CGTO PG-85-00-110A Flashcards

1
Q

Type 1 materials shall be shipped as soon as practical but no later than ___ following receipt of shipping orders

A

15 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Containers of not more than ___ capacity will be used for storing paints dopes

A

5 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Tool interval tracking is accomplished using what

A

special requirements or calibration facility tracking list

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What would be certified by PIC prior to beginning ground checks

A

QA brief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who designates a QA

A

Quality Assurance Inspectors QA inspectors shall be selected and designated in writing by the Engineering Officer.

1-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What causes FOD

A

Most FOD can be attributed to three general causes: poor housekeeping, poor maintenance practices, and carelessness.

1-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is JOAP and who provides funds for it

A

Joint Oil Analysis Program
CG-41

1-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How much fuel should be taken for fuel samples

A

It is recommended that approximately one pint of fuel from each drain be inspected using a clear, clean, dry glass container.

1-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How much icing inhibitor is in fuel

A
The normal level of fuel system icing inhibitor in
turbine fuel (FSII) is 0.07-0.15 percent by volume

1-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How much does icing inhibitor lower the flash point of JP-5

A

4 degrees Fahrenheit and will inhibit the growth of bacteria.

1-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What manual is the Corrosion Control Program Process Guide

A

CGTO PG-85-00-60-A

1-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Use of artificial dehumidification for at least 8 hours per day
has been shown to reduce avionics dispatch failure rates by ___ and may extend structural longevity

A

40%

1-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Aviation tools will be of such quality that they meet or exceed ___ ___ ___ and where can you find the tool programpolicy

A

Society of Automotive Engineers aerospace standards
Supply Policy and Procedures Manual, COMDTINST M4400.19

1-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

POLYESTER RESINS ARE NOT AUTHORIZED FOR USE ON

ANY COAST GUARD AIRCRAFT

A

True

1-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you Request Changes to the Authorized Chemical Use List

A

The Technical Manual Application
System (TMAPS), Deficiency Report CG-22, shall be used to request Authorized Chemical Use List changes.

1-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lathes, milling machines, and similar types of equipment that produce cuttings or flying particles should be set at what

A

15-degree angles to each other, and secured to floors, bases, or stands.

2-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is The most effective means of preventing unsafe operations and injuries from powered machinery

A

improved machine design, or installation of protective
mechanical guards.

2-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Safety measures for grinders will be established in the following
manner:

A
  1. Metal hood type guards shall enclose two-thirds of the
    abrasive wheel.
  2. Tool rests shall be adjusted to provide a minimum of 1/8-inch
    from abrasive wheel grinding surface

2-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sealed lead-acid batteries and sealed nickel-cadmium batteries do not require a dedicated battery room or area, and can
be charged in the same battery room or area as long as a minimum
of 5 feet of clearance is maintained between the different batteries.

A

True

2-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you mix electrolyte with water

A

Pour the electrolyte into the water slowly

                                                Warning Never pour water into the electrolyte, AS INTENSE HEAT IS GENERATED AND MAY RESULT IN BURNS. 

2-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Oxygen cylinder storage shall be separate
from fuel-gas cylinders or combustible materials (especially oil or grease) by at least a distance of __ ft, or have a noncombustible barrier at least _ ft high and have a fire-resistance rating of at least ___

A

20 ft
5 ft
1/2 hour

2-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most effective type of fire extinguisher for putting out solvent fires

A

Carbon Dioxide CO2 fire extinguishers

2-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What should be used for purging solvent gases from equipment or piping systems and in welding of solvent containers (hot work).

A

Nitrogen gas

2-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Coast Guard policy regarding noise hazards and hearing conservation is contained in the

A

Safety and Environmental Health Manual, COMDTINST M5100.47

2-14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What type of respirators shall be used when applying aircraft polyurethane paint systems.

A

Full-face or Hood Full-face or hood, type C, continuous flow supplied air respirators

2-14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Single fibers can easily penetrate the skin, break off, and become lodged beneath the skin.

A

Sharp tweezers and a magnification lens are generally required to remove the fiber.

2-14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What type of fire extinguisher is used for aircraft engine starting

A

A qualified fire guard, adequately equipped with CO2, Halon, or dry chemical fire extinguisher, shall be stationed near the aircraft during engine starting

2-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Purchase of Halon fire extinguisher for flight line hangar and
shop use is prohibited. Existing Halon fire extinguishers may continue to be used and serviced as long as it is economically feasible.
Should the purchase of replacement fire extinguishers be necessary, flight line fire extinguishers shall be replaced with what type?

A

150 pound dry chemical type fire extinguishers.

Hangar and shop fire extinguishers shall be either CO2 or dry chemical as recommended by the local fire marshal.

2-16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ground Servicing of Aircraft and Static Grounding/Bonding manual

A

AFTO 00-25-172

2-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Spills involving an area of 18 inches or less in any dimension (small priming spills) are normally of minor consequence. What do you do

A

Ramp personnel shall stand by until the aircraft
is dispatched.

2-16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Spills not over 10 feet in any dimension or not over 50 square feet in area and not of a continuing nature shall have what?

A

a fire guard posted, up wind, with a foam-type or
Halon-type fire extinguisher until the area is inert and purged.

