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SCWS Study Guide Common Core > CC 111 CBR > Flashcards

CC 111 CBR Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of chemical warfare?

A

Chemical agents are used to produce death, injury, temporary incapacitation, or irritating effects

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2
Q

What is the purpose of biological warfare?

A

Biological operations use living organisms to cause disease or death. They act on living matter only. Most organisms that produce disease enter the body of the victim and grow in the human tissues.

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3
Q

How do chemical agents enter the body?

A

They enter the body by the victim’s breathing or swallowing or through the skin of the victim.

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4
Q

How do biological agents enter the body?

A

The most efficient means of delivering biological agents on a large scale is through aerosols, which generally are invisible and odorless. Animals and insects can be used as carriers to spread biological agents. Another method of quickly infecting large numbers of people is for saboteurs to contaminate a water supply.

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5
Q

What is the purpose of the protective mask?

A

A properly fitted and maintained M40 mask, when worn with the proper filter canister installed, will protect face, eyes, and lungs from field concentrations of CB agents, toxins, and radioactive fallout particles.

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6
Q

What is the purpose of the Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology (JLIST)?

A

The function of the JLIST is to protect the wearer from threat levels of chemical agents in liquid form and from the associated vapor.

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7
Q

What is the purpose of Antropin/2PAM Chloride?

A

The injectors contain medications to treat the initial symptoms of nerve agent poisoning. But, most importantly, it will check the more serious effects of nerve agent sickness. The injectors are antidotes, not a preventive device; therefore, only use the injectors when you actually experience symptoms of nerve agent poisoning.

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8
Q

What is the purpose of the IM-143/PD?

A

The IM-143/PD indicates gamma radiation dose in the range of 0 to 600 R. It keeps track of the dose they have received up to the time they read the dosimeter.

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9
Q

Describe the operation of the protective mask.

A

Air enters the filter canister. The filter canister filters out CB agents, toxins, and radioactive fallout particles from contaminated air. Air then passes over the airflow deflector. The air then moves into the eye area of the facepiece. From the eye area, air enters the nosecup. Filtered air from the nosecup is inhaled by the soldier. Exhaled air is passed through the nosecup area and out through the outlet valve

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10
Q

Describe the semi-annual maintenance of the protective mask.

A

Check mask assembly for dirt
Check rubber next to eye lens is secure
Check chin flap for tears
Check internal drink tube
Check side port for hole or tears
Check voicemitter

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11
Q

What are the three broad types of antipersonnel agents used during chemical warfare?

A

Casualty, Incapacitating, and Harassing

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12
Q

What are the symptoms of a Casualty agent?

A

Blister agents cause severe burns, blisters, and general destruction of body tissue. When they are inhaled, the lungs are injured. Choking agents inflame the nose, throat, and particularly the lungs. Blood agents interfere with the distribution of oxygen by the blood.

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13
Q

What are the symptoms of an Incapacitating agent?

A

Reactions vary among individuals. One person might go into shock, and still another might have a feeling of extreme fatigue.

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14
Q

What are the symptoms of a Harassing agent?

A

Tear and vomiting agents cause temporary disability.

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15
Q

What are the different classifications of nuclear explosions?

A

Airburst
High-altitude burst
Surface burst
Underwater burst
Underground burst

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16
Q

Describe a nuclear air burst.

A

An airburst is a burst where the point of detonation is below an altitude of 100,000 feet, and the fireball does not touch the surface of the earth. There will be no significant residual nuclear radiation (gamma and beta radiation) from the resulting radioactive material unless rain or snow falls through the radioactive cloud.

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17
Q

Describe a nuclear high-altitude burst.

A

A high-altitude burst is an airburst where the point of detonation is above 100,000 feet. The important effects of high-altitude bursts cause damage to weapons systems or satellites operating in the upper atmosphere or in space. There will also be interference with electromagnetic waves from communications or radar systems that pass through or near the region of the burst.

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18
Q

Describe a nuclear surface burst.

A

A surface burst is a burst where the point of detonation is on, or above, the surface of the earth and the fireball touches the surface of the earth. It produces initial nuclear radiation around surface zero (SZ) and residual nuclear radiations around SZ and downwind from SZ.

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19
Q

Describe a nuclear underwater burst.

