CC 101 GENERAL SAFTEY Flashcards

1
Q

Who has ultimate responsibility for safety matters within his unit

A

Commanding Officer

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2
Q

Who has absolute responsibility for the safety, well-being, and efficiency of their commands?

A

The Commanding Officer

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3
Q

Whose duty is it to make sure all personnel understand all prescribed safety precautions?

A

The Safety Officer or Safety Manager

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4
Q

Whose duty is it to strictly enforce all prescribed safety precautions?

A

The Safety Officer or Safety Manager

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5
Q

Who is responsible for managing the Safety Occupational Health program?

A

The Safety Officer or Safety Manager

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6
Q

Who acts as the principal advisor to the commanding officer on shipboard Safety Occupational Health matters?

A

The Safety Officer or Safety Manager

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7
Q

Who serves as chairperson of the enlisted safety committee?

A

The Safety Officer or Safety Manager

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8
Q

Who shall ensure that all assigned workspaces are inspected and maintained free of hazards and are in compliance with applicable SOH standards?

A

Department Head, Division Officer, and Work Center Supervisor

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9
Q

Who shall take prompt action to abate/correct any identified deficiency under their control?

A

Department Head, Division Officer, and Work Center Supervisor.

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10
Q

Who shall advise the division officer on the status of the SOH program within the division including any safety-related items revealed through maintenance?

A

Safety Petty Officer

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11
Q

Who shall keep the division officer informed of safety training needs within the division?

A

Safety Petty Officer

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12
Q

Who shall conduct division Safety Occupational Health training and ensure documentation of that training is maintained?

A

Safety Petty Officer

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13
Q

Who is in charge of the administration the Safety Occupational Health program?

A

Executive Officer

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14
Q

Who must follow posted safety precautions, comply with safety standards, and report unsafe or unhealthful conditions.

A

all hands

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15
Q

How often does the Safety Council convene?

A

Quarterly

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16
Q

Who is the chairperson for the Safety Council?

A

Executive Officer

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17
Q

The _________ makes recommendations about the command’s safety program to the Safety Council.

A

Enlisted Safety Committee

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18
Q

Who is the senior member of the Enlisted Safety Committee?

A

The Safety Officer or Safety Manager

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19
Q

What is the purpose of a mishap investigation?

A

The purpose of a mishap investigation is to determine the primary and contributing causes of the mishap. From those causes we can then plan corrective action to prevent a recurrence of the mishap.

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20
Q

Who is responsible for conducting a mishap investigation?

A

Investigation of mishaps is the responsibility of all levels of supervision, from the first-line supervisor to the commanding officer. An investigation is best conducted by the lowest level of supervision involved in the job or event that resulted in the mishap.

21
Q

Explain when different types of eye protection are required?

A

Each activity shall ensure that an assessment of all workplaces is conducted to determine if hazards are present that necessitate the use of PPE. Employees shall wear approved eye protection when there is a reasonable probability that wearing such equipment will prevent injury.

22
Q

Where can you find the standards for design, construction, testing and use of eye protection?

A

American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z87.1 or American National Standard Practice for Occupational and Educational Eye and Face Protection

23
Q

What is the goal of the Navy Hearing Conservation Program?

A

To prevent occupational hearing loss and ensure auditory fitness for duty in the military and civilian workforce.

24
Q

Who should be enrolled in the Navy Hearing Conservation Program?

A

All personnel routinely working in hazardous noise areas and performing hazardous noise operations.

25
Q

Hazardous noise areas are defined as any work area where the time weighted average sound level is expected to be greater than

A

84dB(A)

26
Q

Personnel shall wear hearing protection when they enter or work in an area where the operations generate sound greater than:

A

84dB(A) or peak 140dB

27
Q

Personnel shall wear double hearing protection when they enter or work in an area where the operations generate sound greater than:

A

104dB(A) or peak 165dB

28
Q

Why is it necessary to properly use and maintain Personal Protective Equipment?

A

Many protective devices, through misapplication or improper maintenance, can become ineffective without the knowledge of the wearer and can have potentially serious consequences.

29
Q

What is the definition of a temporary electric power source.

A

Any electrical power sources (construction power pole boxes or generators) used during the period of construction, remodeling, repair or demolition of structures or similar activities. A receptacle in a building with existing power used to supply electricity for construction is considered temporary power.

30
Q

Explain the inspection requirements of temporary power sources.

A

All temporary power sources will be inspected, certified safe in accordance with current National Electrical Code (NEC), and tagged with the inspector’s name, company and date prior to first use.

31
Q

Explain when Ground Fault Circuit Interruption (GFCI) protection is required.

A

All 120V, single-phase, 15 and 20 ampere receptacle outlets on construction sites

32
Q

Explain the importance of grounding portable electric power.

A

Electrical faults in the generator set, load lines, or lad equipment can cause injury or electrocution from contact with an ungrounded generator.

33
Q

Define “Confined Space”

A

Confined spaces are enclosures that have limited means of entry and exit, and although they are large enough to get into, they are not designed for continuous employee occupancy.

34
Q

Who can certify that a confined space is safe for entry?

A

Gas Free Engineer or Confined Space Program Manager (CSPM)

35
Q

State the three types of respirators

A

Air Purifying, Supplied Air, Self Contained Breathing Apparatus

36
Q

When can personnel use air purifying respirators?

A

Personnel shall only use this respirator where adequate oxygen (19.5 to 23.5 percent by volume) is available.

37
Q

OPNAV Form 5100/11 is used for what purpose?

A

To report of an unsafe or unhealthful working condition.

38
Q

List and describe the four general classes of fires.

A

Class A: Wood, Paper, Trash; Class B: Flammable Liquids; Class C: Electrical; Class D: Combustible Metals

39
Q

What type of fire extinguisher can be use on a Class A fire?

A

Water, Foam, Multi-purpose ABC

40
Q

What type of fire extinguisher can be use on a Class B fire?

A

Foam, Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Sodium or Potassium Bicarbonate (PKP), Multi-purpose ABC

41
Q

What type of fire extinguisher can be use on a Class C fire?

A

Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Sodium or Potassium Bicarbonate (PKP), Multi-purpose ABC

42
Q

What is the purpose of a safety stand-down?

A

A safety stand-down is a period, usually of 1 or 2 days, set aside for safety training, awareness, and drills.

43
Q

At a minimum how often must a command conduct a safety stand-down?

A

At least once a year

44
Q

Describe the concept of Operational Risk Management (ORM).

A

ORM is a decision making tool used by personnel at all levels to increase operational effectiveness by identifying, assessing, and managing risks. ORM minimizes risks to acceptable levels, commensurate with mission accomplishment.

45
Q

What are the five steps of Operational Risk Management?

A

Identify the hazard, Assess the hazard, Make risk decisions, Implement controls, Supervise

46
Q

What are the four principles of Operational Risk Management?

A

Accept risk when benefit outweighs the cost; Accept no unnecessary risk, Anticipate and manager risk by planning, Make risk decision at the right level

47
Q

Define Hazard Severity.

A

The worst credible consequence that can occur as a result of a hazard.

48
Q

Define Mishap Probability.

A

The probability that a hazard will result in a mishap or loss.