2-16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Spills over 50 square feet or of a continuing nature shall what

A

be immediately reported to the supervisor in charge, who shall notify the airport or local fire department to inert
the spill. Anyone in the spill area shall leave at once

2-16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

On collet-equipped jacks, the collet shall be kept within how threads of the lift
tube cylinders during raising and screwed down firmly to the cylinder after jacking is completed
to prevent settling.

A

2 threads

2-19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Outside jacking of aircraft will be permitted where wind conditions are favorable. Wind velocity not-to-exceed ___ miles per hour shall be considered the maximum

A

15 mph

2-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A spark is not necessary to explode oxygen. The chemical reaction of ___ ___ or ___ ___ with ___ is sufficient to develop spontaneous combustion, causing
an explosion.

A

Fuel, gases, or oil combined with oxygen

2-19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What must be done before connecting any oxygen bottles to any oxygen system

A

ensure that each cylinder is correctly identified as
containing aviation breathing oxygen by a white band
around the green cylinder or the words aviator’s breathing oxygen
painted on the cylinder.

2-21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

IF LOX SPILLS ON ASPHALT OR CONCRETE EXPANSION
JOINT SEALANT, STOP SERVICING OR OTHER OPERATIONS
WITHIN A 20–FOOT RADIUS OF SPILL AREA. DO NOT WALK
OR ROLL EQUIPMENT OVER AREA OF SPILL FOR AT LEAST
__ MINUTES (MINIMUM) AND UNTIL ALL FROST AND FOG
APPEARANCE HAS DISAPPEARED

A

30

2-22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ensure a serviceable ____ fire extinguisher or equivalent is placed within ___ feet of the LOX servicing
operation

A

125/150 lb wheeled PKP
50

2-22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Since LOX spills normally subject the foot area to a hazard of
freeze burn exposure, leather boots approximately __ inches in
height with close fitting top and with rubber sole and heel is
recommended.

A

8 in

2-21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What do you do if a control valve becomes clogged with ice

A

Thaw with water

2-21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The radar antenna should
not be operated within ___ feet of any fueling, defueling, or similar operation unless a
dummy load is installed that prevents the energizing of the antenna.

A

300 ft

2-23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the minimum number of people required to tow a HU-25, H-65, and H-60

A

04
2 wing walkers, 1 vehicle driver, 1 brakeman

a tail walker is required for the HU-25 in congested areas

A supervisory may act as vehicle driver or a wing walker

2-27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the minimum personnel required for towing a C-130

A

07- supervisor, vehicle driver, 2 wing walker, hydraulic pumpman, brakeman, tail walker

2-27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the minimum personnel required to tow an HC-144

A

06- everyone except a hydraulic pressure monitor

2-27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The primary directive for Coast Guard fueling operations is

the Aviation Fuel Handling Procedures Process Guide

A

CGTO PG-85-00-170-A

2-29, 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The hot refueling red circle dimensions shall be large enough to

A

encompass the entire aircraft including main rotor blades.

2-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

All changes, supplements, rapid access change (RACs), etc., to technical manuals will be
incorporated into the applicable manual within how long

A

5 working days

3-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Each unit will conduct semiannual audits(for publications) during the months of ___ and ___. A Mandatory Special Requirements (MSR) card must be signed showing accomplishment of this task

A

April(QA and shops) and October(shops)

3-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Accumulation of flight hours on the maintenance records shall be recorded to the nearest _________. Entries on all other forms and records listed herein will be rounded to the nearest ______.

A

Tenth of an hour

Whole hour

4-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Where can the AFT 781J web report be accessed

A

ALMIS-DSS-Web Reports under Unit Maintenance Reports

4-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the AFTO 781J and how long is it maintained

A

Airframe and Engine Operating Time and Cycle Information, AFTO 781J (manual entry or computerspreadsheet) for each aircraft type and maintained for 1 year.

4-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What information is kept on the AFTO 781J

A
  1. HU-25: Aircraft flight hours, landings, engine (airframe) cycles number 1 and 2.
  2. MH-65: Date of flight, aircraft flight hours, and landings. Turbomeca Arriel Enginecycles will be recorded on the Turbomeca Engine Flight Report spreadsheet.
  3. MH-60: Aircraft flight hours, Low Cycle Fatigue (LCF) 1, LCF 2, EngineOperating Hours (EOC), Time-Temperature Index Indicator (TTI).
  4. HC-144: Aircraft flight hours, landing.

4-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What manual is used for CG-22 procedures

A

CGTO PG-85-00-20-A, for instructions on routing and preparing the CG-22.

4-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What shall all tow members possess during all towing operations

A

A whistle. One long blast shall be utilized to signal stop

2-26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How much distance shall be left between rows of parked aircraft

A

Enough to allow immediate access of emergencyvehicles in case of fire and also permit free movement of equipment and materials.

2-26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Who gives clearance to proceed with movement of aircraft across runways or taxiways (or within any aircraft movement area as defined by proper airfield authority)

A

Airport control tower (or ground control, as appropriate)

2-26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

RACs normally involve what

A

Possible safety of flight or faultyequipment items.

3-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

IRACs are normally distributed in what form

A

Message format and they require immediate action

3-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What supersedes all active TOPS

A

Revision

3-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Who notifies a unit when it is time for a C-130 to be scheduled for induction into PDM

A

Each C-130 unit will be notified by ALC when the aircraft will be scheduled for induction into PDM. Aircraft transfer and personnel travel orders will be issued at the appropriatetime by Commandant (CG-711).