A

An underwater burst (fig. 10-4) is a burst where the point of detonation is below the surface of the water. An underwater burst produces underwater shock and a water plume which then causes a base surge. The range of damage due to shock is increased as the depth of the point of detonation is increased.

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20
Q

Describe a nuclear underground burst.

A

An underground burst is a burst where the point of detonation is below the surface of the ground. An underground burst produces a severe earth shock, especially near the point of detonation. Early fallout can be significant, and at distances near the explosion base surge (evidenced by a dust cloud) will be an important hazard.

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21
Q

What are the effects of a nuclear explosion?

A

Air blast
Thermal radiation
Nuclear radiation
Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP) phenomenon
Fallout

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22
Q

Describe the term air blast in reference to a nuclear explosion.

A

Air blast is the shock wave that is produced in the air by an explosion. The shock wave initially travels outward at a velocity of approximately seven times the speed of sound at high overpressures.

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23
Q

Describe the term thermal radiation in reference to a nuclear explosion.

A

Thermal radiation is the radiant energy (heat and light) that is emitted by the fireball. As the height of the point of detonation is increased, the area of the surface of the earth exposed to the thermal radiation increases.

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24
Q

Describe the term nuclear radiation in reference to a nuclear explosion.

A

The four types of nuclear radiation released as the result of a nuclear explosion are alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays, and neutrons.

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25
Q

Describe the term Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP) in reference to a nuclear explosion.

A

The initial nuclear ionizing radiation ionizes the atmosphere around the point of detonation. This action produces an EMP. It can induce large currents in cables and long-lead wires. These large transient currents can burn out electronic and electrical equipment. The electric field component can also produce transient signal overloads and spurious signals on communication nets and in computer-driven systems

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26
Q

Describe the term fallout in reference to a nuclear explosion.

A

Fallout is a major effect of a surface, shallow underground or underwater burst. It is the radioactive material that falls from the nuclear cloud and is deposited on exposed surfaces.

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27
Q

Define the acronym MOPP.

A

Mission Oriented Protective Posture

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28
Q

Describe how to inspect and maintain the JSLIST chemical protective ensemble

A

Before using the JSLIST verify that the factory vacuum seal is intact.
Before, during and after use:
Check for Petroleum, Oil, or Lubricant (POL)
Check for water
Check for rips or tears
Check for working draw strings and fasteners
Check gloves and boots for rips and tears

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29
Q

Chemical Contamination sign

A

The triangle is yellow on both sides. The word GAS in red 2-inch (5 cm) block letters is placed on the side of the markers facing away from the contamination. The name of the agent, if known, and the date and time of detection

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30
Q

Biological Contamination sign

A

The triangle is blue on both sides. The letters BIO in red (fluorescent paint, if available) 2-inch (5 cm) block letters are placed on the side of the marker facing away from the contamination. The name of the agent, if known, and the date and time of detection

31
Q

Radiological Contamination sign

A

The triangle is white on both sides. The word ATOM in black 2-inch (5 cm) block letters is placed on the side of the markers facing away from the contamination. The dose rate, date, and time of reading, and the date and time of burst,

32
Q

Chemical Minefield sign

A

The triangle is red on both sides. On the side facing away from the contamination (front) appear the words GAS MINES in yellow 1-inch (2.5 cm) block letters (fluorescent paint, if available) with a horizontal yellow l-inch (2.5 cm) stripe underneath the lettering

33
Q

In reference to CBR what is does the nomenclature M-9 depict?

A

Chemical agent detector tape.

34
Q

What type of agent does M-9 chemical agent detector tape detect?

A

Liquid nerve or blister agent.

35
Q

Describe the color that the M-9 chemical agent detector tape displays after it comes in contact with a liquid nerve or blister agent.

A

The paper indicates the presence of a nerve agent (G and V) or a blister agent (H and L) by turning a red or reddish color.

36
Q

In reference to CBR what is does the nomenclature M-8 depict?

A

Chemical agent detector paper.

37
Q

What type of agent does M-8 chemical agent detector tape detect?

A

Liquid nerve or blister agent.

38
Q

Describe the color that M-8 paper turns after it comes in contact with a liquid nerve or blister agent.

A

G Nerve Yellow
V Nerve Green
H Blister Red

39
Q

Describe the symptoms of nerve agent poisoning.

A

Pupils will be very small, usually pinpointed
Tightness in chest
Wheezing
Excess mucus
Headache
Sweating
Muscular twitching

40
Q

Define the acronym NAAK.

