen receptors but ____ antibodies; they check molecules displayed by ____.
In the thymus, if a T cell binds to a self- antigen, it is ____. If not, released for work in ____.
thymus gland (T for thymus)
do not make
nonself cells
destroyed
lymphoid tissue
- Specific 3rd line of defense
T cells (foreign) Discrimination of self and nonself are as follow:
- ____ on plasma membrane of cells distinguish between self and nonself cells.
- When body cell is invaded by pathogen (nonself), it displays a combination of self and nonself markers. T cells interpret this as ____.
- Cancer cells or tissues transplant cells are often recognized as ____ by T cells due to the ____.
MHC markers
nonself
nonself
combination
- Specific 3rd line of defense
T cells (foreign)
+ When T cells encounter nonself cells: they divide and produce four kinds of cells:
a. ____: ____ T cells recognize and destroy by releasing ____ protein to puncture them (lysis).
b. ____: stimulate activation of ____, cytotoxic T cells, and ____ cells
c. ____: play ____ feedback role in immune system
d. ____: similar fxn to memory B cells
cytotoxic T cells
killer
perforin
helper t cells
B cells
suppressor T
suppressor T cells
negative
memory T cells
- Specific 3rd line of defense
3. ____: attack virus-infected cells or abnormal body cells (tumors)
natural killer cells
- ____: when antigen bind to B cell or when nonself binds to T cell -> divide into daughter cells, only B or T cells that bears ____ is “selected” and reproduces to make clones.
clonal selection
effective antigen receptor
- Responses of immune system are categorized into two kinds of reactions:
- Cell-mediated response: Effective against ____. Uses mostly ____ and responds to ____ cell, including
cells invaded by pathogens. Nonself cell binds T cell -> clonal selection -> chain of events:
a. Produce ____ and ____.
b. ____ bind ____ (engulf pathogens = whole is nonself).
c. ____ cells then produce ____ to stimulate proliferation of ____ and ____ and macrophages
infected cells
T cells
any nonself
cytotoxic T cell (destroy)
helper T cell
helper T cell
macrophage
helper T cell
interleukins
t cells
b cells
- Responses of immune system are categorized into two kinds of reactions:
2. Humoral response (____ response): responds to ____ or ____ that circulate in lymph or blood (bacteria, fungi, parasites, viruses, blood toxins). Basically the B-cell stuff. ____ is body fluid and the following events:
a. B cells produce ____.
b. B cells produce ____.
c. ____ and ____ (in cell-mediated of macrophages engulf-nonself) stimulate ____ production.
d. General progression: ____ -> Mature -> ____ -> ____
Note that antibodies are released from ____, are specific for an antigen, and a single B lymphocyte produces only ____ antibody type.
antibody-mediated
antigens
pathogens
humor
plasma cells memory cells macrophage helper t cells b cell naive plasma antibody
plasma cell
one
Humans supplement natural body defenses by:
- ____: are chemicals derived from bacteria/fungi that are harmful to other microorganisms.
- Vaccines: stimulate production of ____ from ____ viruses or weakened bacteria (artificially active immun)
- ____: transferred antibodies from another individual- EX: newborns from mother
a. Acquired immediately, but ____ and non-specific
b. ____ (blood containing antibodies) – can confer temporary protection against ____ and other
diseases
antibiotics
memory cells
inactivated
passive immunity
short-lived
gamma globulin
hepatitis
First time immune system is exposed to an antigen -> ____, requires 20 days to reach full potential
primary response
Recap of humoral response: imagine a bacterial infxn.
1st, inflammation. Macrophages + neutrophils engulf the bacteria.
____ flushed into lymphatic system where lymphocytes are waiting in lymph nodes.
Macrophages process + present bacterial antigen to ____. W/ help of helper-T, B differentiate into ____ and ____ cells.