Enclosure 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What should a C130 land with upon delivery to PDM

A

Scheduled delivery should be planned so the aircraft arrives with a maximum of 8,000 pounds of fuel andno cargo

Enclosure 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the primary focus of PDM

A

airframe structure

Enclosure 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where can you find form SF 368, Product Quality Deficiency Report

A

CG portal

Enclosure 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Where can you find AF Form 847, Recommendation for Change of Publication -

A

Available on CGweb

Enclosure 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What forms are provided by ALC

A

DD-1574, Serviceable Tag-Materiel
DD-1577-2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag-Materiel
Product Quality Deficiency Report Tag (CG-1577-B)

Enclosure 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Where can you fins shipboard helicopter handling procedures

A

M3710.2

Enclosure 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where can you find hand signals for aircraft

A

Enclosure 4 of the 110

Enclosure 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

All epoxy resin should be stored in a refrigerator at what temperatures

A

40 F or below

Enclosure 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Where do you find aviation composite facilities guidelines

A

PG 110 enclosure 3

Enclosure 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Where do you find the designated QA inspector memo

A

Enclosure 1 of the PG 110

Enclosure 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the Logistics Compliance Inspection manual and where can you find additional LCI

A

LCI process guide CGTO PG-85-00-300-A and Chapter 1 of the Aeronautical Engineering Maintenance Management Manual, COMDTINST M13020.1

P 6-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are other terms for unservicable

A

Condition F, class 265, non Friday

6-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How many material types are there

A

7

6-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Type 1 material

A

Aircraft engines, other high value components

6-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What qualifies for type 2

A

(1) Unit price of $250 or more(2) Procured from a commercial source of supply(3) Flight critical(4) Reparable

6-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What qualifies for type 3 material

A

Consumable aeronautical materiel, less avionics, with a unit price less than $250 and procurable from an OGA source. Units set their own allowance quantitiesand procure materiel using unit AFC 30 funds.

6-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Avionics materiel for which ALC has service-wide support responsibility. To Qualify as Type 4 material, one of the following conditions must be satisfied:

A

(1) Unit price of $800 or more (2) Procured from a commercial source of supply (3) Flight critical (4) Reparable

6-2,3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What qualifies for type 5 material

A

Consumable avionics materiel with a unit price less than $800 and procurable from an OGA source. Units set their own allowance quantities and procure materialusing unit AFC 30 funds.

6-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Type 6 Aeronautical Support Equipment (SE):

A

(1) For items costing more than $250, but less than $3,500, ALC will provide initial provisioning but will not provide subsequent replacement or repair.(2) Contact ALC for guidance on reparables beyond unit capability and funding of$3,500 or above.

6-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is type 7 material

A

Material used to support the Turbomeca Arriel 2C2 CG engine.

6-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Unserviceable type 1 material will have shipment orders issued. How many days after do you have to ship material to alc

A

As soon as practicable or no later than 15 days from the receipt of shipment orders

6-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

In an event where material is ordered from ALC and its not in ALC inventory it will be ordered from theappropriate government agency or commercial vendor. It will then be billed to ALC after shipment. How many days should the bill be payed by

A

The Prompt Payment Act requires that these invoices be paid within 30 days of receipt of materiel

6-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How many times a day are priority 5 and 12 items evaluated

A

Once per day

6-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Who must coordinate the entire parts pool process

A

The requesting unit

6-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Who issues TCTO change kits and when are they issued

A

ALC
Kits requiring more than 4 labor hours for incorporation will not normally be issued within 4 months of the scheduled aircraft PDM induction date.
(2) Kits requiring 4 or less labor hours for incorporation will not be issued within 45 days of scheduled aircraft PDM induction dates.

6-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How many days do you have to ship material back to ALC once it is removed from service

A

15 days

6-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

In an effort to reduce part of the problem of unnecessary man labor hours, ALC has developed two different decals.

A

One decal is white And indicates the component has been completely overhauled at ALC. The other decal is yellow and indicates the item has only been inspected and/or repaired as necessary to return the item to a serviceable condition.

7-2

88
Q

What are the 3 classifications of MDEs material deficiency evaluations

A

In order by cost Engineering Investigation (EI), the Disassembly Inspection Report (DIR), and the Condition Exception Report (CER).

7-3

89
Q

Who are the cognizant system managers for obtaining MDEs(material deficiency evaluations)

A

Commandant CG-41

7-3

90
Q

When do you submit an ALMIS access request form

A

During check in and check out of a unit, to update a users access level, reflect changes in rank, and change a user’s unit

5-1

91
Q

Where can you find an ALMIS access request form

A

CG portal and ALMIS Logon screen beneath the user’s password

5-1

92
Q

As a precaution to EAL service interruptions and to ensure asset operations are not negatively affected, all maintenance records will be backed up how often

A

A minimum of once per day

5-1

93
Q

When shall the term installed be used on EAL forms

A

To be used when performing an initial inspection not related to a previous removal action, such as initial installation of additional equipment or new components installed as a result of modification.