A

Nerve Agent Antidote Kit

41
Q

Describe the contents of the NAAK.

A

Atropine Atropine remains an essential drug in the treatment of nerve agent poisoning. It acts by blocking the effects of the nerve agent at the nerve receptors and produces relief from many of the symptoms.
2PAM Chloride The role of 2 PAM Cl is to block and reverse the bonding of the nerve agent to the nerve.
CANA (Diazepam) Unlike atropine, readily crosses the blood-brain barrier to block the effects of the nerve agent on the central nervous system.

42
Q

Describe self aid if you show symptoms of nerve agent exposure.

A

Immediately put on your mask
Remove the atropine from your NAAK
Position the green (needle) end of the injector against the injection site (thigh or buttock).
Apply firm, even pressure (not jabbing motion) to the injector until it pushes the needle into your thigh (or buttocks).
Hold the injector firmly in place for at least 10 seconds.
Repeat the same step with the black end of the 2PAM Cl.
Attach the injectors to you clothing by bending the needles to form a hook.
If you are able to walk without assistance, know who you are, and where you are, you WILL NOT need the second set of injections.
If you continue to have symptoms of nerve agent poisoning, seek someone else (a buddy) to check your symptoms and administer the additional sets of injections, if required.

43
Q

Describe buddy aid if your buddy shows symptoms of nerve agent exposure.

A

Mask the casualty
Position the casualty on his side
Before initiating buddy aid, determine if one set of auto-injectors has already been used so that no more than three sets of the antidote are administered.
If casualty is showing symptoms of nerve agent poisoning then administer a set of auto-injectors.
If symptoms are severe then immediately administer the second and third set of auto-injectors.
Buddy aid also includes administering the CANA with the third set of auto-injectors to prevent convulsions.
Attach the injectors to the casualties clothing by bending the needles to form a hook.

44
Q

In reference to CBR what is does the nomenclature M-291 depict?

A

Individual Skin Decontamination Kit

45
Q

In reference to CBR what is does the nomenclature M-295 depict?

A

Individual Equipment Decontamination Kit

46
Q

Describe how to use the M-291 and M-295.

A

The personal wipe-down technique is most effective when done within 15 minutes of being contaminated. The individual uses his personal M-291 skin decon kit to decontaminate exposed skin. Next he uses his M-295 (or additional M-291) to wipe down his mask, hood, gloves, and other essential gear. Do not attempt to remove chemical contamination from your protective over-garment. The garment’s special protective properties minimize hazards from chemical agents.

47
Q

State how long the JSLIST protective suit will provide protection from chemical agents once they are removed from the packaging under the following conditions:

A

Not exposed to chemical agents 6 launderings / 45 days of wear / 120 calendar days
Exposed to chemical agents 24 hours

48
Q

What are the three levels of decontamination?

A

Immediate, Operational, Thorough

49
Q

What is the purpose of immediate decontamination?

A

The aim of immediate decon is to minimize casualties, save lives, and limit the spread of contamination. Immediate decon consists of skin decon, personal wipe down, operator’s spray down

50
Q

What is the purpose of operational decontamination?

A

The aim of operational decon is to sustain operations, reduce the contact hazard, and limit the spread of contamination. Operational decon will also eliminate the necessity or reduce the duration of wearing MOPP gear. Operational decon consists of vehicle wash down and MOPP gear exchange.

51
Q

What is the purpose of thorough decontamination?

A

The aim of thorough decon is to reduce or eliminate the need for individual protective clothing. Thorough decon is carried out to reduce contamination on personnel, equipment/material, and/or working areas to the lowest possible level. Thorough decon consists of Detail Troop Decon (DTD) and Detailed Equipment Decon (DED).

52
Q

What factors should be considered when choosing a decontamination site?

A

Decon type
Terrain
Mission
The threat
The road network
The availability of water

53
Q

Where should you locate the MOPP gear exchange site when conducting equipment decon and MOPP gear exchange concurrently?

A

Prepare MOPP gear exchange at a clean site 50 meters upwind of vehicle wash-down.

54
Q

How soon after a chemical attack should decontamination take place?

A

Units should plan to conduct vehicle wash-down and MOPP gear exchange concurrently between one to six hours of becoming contaminated. This reduces degradation and improves a unit’s ability to perform its mission.