____ prepare for event of same bacteria ever attacking again (____); plasma cells produce ____ released to blood to attack the bacteria.
interstitial fluid
b-lymphocytes
plasma
memory
memory cells
2ndary response
antibodies
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Endocrine – synthesize and secretes hormones into ____
bloodstream
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Exocrine – secrete substances into ____ (ex. gall bladder) (Pancreas is both ____)
- ____ (sweat), ____ (oil), mucous, digestive, mammary glands are examples
ducts
exo and endo
sudoriferous
sebaceous
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Paracrine – cell signaling where target is nearby; ____ is cell signaling via hormone/chemical messenger that binds to receptors on ____ cell
autocrine
same
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
____ – locally acting autocrine/paracrine lipid messenger molecules that have physiological effect (e.g. contract/relax smooth muscle)
prostaglandins
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
- General characteristics of hormone: are transported throughout body in ____; small amount = ____; ____ effect
blood
large impact
slower
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Hormone Types
Peptide – synth’d in ____ and modified in Golgi (requires vesicle to cross membrane), acts on surface receptors typically via ____ (ex. Cyclic AMP)
- Manufactured in rough ER as larger ____ -> cleaved in ER lumen to ____ -> cleaved again (possibly modified w/
____) in Golgi to final form
- Receptor-mediated endocytosis: protein stimulates production of ____ (G-protein -> cAMP-produced from ATP; IP3- produced from membrane phospholipids which triggers Ca release from ER).
rough ER
secondary messengers
preprohormone
prohormone
carbs
secondary messengers
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
PEPTIDE
- Include (AP) FSH, LH, ACTH, hGH, TSH, ____;
(PP) ADH & ____;
(PT) ____;
(PANCR) ____ & insulin
prolactin
oxytocin
PTH
glucagon
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Hormone Types
Steroid – synth’d from ____ in ____;; hydrophobic = freely diffuse but require ____ to dissolve in blood; intracellular receptors
- Direct stimulation: “steroid” diffuses past plasma membrane and binds receptor in cytoplasm -> hormone+receptor transported to
____ -> binds activate portion of DNA.
- Incudes ____ and mineralicorticoids of the ____: cortisol & aldosterone;
the gonadal hormones: estrogen,
progesterone, and testosterone (estrogen & progesterone are also produced by ____)
cholesterol
smooth ER
protein transport molecules
nucleus
glucocorticoids
adreanl cortex
placenta
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Hormone Types
Tyrosine Derivatives – formed by enzymes in ____ or on ____
- Thyroid hormones: ____ soluble; require protein carrier in ____; bind to ____ in nucleus
- Catecholamines: (epi and norepi) ____ soluble; ____ in blood; bind to receptors on ____ and mainly act via ____
- Includes thyroid hormones (____ and ____) and catecholamines formed in ____: epi and norepi
cytosol
rough ER
lipid
blood
receptors
water
dissolve
target tissue
2nd messenger
T3
T4, aka thyroxine
adrenal medulla
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
All hormones bind to receptors highly ____ to them. Some hormones have receptors on almost all cells, some have receptors only on specific tissues. Hormone regulation can occur by increasing/decreasing # of these ____ in response to hormone amount.
specific
receptors
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Hypothalamus- monitors external environment and internal conditions of the body;
Contains ____ cells that link the hypothalamus to the ____.
Regulation of the pituitary = ____ mechanisms and by secretion of ____ and ____; secretes ____ (vasopressin) and ____ to be stored in ____ pituitary;
also secretes ____ (gonadotropin releasing hormone) from neurons, which stimulates ____ pituitary to secrete ____ and ____
neurosecretory
pituitary gland
negative feedback releasing inhibiting hormones ADH oxytocin posterior
GnRH
anterior
FSH
LH
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Anterior Pituitary- mainly regulates hormone production by other glands – itself regulated by ____
1. Direct hormones: directly stimulate target organs
o Growth hormone (HGH)-aka ____; stimulates ____ growth
o Prolactin-stimulates ____ in females
o Endorphins-inhibit ____ (technically a neurohormone)
hypothalamus
somatotropin
bone and muscle
milk production
perception of pain
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
ANTERIOR PITUITARY
- Tropic hormones: stimulate ____
o Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)- stimulates ____ -> release glucocorticoids- involved in regulation
of metabolism of ____
o Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)- stimulates thyroid gland (↑ ____) to ____ thyroid hormone (T4 and T3)
o Luteinizing hormone (LH): females- stimulates formation of ____ / males-stimulates interstitial cells of
testes to produce ____
o Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): females-stimulates maturation of ____ to secrete ____ / males-