5-2

94
Q

When shall the term replaced be used on EAL forms

A

To be used when an existing component has been removed from the aircraft and another Ready for Installation (RFI) component has been installed in its place. Replacement (or repair) of minor parts, hardware, and soft goods(seals, gaskets, electrical connectors, fittings, tubing, hose, wiring, fasteners,vibration isolators, brackets, etc.) - this action taken code will be used.

5-2

95
Q

When shall the term reinstalled to be used on EAL forms

A

To be used when a component has been removed and the removed components is subsequently put back on the aircraft in the same location (original parts is removed and installed in the same aircraft and same location), such as component removed/reinstalled to facilitate other maintenance (includes disconnect/connection of electrical wires, hydraulic lines, etc.).

5-2

96
Q

What is the only color ink authorized for paper EAL forms

A

Black

5-2

97
Q

How long shall paper forms for unit mission and maintenance records be retained at the unit

A

90 days

5-2

98
Q

What do the acronyms NMC, NMCM, NMCS, and NMCD stand for

A

Not mission capable
NMC Maintenance- the asset is undergoing maintenance
NMC Supply- the asset is awaiting a critical part
NMC Depot- the asset is undergoing depot level maintenance

5-2

99
Q

How are FMC, PMC and NMC assets listed in EAL

A

Fully Mission Capable- green up pointing triangle
PMC- yellow sideward-pointing triangle
Not Mission Capable- red downward-pointing triangle. NMC status indicates asset cannot be used on an operational mission.

5-2

100
Q

The use of colored text in EAL will be limited to the following colors and uses

A

Blue: special inspections
Green: logbook reviews
Red: functional check requirements and aircrew warnings

5-2

101
Q

What color is the paper version used for non flight generated discrepancies

A

White

5-3 Note

102
Q

A _____ release is mandatory for any grounding discrepancy or flight control work,including trim tabs, rigging work, engine change, prop or governor work, landing gear system work

A

QA release primary or collateral

5-4

103
Q

What release is required for a grounded aircraft before it is released for flight

A

Maintenance release

5-4

104
Q

Where can you find a sample maintenance release letter

A

M13020.1

5-4

105
Q

When corrective action on a BRAVO (FMC or PMC) asset is delayed beyond 24 hours, one of the following codes must be applied to the discrepancy.

A

(a) CF - Indicates carried forward.
(b) CFD - Indicates carried forward to depot level maintenance.
(c) PP - Indicates pending parts.
(d) SQ - Indicates a maintenance squawk.

5-4

106
Q

Squawks are defined as discrepancies that:

A

[1] Are minor and or cosmetic in nature, concerning light corrosion control; reapplying sealing compound, waxing, painting, etc.
[2] Do not require the replacement of tracked or untracked components or parts other than minor hardware.
[3] Cannot be completed as part of normal flight line maintenance, i.e.,servicing reservoirs, replacing broken safety wire, or repositioning clamps.
[4] Do not affect the operation of a component or system.
[5] Do not affect flight operations or the flight crews in the performance Of their duties.

5-5

107
Q

With the exception of deployed assets, no deferred discrepancies shall remain open for a period longer than ___ ___ without the approval of the unit EO or their designated representative

A

30 days

5-5

108
Q

Parts Pending discrepancies must have a non-flight-essential part requisitioned, and a part requisition number must be provided within

A

72 hours

5-5

109
Q

What comments are added upon receipt of parts for a parts pending discrepancy

A

Parts received and awaiting installation

5-5

110
Q

Each unit shall maintain a sufficient number of printed paper logbook forms on hand to enable normal asset flight and maintenance operations for a period of how long

A

1 week

5-8

111
Q

What designated colors are each of the forms

A

(a) Preflight and Servicing Record - Yellow
(b) Mission Record - Blue
(c) Mission-Generated Maintenance Record - Pink
(d) Flight Safety Maintenance Document - Pink

5-8

112
Q

Accumulated flight hours recorded on the Mission Record and the Mission-Generated Maintenance Record shall be recorded to the nearest ____ of an hour. Entries on all other forms and records will be rounded to the nearest ____ hour

A

Tenth
Whole

5-8

113
Q

No. DAHS: Number of Days Away from Home Station

A

DAHS is rounded to the nearest whole day, whenever an AC is away from its parent unit for a continuous period in excess of 12 hours.

AC deployed aboard ship are not counted in this category, except during transit to and from the ship, or when temporarily operating at a shore facility away from the ship. Subject to the conditions and limitations set forth in the Abstract of Operations, CIM 3123,Chapter 2 and CIM 3710-5A.

5-20

114
Q

What chapter do you use for discrepancies that do not have an ATA chapter

A

12

5-23

115
Q

How often should a MDL be printed off

A

At a minimum once a month for each aircraft and it should project maintenance for a 2 month period

4-3

116
Q

USCG aviation units will be required to submit the following reports and forms using Coast Guard and Air Force forms and TMAPS

A
  1. DeficiencyReport: Technical ManualApplication SystemTMAPS, Deficiency Report (CG-22), formerly Aeronautical PublicationChange Recommendation Form- CGTO PG-85-00-20-A: All 2. AF Form 847: Recommendation for Change of Publication(Flight and Standardization Manual)-Self-explanatory: All
  2. AFTO 103: Aircraft Missile Condition Report-AFTO 00-25-4: HC-130

4-5

117
Q

This report shall be used to document any unusual work required for aircraft which are scheduled for PDM at military or commercial activities.