55
Q

What four main areas are included in a thorough decon site?

A

Pre-decon staging area
Detailed equipment decon (DED)
Detailed troop decon (DTD)
Post-decon assembly area

56
Q

Where should you locate the pre-staging area of a thorough decon site?

A

The contaminated unit moves to a pre-decon staging area approximately 250 to 500 meters downwind of the DED/DTD site.

57
Q

What stations are included in the DED process?

A

Primary wash
DS2 application
Contact time/interior decon
Rinse
Check

58
Q

What stations are included in the DTD process?

A

Individual gear decon
Over-boot and hood decon
Over-garment removal
Over-boot and glove removal
Monitor
Mask removal
Mask decon
Reissue

59
Q

What is the objective of DED?

A

The objective of DED is to reduce contamination levels to negligible risk levels.

60
Q

What is the objective of DTD?

A

The objective of DTD is to remove contaminated MOPP gear from soldiers and reduce the contamination on individual equipment to negligible risk levels.

61
Q

What is the purpose of CBR recon teams?

A

The purpose of CB recon is to find the boundary of contamination and/or routes around or through a contaminated area. Recon teams determine the following information:
Are there chemical agents present?
If an agent is present, what type of agent is it?
Where and when the agent was first detected?
What are the boundaries of the contaminated area?
Is there a clean route through the area?

62
Q

What is the purpose of CBR monitoring teams?

A

The purpose of monitoring is to enable the commander to decide the protective posture of the unit. If monitoring reveals no hazard, then the units may lower their MOPP level.

63
Q

What is the primary piece of equipment used to monitor for chemical agents?

A

M-256 kit

64
Q

What is the primary concern for CBR survey teams?

A

The primary concern in surveys is to determine areas contaminated by persistent chemical agents, so the majority of the testing done during a survey is with M8 or M9 Detector Paper. Periodic tests are done with the M256A1 Detection Kit to ensure that only the chemical agent being tested for with the detection paper is present.

65
Q

What are the three types of CBR surveys?

A

Point, Area, Reconnaissance

66
Q

What is the mission of a CBR point survey?

A

The point surveillance mission is conducted for a specific period of time, oriented to key terrain. It is typically conducted to ensure that time sensitive or critical operations can be conducted without unwarned encounters with chemical agent clouds or transfer hazards resulting from a munitions event.

67
Q

What is the mission of a CBR area survey?

A

The area survey mission is to provide tailored detection capability in those tactical situations where it is impractical to employ remote point samplers.

68
Q

What is the mission of the CBR reconnaissance survey?

A

The reconnaissance mission is conducted to reduce the time required to perform Nuclear Biological Chemical Reconnaissance System’s (NBCRS) primary mission or to increase confidence that an area is uncontaminated.

69
Q

What type of standard decontamination agent reacts violently with liquid mustard agent?

A

Super Tropical Bleach (STB)

70
Q

Describe a unit’s pre-attack CBR actions

A

Subordinate units review their higher headquarters decon plan to determine if the plan will support their unit’s mission. The supporting chemical unit leader will conduct a leader’s recon of the designated decon sites. If the selected site cannot support decon operations, the chemical unit leader will attempt to find another site close to original site.

71
Q

Describe a unit’s actions during a CBR attack.

A

The unit leaders must assess their situation and accurately report it to their headquarters. This situation report should include type and extent of contamination, current location, and the commander’s assessment of his ability to perform their current mission while contaminated and when he expects his unit to become combat ineffective. The contaminated unit should perform immediate decon techniques to increase their survivability and to limit the spread of contamination. If necessary the unit leader must request decon support

72
Q

Describe a unit’s actions after a CBR attack.

A

The decon support unit’s chemical staff must coordinate the movement of the contaminated unit to the link-up point and the decon site. After link up is achieved and all support assets are in position, the actual decontamination operation can commence.

73
Q

What chemical agents does the M256 kit detect?

A

Mustard (H and HD)
Phosgene Oxime (CX)
Lewisite
Hydrogen cyanide (AC)
Cyanogen chloride (CK)
Nerve agents (V and G)

74
Q

Explain the proper steps for donning the JSLIST chemical protective ensemble.

A

Mask within 9 seconds
Over-garment
Boots
Gloves within 8 minutes

SCWS Study Guide Common Core (12 decks)

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