stimulates maturation of ____ and sperm prod
other endrocrine glands
adrenal cortext
glucose
size, cell #
release
corpus luteum
testosterone
ovarian follicles
estrogen
seminiferous tubules
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Posterior Pituitary- does not synthesize ____, ____ ADH and oxytocin produced by ____
- Antidiuretic hormone (ADH/vasopressin)- increases reabsorption of ____ by increasing permeability of nephron’s
____ -> water reabsorption and increased ____. ____ blocks ADH. - Oxytocin- secreted during ____- increases strength of ____ and stimulates ____
hormones
stores
hypothalamus
water
collecting duct
blood volume and pressure
coffee
childbirth
uterine contractions
milk ejection
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Pineal gland- secretes ____- plays role in ____
melatonin
circadian rhythm
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Thyroid- located on ventral surface of ____
- Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3)
o Derived from ____ and necessary for growth and neurological development in ____ and increase basal metabolic rate in body (negative feedback on ____)
o Hypothyroidism-____ -> low heart rate and respiratory rate
o Hyperthyroidism- ____ -> increased metabolic rate and ____
— Both lead to ____
trachea
tyrosine
children
TSH
undersecretion
oversecretion
sweating
goiters
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
THYROID
Calcitonin (“tones down” ____) in blood
o ____ plasma Ca2+ by inhibiting its release from bone
o____ osteoclast activity and number
Ca2+
decreases
decreases
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Disorders of the thyroid include ____ (AD; dwarfism) and ____ (AR; premature aging)
achondroplasia
progeria
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Parathyroid- four pea-shaped structures attached to back of ____
- Parathyroid hormone (PTH)- ____ to calcitonin
- –____ Ca2+ concentrations in blood by stimulating release from bone
- —-Increases ____ of Ca + P from bone; stimulates ____ proliferation
–Increases renal Ca ____
thyroid antagonistic increases osteocyte absorption osteoclast reabsorption
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Thymus- involved in immune response
- Secretes ____ that stimulate lymphocytes (WBCs) to become ____ (identification and destroying of infected body
cells)
thymosins
T-cells
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Adrenal gland- on top of ____ and consist of:
- Adrenal cortex – secretes only \_\_\_\_ hormones o Glucocorticoids (\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_)-raise blood glucose levels (stimulates \_\_\_\_ in the liver); affect fat and protein metabolism; stress hormones
o Mineralcorticoids (\_\_\_\_)- increases \_\_\_\_ of Na+ and \_\_\_\_ of K+ --- Causes \_\_\_\_ reabsorption of water in nephron -> rise in \_\_\_\_
o Cortical sex hormones (____=male sex hormones)-effect is small due to ____
kidneys
steroid
cortisol
cortisone
gluconeogenesis
aldosterone reabsorption excretion passive blood volume/pressure
androgens
testis
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Adrenal gland
Adrenal medulla
o ____ and ____ (adrenaline and noradrenaline) -“fight or flight”–the ____
—- “fight or flight”(sympathetic N.S.); considered ____ hormones
—- glycogen -> ____, ____ to internal organs+skin but ____ to skeletal muscle, increased
____
epinephrine
norepinephrine
catecholamines
stress
glucose
vasoconstrictor
vasodilator
heartbeat
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Pancreas- both ____ and ____; has bundles of cells called ____ which contains two cell types:
- Alpha cells secrete ____ (α “active”): catabolic, released when energy charge ____; raises blood glucose levels
- – Stimulates ____ to glycogen -> glucose
exocrine endocrine islet of landerhans glucagon low
liver
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
PANCREAS
ISLET OF LANDERHAN CELL TYPE (2)
- Beta cells secrete ____ (β “bumming”): anabolic, released when energy charge is ____; lower blood glucose levels
- Stimulates liver (and most other body cells) to absorb ____
- Liver +muscle cells: glucose -> ____; fat cells: glucose -> ____
insulin
high
glucose
glycogen
fat
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
PANCREAS
____ is released by ____ cells of pancreas; inhibits both ____; possibly increases ____ time
somatostatin delta insulin glucogen nutrient absorption
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Testis- ____ - spermatogenesis, secondary sex characteristics
testosterone
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Ovaries-
- ____- menstrual cycle, secondary sex characteristics
- ____- menstrual cycle, pregnancy
estrogen
progesterone
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Gastrointestinal hormones
- ____- food in stomach, stimulates secretion of HCl
- ____- small intestine- when acidic food enters from stomach -> ____ acidity of chime by secretion of ____
- ____- small intestine- presence of fats -> causes contraction of gall-bladder and release of ____(involved in
digestion of fats)
gastrin
secretin
neutralize
alkaline bicarbonate
chloecystokinin
bile