A

Aircraft Missile Condition Report, AFTO Form 103 (HC-130 only)

4-12

118
Q

AFTO form 103 shall be prepared inaccordance with

A

AFTO 00-25-4

4-12

119
Q

What is the Product Quality Deficiency Report form

A

Standard Form (SF) 368

4-13

120
Q

What is the standard form for use in reporting quality deficiencies on all DoD-owned materiel (i.e.,components, engines, and aircraft)

A

SF 368

4-13

121
Q

Deficiency reports resulting from HC-130 PDM shall be prepared in ____ ____ by the receiving activity not later than ___ ___ after receipt of the aircraft, in accordance with USAF Deficiency Reporting and Investigating System, AFTO 00-35D-54. Commandant (CG-41) shall be an information addressee.

A

Message format
20 days

4-13

122
Q

Deficiency reports concerning aircraft having completed PDM at ALC shall be Submitted on a

A

Letter report

4-13

123
Q

Deficiency reports for aircraft initial delivery from manufacturer shall be submitted on a

A

Letter report

4-13

124
Q

DD-1574: Serviceable Tag (Orange) This tag is attached to and identifies serviceable equipment. All entries are self-explanatory.

A

In the Remarks section, write the Aircraft type if this part is used on a single aircraft type. Use the word Multi for parts that can be used on multiple aircraft types.

4-13

125
Q

D-1577-2: Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag(1) (Green) This form will be attached to an unserviceable item upon removal and will remain attached through all maintenance processing until the item is serviceable,except at ALC

A

In the CONDITION CODE section, write F,in the REASON FOR REPARABLE CONDITION section write the failure mode if known (not BROKE). In the REMOVED FROM section, write the Aircraft Tail Number of the Aircraft Type for a non-installed part.

4-14

126
Q

DD FORM 1577-2 - Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag (Blue)

A

(Blue) This form will be attached to an unserviceable item that is nonreparable at ALC and will be sent to an outside vendor or manufacturer for repair. Entriesare self-explanatory with the exception of the following: In the NSN, PART NO.,and ITEM DESCRIPTION sections, write the NSN, Part Number, and item description of the removed part (these may be different than the replacement part information). In the CONDITION CODE section, write F, in the REASON FOR REPARABLE CONDITION section write the failure mode if known (not BROKE). In the REMOVED FROM section, write the Aircraft Tail Number of theAircraft Type for a non-installed part.

4-15

127
Q

While in maintenance at ALC, ______ (series), ALC Repair Division Process Tag, will suffice for form DD-1577-2 while the item is being processed.

A

Form ALC 5000-5

4-15

128
Q

DD-1577 Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag (red)

A

This form will be attached to all material that has been determined irreparable or not suitable for aircraft use (scrap parts or material). Entries are self-explanatory with the exception of the following: In the NSN, part number, and item description of the removed part (these may be different than the replacement part information). In the CONDITION CODE section,write S, in the REASON or AUTHORITY section write the failure mode if known (not BROKE). The INSPECTOR’S NAME or STAMP and DATE section should contain the signature of the mechanic, QA, equipment specialist, or other authorized scrap agent approving the part or material for scrap. In the REMOVED FROM section, write the aircraft tail number of the aircraft removed from

4-15

129
Q

CG-1577-B - PQDR, Product Quality Deficiency Report Tag (red and blue)

A

A PQDR should be Submitted anytime that a part or component fails to meet its warranty or mean time schedule. A PQDR will be submitted anytime that a part is received with damage from shipping so that transportation and packaging can be reviewed. At any time a part or component that is considered to be a flight safety critical fails to perform properly during its mean time schedule, a PQDR should be submitted. Flight Safety Critical Aircraft Parts (FSCAP) that fail beyond their mean time schedule and have an adverse affect on the safe outcome of the flight, or adversely impact the ability to complete the mission, warrant a PQDR. If after receiving from supply or shortly after installation, a part fails to operate during testing, then this too warrants a PQDR whether the part is critical or not

4-16

130
Q

What shall be used to communicate information concerning failures of aeronautical components and equipment, including mission equipment, ground support equipment, and tools. Its primary purpose is to provide information that will be of value to management personnel in identifying fleetwide problems and individual components that fail repeatedly. Its secondary purpose is to track specific unit submissions, evaluate the performance of the repair/overhaul facilities, and to act as a vehicle to obtain no-cost repairs or replacements from applicable vendors.

A

The Joint deficiency Reporting System Product Quality Deficiency Report

4-17

131
Q

What is the JDRS process guide (joint deficiency reporting system)

A

PG 85-00-1320-A

4-17

132
Q

After the PDM induction of an aircraft at ALC, several Inspection and Evaluation (I&E) processes are completed on the airframe and its components for the purpose of evaluating the condition and determining the disposition of the same. Upon the completion of these I&E processes, the associated ALC Product Line may provide what to the CO of the inducting unit and CG-41

A

Post Induction memorandum

4-18

133
Q

How long for the post PDM report

A

In no case shall the memorandum be submitted to the unit later than 30 calendar days after the aircraft has achieved the requirements of Table 4-3, and the unit then has 30 days from receipt to complete and submit the finished document to ALC.

4-18

134
Q

What are Examples of discrepancies that are directly attributable to the PDM effort

A

a. Corrosion not corrected during PDM
b. Structural defect not identified and addressed during PDM
c. Quality of workmanship (i.e., improper installation or adjustment of an item on the aircraft)
d. Aesthetics (i.e., paint or decal not properly applied)
e. Electrical discrepancy (i.e., improper wiring terminations, routing, or similar noncompliance)

4-18

135
Q

The following discrepancies are considered not attributable to PDM and should not beincluded in the post PDM report:

A

a. Component failures: for example, a properly installed avionics component that stops functioning
b. Routine maintenance

4-19

136
Q

During a TRISWAP who will submit the memorandum including only those discrepancies encountered during the first 14 days of operational availability at the reporting unit

A

The unit receiving an aircraft from a transferring unit shall submit a memorandum report to the Commanding Officer, ALC, with an information copy to Commandant (CG-41), transferring unit, and appropriate ALC Product Line Managers.

4-19

137
Q

Discrepancies should be reported as either major or minor. What is the difference

A

A major discrepancy is one which affects safety of flight or grounds the aircraft and is directly attributable to PDM effort.

A minor discrepancy is any other discrepancy directly Attributable to the PDM effort.

4-19

138
Q

What shall be included on the TriSwap report.

A

All open CF/CFD/PP/Squawk discrepancies that the transferred aircraft arrived with

4-19

139
Q

MOEs are available through (measures of effectiveness)

A

Almis DSS

4-19

140
Q

What is NMCM

A

NMCM is the status of an aircraft which is Not Mission Capable because unit-level scheduled or unscheduled maintenance work (as defined in Chapter 1 of theAeronautical Engineering Maintenance Management Manual, COMDTINST M13020.1 (series)) is in progress

4-21

141
Q

What is NMCS

A

NMCS is the status of an aircraft which is Not Mission Capable due to the lack ofavailable parts or supplies.

4-21

142
Q

When does the NMCS clock start

A

The NMCS clock starts when an aircraft is incapable of meeting mission readiness requirements, and corrective maintenance is being prevented because a required part is unavailable.

4-21

143
Q

NMCD

A

NMCD reflects the percentage of time that aircraft of each type are unavailable to air stations for operational use due to depot level maintenance or testing.

4-21

144
Q

Maintenance Labor Hours (MLH) Expended at Units

A

The total MLHs expended at each unit as reported on ACMS tracked MPCs and the EAL maintenanceand servicing forms. These do not account for all MLHs expended by units on CG aircraft (such as line and shop maintenance), but they do measure approximately 85% of the total.

4-22

145
Q

What is The percentage of time that air stations are able to meet their defined mission readiness requirements

A

B-0 rate

4-23

146
Q

Where is the inability to maintain a B-0 assetis reported

A

By occurrence in EAL and recorded in the DSS Unable to Meet Readiness Requirement (UMRR) PowerPlay Cube.

4-23

147
Q

What will have precedence over Navy publications detailing the distribution and management of technical publications.

A

TMAPS

3-1

148
Q

What numbering system does the navy use for technical manuals

A

The Navy uses the standard NAVAIR numbering system and TIMINS numbering system

3-3

149
Q

Changed pages are identified by referring to the List of Effective Pages (backside of title page), which indicates the change number and/or change dates. The change number is printed in the lower corner of the changed page with the page number. How are the changes indicated

A

Changes in the text are indicated by a heavy black line in the outer margin opposite the changed part of the text.

3-3

150
Q

What supersedes all active TOPS

A

A revision

3-12

151
Q

A ____ is a complete new edition of an existing TO and has a new basic date.

A

Revision

3-12

152
Q

Normally, a TO is revised when the pages affected by existing changes, in addition to pages requiring change, total ___ or more of the technical order.

A

50%

3-12

153
Q

What symbols indicate current changes in the text of a revision which were not previously published as TO changes or supplements.

A

Black vertical borderline symbols

3-12

154
Q

are issued to augment or change data in the basic TOs that are not adaptable to the inclusion of individual change pages.

A

Supplements

3-12

155
Q

Where do you reference Air Force technical order category breakdowns

A

AFTO 00-5-18

3-12

156
Q

During normal operations, maintenance personnel should be scheduled based on a goal of a _____ Maintenance Shift Time (MST) workweek.

A

40-hour

2-1

157
Q

Approval for extending MST (maintenance shift time) shall be in accordance with Table 2-1

A

> 8 Hours-Shift Supervisor- None
10 Hours -Maintenance Release Authority -Unit Engineering Officer²
8 Hours and encompassing Red Zone (0300-sunrise)1-Maintenance Release Authority- Unit Engineering Officer²
8 Hours and performing flight and maintenance duties in the same work shift -Maintenance Release Authority- Unit Engineering Officer²
12 Hours -Unit Engineering Officer³- Commanding Officer4
16 Hours- Commanding Officer³ -N/A

2-1

158
Q

Personnel are restricted from performing aircraft maintenance or any aircraft maintenance related activities for ___ hours after last alcohol use

A

10 hours

2-2

159
Q

Personnel shall not perform maintenance or quality assurance inspections on grounding Discrepancies or flight control work beyond ___ ____ MST hours without prior Authorization from the unit ____ ____

A

12 cumulative hours
EO

2-2

160
Q

Where are Batteries of the lead-acid type shall be located

A

Ventilated fireproof rooms

2-6

161
Q

Aviation Survival Shop shall maintain gaseous oxygen servicing equipment in accordance with

A

Chapter 5 of the Aviation Life Support Manual, COMDTINST M13520.1

2-9

162
Q

Containers of not more than ___ gallon capacity will be used for storing paints and dopes.

A

5

2-10

163
Q

All electric power tools, switches, junction boxes,and regulators will be positioned at least _____ above the floor level in hangars which house fueled aircraft.

A

18 inches

2-11

164
Q

Where would you reference hazardous waste, procedures, proper use, etc. (oils, fuels, poisons, solvents, etc.)

A

Hazardous Waste Management Manual, COMDTINST M16478.1 (series)

2-12

165
Q

Where do you reference shop safety practices(metal, survival, battery, and paint), battery, paint, welding, metal working machine, power electric pneumatic and hand tool precautions

Also fire precaution and prevention

A

Chapter 2 of PG 85-00-110-A

166
Q

All solvent soaked cloths or waste shall be disposed of in

A

Airtight metal containers and removed from work areas

2-13

167
Q

Combustible materials shall not be stored or allowed to accumulate in air or elevators shafts, stairways, in out-of-the-way corners, near electric motors or machinery, against steam pipes, or within _____ of any stove, furnace, or boiler.

A

10 ft

2-16

168
Q

How often are fire extinguisher visual inspections

A

Visual inspections shall be made monthly and recorded on a tag attached to the extinguisher.

2-16

169
Q

Flight line fire extinguisher requirements shall be in accordance with

A

Ground Servicing-of Aircraft and Static Grounding/Bonding, AFTO 00-25-172.

2-16

170
Q

Existing static grounds should be tested every ___ _____utilizing the proper equipment and procedures detailed in the MIL-HDBK-274

A

24 months

2-17

171
Q

Flight line certified static grounds should be tested to the required standard of less than _______ ______.

A

10,000 ohms

2-17

172
Q

Hangar deck certified power grounds should be tested to the current standard of less than

A

25 ohms

2-17

173
Q

Static grounds mechanically damaged should also be repaired and retested prior to use. Certified static and power grounds will be marked in _____ letters with date tested and test results measured In ohms stenciled on the ground decal/painted ground marking in accordance with MIL-HDBK-274

A

1 in

2-17

174
Q

Do not deplete an oxygen bottle below what psi

A

50 psi

2-21

175
Q

For LOX bottle exchange operations, the operator is only required to

A

wear eye protection (goggles or face shield).

2-21

176
Q

Protective Clothing and Equipment

A

When transferring LOX, personnel shall wear a locally purchased white, adjustable hard hat with integrated ear protection and face shield, heavy-duty blue cryogenic protective mid-arm style gloves with internal waterproof film, heavy-duty blue cryogenic protective apron with internal waterproof film and adjustable Fastex neck and waist buckles, white cotton coveralls (mandatory)(NSN 8405-00-037-9274), cuff-less trousers, long-sleeve shirt, and black turnout boots(firefighter) certified to NFPA 1971 and NFPA 1992 standards

2-22

177
Q

ALLOW THE LOX SYSTEM TO STABILIZE (VENT) FOR ATLEAST ___ ______AFTER SERVICING PRIOR TO USE,BUILDUP, OR READING ANY GAUGES. FAILURE TO DO SO MAY CAUSE VALVE BLOCKAGE FROM MOISTURE AND LEAD TO SYSTEM DAMAGE OR INJURY TO PERSONNEL

A

30 minutes

2-23

178
Q

400 Hz external power shall include an aircraft interlock circuit, which will energize 400Hz output contactor only after pins E and F of the aircraft service cable are plugged into the aircraft receptacle. How many conductors on the system?

A

The aircraft service cable shall be six conductor; four for power and two for aircraft interlock circuit pins E and F.

2-25

179
Q

A qualified fire guard, adequately equipped with what type of fire extinguisher shall be stationed near the aircraft during all engine starts

A

CO2, Halon, or dry chemical fire extinguisher

2-26

180
Q

How many wing walkers are required when taxiing an aircraft within 5 ft of an obstruction

A

None as it is not allowed to taxi within 5 ft of an obstruction

2-29

181
Q

Hot refueling operations are not allowed within ___ feet of any building, unless operating under a waiver from Commandant (CG-41

A

100 ft

2-30

182
Q

New construction is prohibited within ___ feet of the hot refueling area.

A

200 ft

2-30

183
Q

Storing equipment, outside of existing structures, within ___ feet of the hot refueling area is prohibited.

A

200 ft

2-30

184
Q

Hazardous waste disposal shall be in accordance withthe Hazardous Waste Management Manual

A

COMDTINST M16478.1

2-30

185
Q

When can A collateral QA may sign off grounding discrepancies and flight control work

A

in individual cases when approved by a supervisor possessing maintenance release authority.

1-1

186
Q

Who Maintains the unit’s master library of all applicable technical publications and directives.

A

The QA shop

1-1

187
Q

For further guidance on hydraulic fluid and surveillance, refer to.

A

NAVAIR 01-1A-17

1-2

188
Q

What is the Reliability-Centered Maintenance ProcessGuide,

A

CGTO PG-85-00-30-A,

1-4

189
Q

Fuel samples shall be kept for a period of ___ hours or until another fuel sample is taken from that tank.

A

24 hours

1-5

190
Q

Who runs the TEMPEST program

A

Commandant (CG-41) Commandant (CG-41) will oversee the Coast Guard aviation TEMPEST program. Commandant (CG-61) will provide Commandant (CG-41) with national, Department of Homeland Security, and Coast Guard TEMPEST policy.

1-6

191
Q

What will be used as a cover sheet for message TCTOs received by the unit and provides a convenient place for sign off of accomplished work

A

The maintenance instruction

1-8

192
Q

Whenever any maintenance instruction(SAMI, CAMI, TIMI) has served its purpose, itshould be canceled and filed for how long

A

for 6 months after completion date

1-8

193
Q

The maintenance instruction is usually prepared by whom

A

the QA subsection and signed by the Engineering Officer.

1-8

194
Q

THE SAFETY ANDENVIRONMENTAL HEALTH MANUAL,

A

COMDTINST M5100.47

1-10

195
Q

All temporary repairs will be annotated as a ___ discrepancy until permanent repairs are effected

A

Carried Forward (CF)

1-10

196
Q

Requesting Changes to the Authorized Chemical Use List

A

The Technical Manual ApplicationSystem (TMAPS), Deficiency Report CG-22, shall be used to request Authorized ChemicalUse List changes

1-14

197
Q

The Technical Airworthiness Assurance Program is discussed in the.

A

ACCB Process Guide, CGTO PG-85-00-70-A

1-14

198
Q

How are deficiency reports formatted or prepared

A

(1) Deficiency reports concerning components and engines, regardless of the overhaul/repair activity involved, shall be submitted to ALC via a UR. ALC will function as the screening activity and will prepare and submit an SF 368 as required.
(2) Deficiency reports resulting from HC-130 PDM shall be prepared in message format by the receiving activity not later than 20 days after receipt of the aircraft,in accordance with USAF Deficiency Reporting and Investigating System, AFTO 00-35D-54. Commandant (CG-41) shall be an information addressee.
(3) Deficiency reports concerning aircraft having completed PDM at ALC shall be submitted on a Letter Report.
(4) Deficiency reports for aircraft initial delivery from manufacturer shall be submitted on a Letter Report.

4-13

199
Q

If an item has been damaged as a result of improper packing what is the proper vehicle for reporting the problem

A

PQDR

When an item is received with a damaged package or shipping container, it may require a Transportation Discrepancy Report(TDR) (Form SF 361) in addition to a Product Quality Deficiency Report (reference COMDTINST 4610.6 (series)). If an item has been damaged as a result of improper packing, a PQDR remains the proper vehicle for reporting the problem.

4-18 note
PG 85-00-1320 JDRS P 1-1 Note

200
Q

Post PDM Memorandum that includes discrepancies found during requirements(first number of days sorties and flight hours)

A

In no case shall the memorandum be submitted to the unit later than 30 calendar days after the aircraft has achieved the requirements of Table 4-3, and the unit then has 30 days from receipt to complete and submit the finished document to ALC.The limits in Table 4-3 are meant to be guidelines; a problem clearly related to PDM that is discovered on day 16 or at the 33rd flight hour should still be included in the report.

4-18

201
Q

Who designates an Confined Space Entry Engineer

A

CO

1-11

202
Q

How long are confined space records kept

A

Minimum of 3 years

P 1-11

203
Q

How often does the EO or designated representative review aircraft logbooks?

A

Monthly

4-1

204
Q

A ____ may be prepared when a directive or situation dictates that specific work must be performed on a one-time basis

A

SAMI (single action maintenance instruction)

1-8

205
Q

A _____ may be prepared when a directive or situation requires that technical information be promulgated within an activity.

A

TIMI

1-9

206
Q

Who can serve as the CSE engineer

A

QA officer, assistant engineering officer, or maintenance officer

1-11

207
Q

The CSE Engineer shall Perform the duties of the qualified person as defined in Safety and Environmental HealthManual,

A

COMDTINST M5100.47

1-11

208
Q

Entry authority certification is good for how long

A

1 year

1-11

209
Q

What is considered an adequate rest period between work shifts

A

8 hours continuous with no MST

2-1

210
Q

How many wing walkers are required when taxiing an aircraft within 25 ft of obstructions

A

One for each wing tip

2-29

211
Q

Where should the taxi signal mans position be

A

The taxi signalman should assume and maintain a position where the pilot’s or qualified aircrew’s eyes can be seen at all times. This position should be slightly ahead and in line with the wing tip on the pilot’s side of the aircraft.

2-29

212
Q

For HC-130 aircraft there shall be ___ people in the cockpit for all engine starts and run-ups. For MH-60 and MH-65 helicopters there shall be ___ person in the cockpit for all engine starts

A

Two
One

2-28

213
Q

Who gives clearance to tow aircraft across runways or taxiways

A

Airport control tower or ground patrol

2-28

214
Q

Generally, the distance left between rows of parked aircraft shall be

A

enough to allow immediate access of emergencyvehicles in case of fire and also permit free movement of equipment and materials

2-28

215
Q

The towing speed of the aircraft shall not exceed that of the

A

walking team members

2-28